ANATOMY
Q 1. The carpal tunnel contains all of the
following important structures except:
A. Median nerve.
B. Flexor pollicis longus.
C. Flexor carpi radialis.
D. Flexor digitorum
superficialis.
Ans. C
Q 2. The femoral ring is bounded by the
following structures except:
A. Femoral vein.
B. Inguinal ligament.
C. Femoral artery.
D. Lacunar ligament.
Ans. C
Q 3. All of the following statements regarding
vas deferens are true except:
A. The terminal part is dilated
to form ampulla.
B. It crosses ureter in the
region of ischial spine.
C. It passes lateral to
inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring.
D. It is separated from the
base of bladder by the peritoneum.
Ans. D
Q 4. The following statements concerning chorda
tympani nerve are true except that it:
A. Carries secretomotor
fibers to slubmandibular gland.
B. Joins lingual nerve in
infratemporal fossa
C. Is a branch of facial
nerve.
D. Contains postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers.
Ans. D
Q 5. The type of joint between the sacrum and
coccyx is a:
A. Symphysis
B. Syostosis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Syndesmosis
Ans. A
Q 6. The prostatic urethra is characterized by
all of the following geatures, except that it:
A. Is the widest and most
dilatable part.
B. Presents a concavity
posteriorly.
C. Lies closer to anterior
surface of prostate.
D. Receives prostatic
ductules along its posterior wall.
Ans. B
Q 7. The following group of lymph nodes
receives lymphatics from the uterus except;
A. External iliac.
B. Internal iliac.
C. Superficial inguinal.
D. Deep inguinal
Ans. D
Q 8. All of the following physiological
processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except;
A. Proliferation and
hypertrophy.
B. Calcification and
ossification.
C. Vasculogenesis and erosion.
D. Replacement of red bone
marrow with yellow marrow.
Ans. D
Q 9. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in
obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with
enlargement of the:
A. Entire prostate gland.
B. Lateral lobes.
C. Median lobe.
D. Posterior lobes.
Ans. C
Q 10. In an adult male, on per rectal examination,
the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
A. Internal iliac lymph
nodes.
B. Bulb of the penis.
C. Prostate.
D. Seminal vesicle when
enlarged.
Ans. A
Q 11. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable
to introduce needle along:
A. Upper border of the rib.
B. Lower border of the rib.
C. In the center of the
intercostals space.
D. In anterior part of
intercostals space.
Ans. A
Q 12. All of the following are branches of the
external carotid artery except:
A. Superior thyroid artery.
B. Anterior ethmoidal artery.
C. Occipital artery.
D. Posterior auricular
artery.
Ans. B
Q 13. Barr body is found in the following phase of
the cell cycle:
A. Interphase.
B. Metaplase.
C. G1 phase.
D. Telophase.
Ans. A
Physiology
Q 14. The type of hemoglobin that has least
affinity for 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:
A. Hg A.
B. Hg F.
C. Hg B.
D. Hg A2.
Ans. B
Q 15. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried
out by all of the following except:
A. Intermediate filaments.
B. Actin.
C. Tubulin.
D. Myosin.
Ans. D
Q 16. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:
A. Kidney.
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow.
Ans. C
Q 17. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic
adult is:
A. 20-40 mg/dl
B. 40-70 mg/dl
C. 70-90 mg/dl
D. 90-110 mg/dl.
Ans. B
Q 18. Which one of the following molecules is used
for cell signaling?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. NO
D. N2
Ans. C
Q 19. Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
A. Parathyroid hormone.
B. Calcitonin.
C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
D. Tumor necrosis factor.
Ans. B
Q 20. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood
as:
A. Dissolved CO2.
B. Carbonic acid
C. Carbamino-hemoglobin
D. Bicarbonate.
Ans. D
Q 21. Both vitamin K and C are involved in:
A. The synthesis of clotting
factors.
B. Post translational
modifications.
C. Antioxidant mechanisms.
D. The microsomal
hydroxylation reactions.
Ans. B
Q 22. The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption
is:
A. Proximal convoluted
tubule.
B. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Cortical collecting duct.
D. Medullary collecting duct.
Ans. A
Q 23. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved
in:
A. Cell motility.
B. Receptor-mediated
endocytosis.
C. Exocytosis.
D. Cell shape.
Ans. B
Q 24. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate
nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of:
A. Color contrast.
B. Luminance contrast.
C. Temporal grequency.
D. Saccadic eye movements.
Ans. A
Q 25. The fibers from the contralateral nasal
hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus:
A. Layers 2, 3 & 5.
B. Layers 1, 2 & 6.
C. Layers 1, 4 & 6.
D. Layers 4, 5 & 6.
Ans. C
Q 26. All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin
except those found in:
A. Hepatic circulation
B. Cutaneous circulation
C. Cerebral microcirculation.
D. Renal circulation.
Ans. C
Q 27. SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart
because of the fact that it:
A. Is capable of generating
impulses spontaneously.
B. Has rich sympathetic
innervations.
C. Has poor cholinergic
innervations.
D. Generates impulses at the
highest rate.
Ans. D
Q 28. The first physiological response to high
environmental temperature is:
A. Sweating
B. Vasodilatation.
C. Decrease heat production.
D. Non-shivering
thermogenesis.
Ans. B
Q 29. All of the following factors normally
increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibres except:
A. Increased venous tone.
B. Increased total blood
volume.
C. Increased negative
intrathoracic pressure.
D. Lying-to-standing change
in posture.
Ans. D
Q 30. The vasodilatation produced by carbon
dioxide is maximum in one of the following:
A. Kidney.
B. Brain.
C. Liver.
D. Heart.
Ans. B
Q 31. Which one of the following statements
regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?
A. The bulk of water
reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption.
B. Majority of facultative
reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule.
C. Obligatory reabsorption is
ADH dependent.
D. 20% of water is always
reabsorbed irrespective of water balance.
Ans. A
Q 32. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney
is increased by:
A. ECF volume contraction.
B. Increase in RBF.
C. Reduction of medullary
hyperosmolarity.
D. Increase in CFR.
Ans. A
Q 33. Distribution of blood flow is mainly
regulated by the:
A. Arteries.
B. Arterioles.
C. Capillaries.
D. Venules.
Ans. B
Q 34. In which of the following a reduction in
arterial oxygen tension occurs?
A. Anaemia.
B. CO poisoning.
C. Moderate exercise.
D. Hypoventilation.
Ans. D
Q 35. With which one of the following lower motor
neuron lesions are associated?
A. Flaccid paralysis.
B. Hyperactive stretch
reflex.
C. Spasticity.
D. Muscular incorrdination.
Ans. A
Q 36. Which of the following statements can be
regarded as primary action of inhibin?
A. It inhibits secretion of
prolactin.
B. It stimulates synthesis of
estradiol.
C. It stimulates secretion of
TSH.
D. It inhibits secretion of
FSH.
Ans. D
biochemistry
Q 37. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac
muscle is:
A. LD-1
B. LD-2
C. LD-3
D. LD-5
Ans. A
Q 38. All of the following hormones have cell
surface receptors except:
A. Adrenalin
B. Growth hormone.
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine.
Ans. D
Q 39. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood
samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme:
A. Glucokinase.
B. Hexokinase.
C. Enolase.
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Ans. C
Q 40. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one
molecule to another are known as:
A. Ligases.
B. Oxido-reductases.
C. Transferases.
D. Dipeptidases.
Ans. C
Q 41. The amino acid residue having an imino side
chain is:
A. Lysine.
B. Histidine.
C. Tyrosine.
D. Proline.
Ans. D
Microbiology
Q 42. A woman with infertility receives an ovary
transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is?
A. Xenograft
B. Autograft
C. Allograft
D. Isograft.
Ans. D
Q 43. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is
known as:
A. Transduction.
B. Transformation.
C. Transcription.
D. Integration.
Ans. A
Q 44. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts
by:
A. ADP-ribosylation of the G
regulatory protein.
B. Inhibition of adenyl
cyclase.
C. Activation of GTPase.
D. Active absorption of NaCl.
Ans. A
Q 45. HIV can be detected and confirmed by:
A. Polymerase chain reaction
(PCR)
B. Reverse transcriptase -
PCR
C. Real time PCR
D. Mimic PCR.
Ans. B
Q 46. With reference to infections with
Escherichia coli the following are true except:
A. Enteroaggregative E.
coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea.
B. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli
produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.
D. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is
a common cause of travelers diarrhoea.
Ans. C
Q 47. The following statements are true regarding
melioidosis except:
A. It is caused by Burkholderia
mallei.
B. The agent is a grain
negative aerobic bacteria.
C. Bipolar staining of the
aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.
D. The most common form of
melioidosis is pulmonary infection.
Ans. A
Q 48. The following bacteria are most often
associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Streptococcus
agalactiae.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
Ans. C
Q 49. All of the following Vibrio sp. are
halophilic, except:
A. V. cholerae.
B. V. parahaemolyticus.
C. V. alginolyticus.
D. V. fluvialis.
Ans. A
Q 50. All of the following organisms are known to
survive intracellularly except:
A. Neisseria meningitides.
B. Salmonella typhi.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Legionella pneumophila.
Ans. C
Q 51. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in
a CSF sample is best seen by:
A. Grams stain.
B. India ink preparation.
C. Giemsa stain.
D. Methanamine-silver stain.
Ans. B
Q 52. Viruses can be isolated from clinical
samples by cultivation in the following except:
A. Tissue culture.
B. Embryonated eggs.
C. Animals.
D. Chemicaly defined media.
Ans. D
Q 53. It is true regarding the normal microbial
flora present on the skin and mucous membranes that:
A. It cannot be eradicated by
antimicrobial agents.
B. It is absent in the
stomach due to the acidic pH.
C. It establishes in the body
only after the neonatal period.
D. The flora in the small
bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
Ans. A
Q 54. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area
had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had
an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles,
along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the
referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the
diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in
Weil-Felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:
A. High OX-2.
B. High OX-19.
C. High OX-K.
D. High OX-19 and OX-2.
Ans. C
Q 55. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is
associated with:
A. Severe combined
immunodeficiency (SCID)
B. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
C. Transient
hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.
D. Chronic granulomatous
disease.
Ans. A
Q 56. Which of the following viral infections is
transmitted by tick?
A. Japanese encephalitis.
B. Dengue fever.
C. Kyasanur forest disease
(KFD).
D. Yellow fever.
Ans. C
Q 57. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the
following microbial agents except:
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Legionella pneumophila.
C. Human Corona virus.
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Ans. D
Q 58. The serum concentration of which of the
following human IgG subclass is maximum?
A. IgG1.
B. IgG2.
C. IgG3.
D. IgG4.
Ans. A
Q 59. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with
the following except:
A. Endemic trachoma.
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis.
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
D. Community acquired pneumonia.
Ans. D
Q 60. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium
perfringens except:
A. It is commonest cause of
gas gangrene.
B. It is normally present in
human faeces.
C. The principal toxin of C.perfringens
is the alpha toxin.
D. Gas gangrene producing
strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores.
Ans. D
Q 61. The most common organism amongst the
following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:
A. Streptococcus
pneumoniae.
B. Streptococcus
agalactiae.
C. Cryptococcus neoformans.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
Ans. C
Q 62. A bacterial disease that has been associated
with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:
A. Leptospirosis.
B. Plague.
C. Melioidosis.
D. Rodent-bite fever.
Ans. A
Q 63. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from
diarrhoea due to Campylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be
the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the
stool sample:
A. Temperature of 42°C and
microaerophilic.
B. Temperature of 42°C and
10% carbon dioxide.
C. Temperature of 37°C and
microaerophilic.
D. Temperature of 37°C and
10% carbon dioxide.
Ans. A
Q 64. Which one of the following statements is
true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:
A. Fifteen serovars have been
identified as human pathogens.
B. Mode of transmission is by
the airborne bird excreta.
C. The cytoplasmic inclusions
present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen.
D. The group specific antigen
is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.
Ans. D
Q 65. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which
of the following immunoglobulins?
A. IgA.
B. IgG.
C. IgM.
D. IgE.
Ans. D
Pathology
Q 66. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:
A. Myc.
B. Fos.
C. Ras.
D. Rb.
Ans. D
Q 67. The following is not a feature of malignant
transformation by cultured cells:
A. Increased cell density.
B. Increased requirement for
growth factors.
C. Alterations of
cytoskeletal structures.
D. Loss of anchorage.
Ans. B
Q 68. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic
carcinogens is:
A. Ames test.
B. Redox test.
C. Bacteriophage.
D. Gene splicing.
Ans. A
Q 69. The classification proposed by the
International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is known as:
A. Kiel classification.
B. REAL classification.
C. WHO classification.
D. Rappaport classification.
Ans. B
Q 70. All of the following features are seen in
the viral pneumonia except:
A. Presence of interstitial
inflammation.
B. Predominance of alveolar
exudates.
C. Bronchiolitis.
D. Multinucleate giant cells
in the bronchiolar wall.
Ans. B
Q 71. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:
A. Subacute bacterial
endocarditis.
B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
C. Rheumatic carditis.
D. Non-bacterial thrombotic
endocarditis.
Ans. C
Q 72. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I pneumoncytes.
B. Type II pneumocytes.
C. Clara cells.
D. Bronchila epithelial
cells.
Ans. B
Q 73. Which one of the following conditions
commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma?
A. Ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn’s disease.
C. Diverticular disease.
D. Ischaemic colitis.
Ans. A
Q 74. Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of
the following except:
A. Malignant hypertension.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Diabetic
glomerulosclerosis.
D. Aschoff’s nodule.
Ans. C
Q 75. All of the following statements are true
regarding reversible cell injury, except:
A. Formation of amorphous
densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
B. Diminished generation of
adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Formation of blebs in the
plasma membrane.
D. Detachment of ribosomes
from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.
Ans. A
Q 76. Which of the following statements pertaining
to leukemia is correct?
A. Blasts of acute myeloid
leukemia are typically sudan black negative.
B. Blasts of acute
lymphoblastic leukemia are typically myeloperoxidase positive.
C. Low leucocyte alkaline
phosphatase score is characteristically seen in blastic phase of chronic
myeloid leukemia.
D. Tartarate resistant acid
phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemiA.
Ans. D
Q 77. In which of the following conditions
bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen?
A. Amyloidosis.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Rapidly progressive
(crescentic) glomerulonephritis.
D. Benign nephrosclerosis.
Ans. D
Q 78. All of the following vascular changes are
observed in acute inflammation, except:
A. Vasodilation.
B. Stasis of blood.
C. Increased vascular
permeability.
D. Decreased hydrostatic
pressure.
Ans. D
Q 79. The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease, which is
histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is:
A. Lymphocyte predominant.
B. Nodular sclerosis.
C. Mixed cellularity.
D. Lymphocyte depleted.
Ans. A
Q 80. In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release
of which of the following substances from the mitochondria?
A. Bcl-2
B. Bax.
C. Bcl-XL
D. Cytochrome C.
Ans. D
Q 81. Which type of amyloidosis is caused by
mutation of the transthyretin protein?
A. Familial Mediterranean
fever.
B. Familial amyloidotic
polyneuropathy.
C. Dialysis associated
amyloidosis.
D. Prion protein associated
amyloidosis.
Ans. B
Q 82. In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene
encoding the following protein undergoes mutation:
A. Pyrin.
B. Perforin.
C. Atrial natriuretic factor.
D. Immunoglobulin light
chain.
Ans. A
Q 83. Which of the following statements is not
true?
A. Patinets with IgD myeloma
may present with no evident M-spike on serum electrophoresis.
B. A diagnosis of plasma cell
leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14%
of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with white blood cell count of 11 ´ 109/L and platelet count of 88 ´ 109/L.
C. In smoldering myeloma
plasma cells constitute 10-30% of total bone marrow cellularity.
D. In a patient with multiple
myeloma, a monoclonal light chain may be detected in both serum and urine.
Ans. B
Q 84. In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate:
A. Fraction of cells in
apoptotic pathways.
B. Fraction of cells in S
phase.
C. p53 gene product.
D. bcr/abl gene.
Ans. A
Q 85. Which one of the following stains is
specific for amyloid?
A. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)
B. Alzerian red.
C. Congo red.
D. Von-Kossa.
Ans. C
Q 86. Which one of the following diseases
characteristically causes fatty change in liver?
A. Hepatitis B virus
infection.
B. Wilson’s disease.
C. Hepatitis C virus
infection.
D. Chronic alcoholism.
Ans. D
Q 87. A 48-year-old woman was admitted with a
history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were
found enlared and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her
hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x 109/L and total leukocyte count
40 x 109/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped
chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral
blood lumphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were
negative for CD79B and FMC-7.
The histopathological examination
of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effeacement of lymph
node architecture by:
A. A pseudofollicular pattern
with proliferation centers.
B. A monomorphic lymphoid
proliferation with a nodular pattern.
C. A predominantly follicular
pattern.
D. A diffuse proliferation of
medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate.
Ans. D
Q 88. Which one of the following is not a
feature of liver histology in non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF).
A. Fibrosis in and around the
portal tracts.
B. Thrombosis of the medium
and small portal vein branches.
C. Non specific inflammatory
cell infiltrates in the portal tracts.
D. Bridging fibrosis.
Ans. D
Pharmacology
Q 89. A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the
kidney.
B. Can cross the placental
barrier easily.
C. Is well absorbed from the
intestine.
D. Accumulates in the
cellular lipids.
Ans. A
Q 90. Which one of the following drugs is
‘topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’?
A. Doxorubicin.
B. Irinotecan.
C. Etoposide.
D. Vincristine.
Ans. B
Q 91. The following drugs have significant drug
interaction with digoxin, except:
A. Cholestyramine.
B. Thiazide diuretics.
C. Quinidine.
D. Amlodipine.
Ans. D
Q 92. One of the following is not true
about nesiritide:
A. It is a brain natriuretic
peptide analogue.
B. It is used in acutely
decompensated heart failure.
C. It has significant oral
absorption.
D. It has a short half-life.
Ans. C
Q 93. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is
treated by:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Levodopa.
C. Selegiline.
D. Amantadine.
Ans. A
Q 94. Which one of the following is used in
therapy of toxoplasmosis?
A. Artensenuate.
B. Thiacetazone.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Pyrimethamine.
Ans. D
Q 95. The following statements regarding
finasteride are true except:
A. It is used in the medical
treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
B. Impotence is well
documented after its use.
C. It blocks the conversion
of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone.
D. It is a 5-a reductase
inhibitor.
Ans. C
Q 96. Eternacept acts by one of the following
mechanisms:
A. By blocking tumor
necorosis factor.
B. By blocking bradykinin
synthesis.
C. By inhibiting
cyclo-oxygenase-2.
D. By blocking lipoxygenase.
Ans. A
Q 97. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk
of kernicterus increases with the use of:
A. Ceftriaxone.
B. Phenobarbitone.
C. Ampicillin.
D. Sulphonamide.
Ans. D
Q 98. All of the following are topically used
sulphonamides except:
A. Sulphacetamide.
B. Sulphadiazine.
C. Silver sulphadiazine.
D. Mafenide.
Ans. B
Q 99. Oculogyric crisis is know to be produced by
all of the following drugs except:
A. Trifluoperazine.
B. Atropine.
C. Perchlorperazine.
D. Perphenazine.
Ans. B
Q 100. Which of the following drugs is useful in
prophylaxis of migraine?
A. Proproanolol.
B. Sumatriptan.
C. Domperidone.
D. Ergotamine.
Ans. A
Q 101. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:
A. Phenobarbitone.
B. Flumazenil.
C. Beta-Carboline.
D. Gabapentin.
Ans. C
Q 102. The group of antibiotics which possess
additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is:
A. Tetracyclines.
B. Polypeptide antibiotics.
C. Fluoroquinolones.
D. Macrolides.
Ans. D
Q 103. With which of the following theophylline has
an antagonistic interaction?
A. Histamine receptors.
B. Bradykinin receptors.
C. Adenosine receptors.
D. Imidazoline receptors.
Ans. C
Q 104. One of the following is not
penicillinase susceptible:
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Penicillin G.
C. Piperacillin.
D. Cloxacillin.
Ans. D
Q 105. Which one of the following is best associated
with lumefantrine?
A. Antimycobacterial.
B. Antifungal.
C. Antimalarial.
D. Antiamoebic.
Ans. C
Q 106. Which one of the following drugs increases
gastro-intestinal motility?
A. Glycopyrrolate.
B. Atropine.
C. Neostigmine.
D. Fentanyl.
Ans. C
Q 107. Nevirapine is a:
A. Protease inhibitor.
B. Nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor.
C. Non-nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor.
D. Fusion inhibitor.
Ans. C
forensic
Medicine
Q 108. In a firearm injury, there is burning,
blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the
surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:
A. Close shot entry.
B. Close contact exit.
C. Contact shot entry.
D. Distant shot entry.
Ans. C
Q 109. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS
depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are
produced due to:
A. Formaldehyde and formic
acid.
B. Acetaldehyde.
C. Pyridine.
D. Acetie acid.
Ans. A
Q 110. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following
samples can be sent for laboratory examination except:
A. Nail clippings.
B. Hair samples.
C. Bone biopsy.
D. Blood sample.
Ans. D
Q 111. Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding diatom?
A. Diatoms are aquatic
unicellular plant.
B. Diatoms has an
extracellular coat composed of magnesium.
C. Acid diagestion technique
is used to extract diatoms.
D. Presence of diatoms in the
femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water.
Ans. B
Q 112. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the
following cases except:
A. Exhumation cases.
B. Dowry deaths within 5
years of marriage.
C. Murder cases.
D. Death of a person in
police custody.
Ans. C
Q 113. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will
show the following features, except:
A. Characteristic bitter
lemon smell.
B. Congested organs.
C. The skin may be pinkish or
cherry red in colour.
D. Erosion and haemorrhages
in oesophagus and stomach.
Ans. A
Q 114. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s
method of identification is:
A. Cementum apposition.
B. Transparency of root.
C. Attrition.
D. Root resorption.
Ans. B
Q 115. The minimum age at which an individual is
responsible for his criminal act is:
A. 7 years.
B. 12 years.
C. 16 years.
D. 21 years.
Ans. A
Q 116. The most reliable method of identification of
an individual is:
A. Dactylography.
B. Scars.
C. Anthropometry.
D. Handwriting.
Ans. A
Q 117. The most common pattern of finger print is:
A. Arch.
B. Loop.
C. Whorl.
D. Composite.
Ans. B
PSM
Q 118. ‘Endemic disease’ means that a disease:
A. Occurs clearly in excess
of normal expectancy.
B. Is constantly present in a
given population group.
C. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
D. Is prevalent among
animals.
Ans. B
Q 119. Which one of the following is a good index of
the severity of an acute disease?
A. Cause specific death rate.
B. Case fatality rate.
C. Standardized mortality
ratio.
D. Five year survival.
Ans. B
Q 120. Which one of the following statements about
influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
A. Influence of smoking is
independent of other risk factors for CHD.
B. Influence of smoking is
only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
C. Influence of smoking is
synergistic to other risk factors for CHD.
D. Influence of smoking is
directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
Ans. B
Q 121. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating
cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
A. Tetracycline.
B. Co-trimoxazole.
C. Doxycycline.
D. Furazolidone.
Ans. C
Q 122. All of the following statements are true about
congenital rubella except:
A. It is diagnosed when the
infant has IgM antibodies at birth.
B. It is diagnosed when IgG
antibodies persist for more than 6 months.
C. Most common congenital
defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract.
D. Infection after 16 weeks
of gestation results in major congenital defects.
Ans. D
Q 123. The recommended daily energy intake of an
adult woman with heavy work is:
A. 1800.
B. 2100.
C. 2300.
D. 2900.
Ans. D
Q 124. All of the following methods are antilarval
measures except:
A. Intermittent irrigation.
B. Paris green.
C. Gamusia affinis.
D. Malathion.
Ans. D
Q 125. All of the following are true about the herd
immunity for infectious diseases except:
A. It refers to group
protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals.
B. It is likely to be more
for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.
C. It is affected by the
presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.
D. In the case of tetanus it
does not protect the individual.
Ans. B
Q 126. The best indicator for monitoring the impact
of iodine deficiency disorder control programme is:
A. Prevalence of goiter among
school children.
B. Urinary iodine levels
among pregnant women.
C. Neonatal hypothyroidism.
D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans. C
Q 127. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals
to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
A. Yellow.
B. Black.
C. Red.
D. Blue.
Ans. A
Q 128. WHO defines adolescent age between:
A. 10-19 years of age.
B. 10-14 years of age.
C. 10-25 years of age.
D. 9-14 years of age.
Ans. A
Q 129. In a village having population of 1000, we
found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on
that disease are as follows.
Test result Disease
Present Absent
+ 180 400
– 20 400
What is the percent prevalence of
disease?
A. 0.20
B. 2
C. 18
D. 20
Ans. D
Q 130. The following tests are used to check the
efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
A. Phosphatase test.
B. Standard plate count.
C. Coliform count.
D. Methylene blue reduction
test.
Ans. D
Q 131. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is
89 kg and height is 172 cm:
A. 27
B. 30
C. 33
D. 36
Ans. B
Q 132. The most common side effect of IUD insertion
is:
A. Bleeding.
B. Pain.
C. Pelvic infection.
D. Ectopic pregnancy.
Ans. A
Q 133. For the treatment of case of class III dog
bite, all of the following are correct except:
A. Give immunoglobulins for
passive immunity.
B. Give ARV.
C. Immediately stitch wound
under antibiotic coverage.
D. Immediately wash wound
with soap and water.
Ans. C
Q 134. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC
with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last
12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory
rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
A. Very severe disease.
B. Severe pneumonia.
C. Pneumonia.
D. No pneumonia.
Ans. A
Q 135. The information technology has revolutionized
the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information
Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
A. 1998.
B. 2000.
C. 2001.
D. 2003.
Ans. B
Q 136. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed
by Government of India in:
A. 1996
B. 1993
C. 1998
D. 1994
Ans. D
Q 137. Which one of the following is not source of
manager’s power?
A. Reward
B. Coercive
C. Legitimate.
D. Efferent.
Ans. D
Q 138. The standard normal distribution:
A. Is skewed to the left.
B. Has mean = 1.0
C. Has standard deviation =
0.0
D. Has variance = 1.0
Ans. D
Q 139. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls
follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20
1/min:
A. About 95% of the girls
have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.
B. The girls have healthy
lungs.
C. About 5% of girls have
PEFR below 260 1/min.
D. All the PEFR must be less
than 340 l/min.
Ans. A
Q 140. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
A. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) +
Prob (B).
B. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A).
Prob (B).
C. Prob (A) = Prob (B).
D. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1.
Ans. D
Q 141. Total cholesterol level = a + b (calorie
intake) + C (physical activity) + d (body mass index); is an example of:
A. Simple linear regression.
B. Simple curvilinear
regression.
C. Multiple linear
regression.
D. Multiple logistic
regression.
Ans. C
Q 142. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5
g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb
level 15.0 g/dl:
A. 9.0
B. 10.0
C. 2.0
D. 1.0
Ans. D
Q 143. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly
exclude the disease is reflected by:
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictivity
D. Negative predictivity.
Ans. D
Q 144. Infant mortality does not include:
A. Early neonatal mortality.
B. Perinatal mortality.
C. Post neonatal mortality.
D. Late neonatal mortality.
Ans. B
Q 145. A cardiologist found a highly significant
correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure
values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which
of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient
observed?
A. Since there is a high
correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to
each other.
B. A patient with a high
level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
C. A patient with a low level
of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
D. About 80% of the variation
in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum
cholesterol values and vice a versa.
Ans. A
Q 146. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban
women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is:
A. Cervical cancer.
B. Ovarian cancer.
C. Breast cancer.
D. Uterine cancer.
Ans. C
Medicine
Q 147. The most common pathogens responsible for
nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
A. Gram positive organisms.
B. Gram negative organisms.
C. Mycoplasma.
D. Virus infections.
Ans. B
Q 148. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function
test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
A. Increased RV/TLC.
B. Reduced FEV1/FVC.
C. Reduced FEV25-75.
D. Increased FRC.
Ans. A
Q 149. Which one of the following drugs has been
shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with
symptoms of reflux?
A. Ondansetron.
B. Metoclopramide.
C. Sodium citrate.
D. Atropine.
Ans. C
Q 150. Which one of the following is true of adrenal
suppression due to steroid therapy?
A. It is not associated with
atrophy of the adrenal glands.
B. It does not occur in
patients receiving inhaled steroids.
C. It should be expected in
anyone receiving > 5 mg, prednisolone daily.
D. Following cessation, the
stress response normalizes after 8 weeks.
Ans. C
Q 151. A 30-year-old male patient presents with
complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months.
He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and
5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mmHg, all peripheral
pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations
showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC-12000 cumm, platelets 4,30,000, ESR-49 mm. Urine
examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa.
B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus.
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
D. Mixed cryoglobulemia.
Ans. A
Q 152. Which of the following infestation leads to
malabsorption?
A. Giardia lamblia.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides.
C. Necater americana.
D. Ancylostoma duodenale.
Ans. A
Q 153. All of the following can cause osteoporosis
except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Steroid use.
C. Fluorosis.
D. Thyrotoxicosis.
Ans. C
Q 154. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be
raised in all of the following except:
A. Sarcoidosis.
B. Silicosis.
C. Berylliosis.
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Ans. D
Q 155. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is
most often mediated by:
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B. Parthyroid hormone related
protein (PTHrP)
C. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
D. Calcitonin.
Ans. B
Q 156. All of the following are the causes of
relative polycythemia except:
A. Dehydration.
B. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
C. Gaisbock syndrome.
D. High altitude.
Ans. D
Q 157. All of the following may cause ST segment
elevation on EKG, except:
A. Early repolarization
variant.
B. Constrictive pericarditis.
C. Ventricular aneurysm.
D. Prinzmetal angina.
Ans. B
Q 158. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
A. Bone diseases.
B. Prostate cancer.
C. Chronic renal failure.
D. Cholestatic disorders.
Ans. D
Q 159. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
A. Hb Bart’s cannot bind
oxygen.
B. The excess a-globin form insoluble precipitates.
C. Hb Bart’s cannot release
oxygen to fetal tissues.
D. Microcytic red cells
become trapped in the placenta.
Ans. C
Q 160. Cluster headache is characterized by all
except:
A. Affects predominantly
females.
B. Unilateral headache.
C. Onset typically in 20-50
years of life.
D. Associated with
conjunctival congestion.
Ans. A
Q 161. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of
myasthenia gravis is:
A. Elevated serum
ACh-receptor binding antibodies.
B. Repetitive nerve stimulation
test.
C. Positive edrophonium test.
D. Measurement of jitter by
single fibre electromyography.
Ans. A
Q 162. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of
the following, except:
A. Myelopathy.
B. Optic atrophy.
C. Peripheral neuropathy.
D. Myopathy.
Ans. D
Q 163. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the
following except:
A. Subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis.
B. Locked-in state.
C. Creutzfoldt-Jackob
disease.
D. Hepatic encephalopathy.
Ans. B
Q 164. All of the following are neurologic
channelopathies except:
A. Hypokalemic periodic
paralysis.
B. Episodic ataxia type 1.
C. Familial hemiplegic
migraine.
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1.
Ans. D
Q 165. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Acanthamoeba.
C. Naegleria.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
Ans. D
Q 166. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker
presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing
shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was
constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known
hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of
130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were
present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest
X-ray showed left pleural effusion.
Which one of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute aortic dissection.
B. Acute myocardial
infarction.
C. Rupture of the esophagus.
D. Acute pulmonary embolism.
Ans. A
Q 167. Which of the following is a cause of
reversible dementia?
A. Subacute combined
degeneration.
B. Picks disease.
C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
D. Alzheimer’s disease.
Ans. A
Q 168. Palpable purpura could occur in the following
conditions, except:
a. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Small-vessel vasculitis.
C. Disseminated gonococcal
infection.
D. Acute meningococcemia.
Ans. A
Q 169. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous
mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction
of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate
treatment is:
A. Mitral valve repair of
replacement.
B. No treatment.
C. ACE inhibitor therapy.
D. Digoxin and diuretic
therapy.
Ans. A
Q 170. The gold standard for the diagnosis of
osteoporosis is:
A. Dual energy X-ray
absorptimetry.
B. Single energy X-ray
absorptiometry.
C. Ultrasound.
D. Quantiative computed
tomography.
Ans. A
Q 171. All of the following CSF findings are present
in tuberculous meningitis, except:
A. Raised protein levels.
B. Low chloride levels.
C. Cob web formation.
D. Raised sugar levels.
Ans. D
Q 172. Which one of the following serum levels would
help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver diseae?
A. Aminotransaminase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Bilirubin.
D. Albumin.
Ans. D
Q 173. All of the following conditions are known to
cause diabetes insipidus except:
A. Multiple sclerosis.
B. Head injury.
C. Histiocytosis.
D. Viral encephalitis.
Ans. A
Q 174. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th 6th nerves with
involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to:
A. Cavernous sinus.
B. Apex of orbit.
C. Brainstem.
D. Base of skull.
Ans. A
Q 175. Which one of the following is the most common
location of hypertensive bleed in the brain?
A. Putamen/external capsule.
B. Pons.
C. Ventricles.
D. Lobar white matter.
Ans. A
Q 176. In which of the following diseases, the
overall survival is increased by screening procedure?
A. Prostate cancer.
B. Lung cancer.
C. Colon cancer.
D. Ovarian cancer.
Ans. C
paediatrics
Q 177. The protective effects of breast milk are
known to be associated with:
A. IgM antibodies.
B. Lysozyme.
C. Mast cells.
D. IgA antibodies.
Ans. D
Q 178. Study the following carefully:
Read the pedigree. Inheritance
pattern of the disease in the family is:
A. Autosomal recessive type.
B. Autosomal dominant type.
C. X linked dominant type.
D. X linked recessive type.
Ans. D
Q 179. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established
by:
A. NESTROFT test.
B. HbA1c estimation.
C. Hb electrophoresis.
D. Target cells in peripheral
smear.
Ans. C
Q 180. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening
is obtained on:
A. Cord blood.
B. 24 hours after birth.
C. 48 hours after birth.
D. 72 hours after birth.
Ans. D
Q 181. A child with recurrent urinary tract
infections is most likely to show:
A. Posterior urethral valves.
B. Vesicoureteric reflux.
C. Neurogenic bladder.
D. Renal and ureteric
calculi.
Ans. B
Q 182. All of the following are true about
manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except:
A. Hemolytic anemia.
B. Posterior column abnormalities.
C. Cerebellar ataxia.
D. Autonomic dysfunction.
Ans. D
Q 183. Differential expression of same gene depending
on parent of origin is referred to as:
A. Genomic imprinting.
B. Mosaicism.
C. Anticipation.
D. Non penetrance.
Ans. A
Q 184. The appropriate approach to a neonate
presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:
A. Administration of vitamin
K.
B. Investigation for bleeding
disorder.
C. No specific therapy.
D. Administration of 10ml/kg
of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours.
Ans. C
Q 185. Which one of the following drugs is used for
fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A. Hydrocortisone.
B. Prednisolone.
C. Fludrocortisone.
D. Dexamethasone.
Ans. D
Q 186. The coagulation profile in a 13-year-old girl
with menorrhagia having von-Willebrands disease is:
A. Isolated prolonged PTT
with a normal PT.
B. Isolated prolonged PT with
a normal PTT.
C. Prolongation of both PT
and PTT.
D. Prolongation of thrombin
time.
Ans. A
Q 187. The chances of having an unaffected baby, when
both parents have achondroplasia, are:
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
Ans. B
Q 188. All of the following therapies may be required
in a 1 hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except:
A. Glucose
B. Dexamethasone.
C. Calcium gluconate.
D. Normal saline.
Ans. B
Q 189. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis
affecting children is:
A. Takayasu disease.
B. Mucocutaneous lymph node
syndrome (Kawasaki disease)
C. Henoch Schonlein purpura.
D. Polyarteritis nodosa.
Ans. C
Q 190. A four year old boy was admitted with a history
of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days,
and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and
spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His
hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 ´ 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 ´ 109/L,
which included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular
marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors.
The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and
were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20.
Which one of the following
statements in not true about this disease?
A. Eosinophils are not of the
neoplastic clone.
B. t(5:14) rearrangement may
be detected in blasts.
C. Peripheral blood
wosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy.
D. Inv (16) is often detected
in the blasts and the eosinophils.
Ans. D
Q 191. Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic
uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of:
A. Thrombotic
microangiopathy.
B. Proliferative
glomerulonephritis.
C. Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis.
D. Minimal change disease.
Ans. A
Q 192. One of the intestinal enzymes that is
generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectious
enteritis is:
A. Lactase.
B. Trypsin.
C. Lipase.
D. Amylase.
Ans. A
Q 193. A new born presented with bloated abdomen
shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of
the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings
is most likely to be present?
A. Fibrosis of submucosa.
B. Hyalinisation of the
muscular coat.
C. Thickened muscularis
propria.
D. Lack of ganglion cells.
Ans. D
Q 194. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all
except:
A. Return of left ventricle
& right ventricle to normal size.
B. Pulmonary veins not
distended.
C. Pruning of peripheral
pulmonary arteries.
D. Dilatation of central
pulmonary arteries.
Ans. A
Q 195. Which of the following is the most common
renal cystic disease in infants is?
A. Polycystic kidnesy.
B. Simple renal cyst.
C. Unilateral renal
dysplasia.
D. Calyceal cyst.
Ans. C
Q 196. The most common type of total anomalous
pulmonary venous connection is:
A. Supracardiac
B. Infracardiac.
C. Mixed.
D. Cardiac.
Ans. A
Q 197. The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3
year old child is:
A. Trauma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Vesicoureteral reflux
induced pyelonephritis.
D. Interstitial nephritis.
Ans. C
Q 198. Which one of the following is the common cause
of congential hydrocephalus is?
A. Craniosynostosis.
B. Intra uterine meningitis.
C. Aqueductal stenosis.
D. Malformations of great
vein of Galen.
Ans. C
Q 199. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best
diagnosed by:
A. Ultrasonography.
B. IVU.
C. DTPA renogram.
D. Creatinine clearance.
Ans. C
Q 200. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy
is:
A. Malignant teratoma.
B. Neuroblastoma.
C. Wilms’ tumor.
D. Hepatoblastoma.
Ans. B
Q 201. The most common presentation of a child with
Wilms’ tumor is:
A. An asymptomatic abdominal
mass.
B. Haematuria.
C. Hypertension.
D. Hemoptysis due to
pulmonary secondary.
Ans. A
psychiatry
Q 202. A 40-year-old male, with history of daily
alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency
room with acute onset of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not
recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for having
missed the alcohol drink since 2 days, Examination reveals increased blood
pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect,
hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and insight.
He is most likely to be
suffering from:
A. Alcoholic hallucinosis.
B. Delirium tremens.
C. Wernicke encephalopathy.
D. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
Ans. B
Q 203. A 45-year-male with a history of alcohol
dependence presents with confusion nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals
6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:
A. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
B. Wernicke encephalopathy.
C. De Clerambault syndrome.
D. Delirium tremens.
Ans. B
Q 204. A 25-year-old female presents with 2 year
history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt
associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her
own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with
medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following
therapies:
A. Exposure and response
prevention.
B. Systematic
desensitization.
C. Assertiveness training.
D. Sensate focusing.
Ans. A
Q 205. An 18 year old boy came to the psychiatry OPD
with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as
feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense
and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This
phenomena is best called as:
A. Delusional mood.
B. Depersonalization.
C. Autochthonous delusion.
D. Over valued idea.
Ans. B
Q 206. The major difference between typical and
atypical antipsychotics is that:
A. The latter cause minimal
or no increase in prolactin.
B. The former cause tardive
dyskinesia.
C. The former are available
as parenteral preparations.
D. The latter cause
substantial sedation.
Q 207. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is
caused by blockade of:
A. Muscarininc acetylcholine
receptors.
B. Serotonergic receptors.
C. Dopaminergic receptors.
D. GABA receptors.
Q 208. All of the following are hallucinogens,
except:
A. LSD
B. Phenylcyclidine.
C. Mescaline.
D. Methylphendate.
Ans. D
Q 209. An 18 year old student complains of lack of
interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his
parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach
would be to:
A. Leave him as normal
adolescent problem.
B. Rule out depression.
C. Rule out migraine.
D. Rule out an oppositional
defiant disorder.
Ans. B
Q 210. Perseveration is:
A. Persistent and
inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts.
B. When a patient feels very
distressed about it.
C. Characteristic of
schizophrenia.
D. Characteristic of
obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD).
Ans. A
Q 211. One of the following usually differentiates
hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:
A. Symptoms do not normally
reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.
B. Physical symptoms are
prominent which are not explained by organic factors.
C. Personality traits are
significant.
D. Symptoms run a chronic
course.
Ans. A
DERMATOLOGY
Q 212. All of the following drugs are effective in
the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
A. Selenium sulphide.
B. Ketoconazole.
C. Griseofulvin.
D. Clotrimazole.
Ans. C
Q 213. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy,
annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment
led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Erythema annulare
centrifugum.
B. Granuloma annulare.
C. Annular lichen planus.
D. Tinea cruris.
Ans. D
Q 214. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic,
multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the
periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis versicolor.
B. Pityriasis alba.
C. Pityriasis rosea.
D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris.
Ans. C
Q 215. The only definite indication for giving
systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:
A. Psoriatic enythroderma
with pregnancy.
B. Psoriasis in a patient
with alcoholic cirrhosis.
C. Moderate arthritis.
D. Extensive lesions.
Ans. D
Q 216. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year
history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face.
There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis
in the patient is:
A. Acne vulgaris.
B. Rosacea.
C. Systemic lupus
erythematosus.
D. Polymorphic light
eruption.
Ans. B
Q 217. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6
months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the
face. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba.
B. Indeterminate leprosy.
C. Morphoca.
D. Calcium deficiency.
Ans. B
Q 218. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a
vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for
fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Behcet’s syndrome.
B. Herpes genitalis.
C. Fixed drug eruption.
D. Pemphigus vulgaris.
Ans. C
surgery
Q 219. According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) a
verbal score of 1 indicates:
A. No response.
B. Inappropriate words.
C. Incomprehensible sounds.
D. Disoriented response.
Ans. A
Q 220. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the
reconstruction of:
A. Buccal mucosa.
B. Lip.
C. Tongue.
D. Palate.
Ans. B
Q 221. In which one of the following perineural
invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
A. Adenocarcinoma.
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
C. Basal cell Adenoma.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Ans. B
Q 222. In which one of the following conditions the
sialography is contraindicated?
A. Ductal calculus.
B. Chronic parotitis.
C. Acute parotitis.
D. Recurrrent sialadenitis.
Ans. C
Q 223. The most common site of leak in CSF
rhinorrhoea is:
A. Sphenoid sinus.
B. Frontal sinus.
C. Cribriform plate.
D. Tegmen tympani.
Ans. C
Q 224. Which one of the following soft tissue
sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?
A. Fibrosarcoma.
B. Osteosarcoma.
C. Embryonal
rhabdomyosarcoma.
D. Alveolar soft part
sarcoma.
Ans. C
Q 225. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the
management of :
A. Intermittent claudication.
B. Distal ischaemia affecting
the skin of the toes.
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Back pain.
Ans. B
Q 226. A blood stained discharge from the nipple
indicates one of the following:
A. Breast abscess.
B. Fibroadenoma.
C. Duct papilloma.
D. Fat necrosis of breast.
Ans. C
Q 227. The earliest manifestation of increased
intracranial pressure following head injury is:
A. Ipsilateral papillary
dilatation.
B. Contralateral papillary
dilatation.
C. Altered mental status.
D. Hemiparesis.
Ans. A
Q 228. In which of the following conditions
splenectomy is not useful?
A. Hereditary spherocytosis.
B. Porphyria.
C. Thalassemia.
D. Sickle cell disease with
large spleen.
Ans. None/B
Q 229. The following is ideal for the treatment with
injection of sclerosing agents:
A. External hemorrhoids.
B. Internal hemorrhoids.
C. Prolapsed hemorrhoids.
D. Strangulated hemorrhoids.
Ans. B
Q 230. In which of the following locations, carcinoid
tumor is most common?
A. Esophagus.
B. Stomach.
C. Small bowel.
D. Appendix.
Ans. C
Q 231. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and
phaeochromocytoma may be associated with:
A. Medullary carcinoma of
thyroid.
B. Papillary carcinoma of
thyroid.
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of
thyroid.
D. Follicular carcinoma of
thyroid.
Ans. A
Q 232. Gardener’s syndrome is a rare herediatary
disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by:
A. Polyposis colon, cancer
thyroid, skin tumours.
B. Polyposis in jejunum,
pituitary adenoma and skin tumours.
C. Polyposis colon, osteomas,
epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumorus in the skin.
D. Polyposis of
gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and skin tumours.
Ans. C
Q 233. All of the following are true for patients of
ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC),
except:
A. They may develop biliary
cirrhosis.
B. May have raised alkaline
phosphatase.
C. Increased risk of hilar
cholangiocarcinoma.
D. PSC reverts after a total
colectomy.
Ans. D
Q 234. The most common complication seen in hiatus
hernia is:
A. Oesophagitis.
B. Aspiration pneumonitis.
C. Volvulus.
D. Esophageal stricture.
Ans. A
Q 235. Patients of rectovaginal fistula should be
initially treated with:
A. Colostomy.
B. Primary repair.
C. Colporrhaphy.
D. Anterior resection.
Ans. A
Q 236. Which of the following catheter materials is
most suited for long-term use is?
A. Latex.
B. Silicone.
C. Rubber.
D. Polyurethane.
Ans. D
Q 237. Which of the following is the most troublesome
source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy?
A. Dorsal venous complex.
B. Inferior vesical pedicle.
C. Superior vesical pedicle.
D. Seminal vesicular artery.
Ans. A
Q 238. The most sensitive imaging modality for
diagnosing ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:
A. X-ray KUB region.
B. Ultrasonogram.
C. Non contrast CT scan of
the abdomen.
D. Contrast enhanced CT scan
of the abdomen.
Ans. C
Q 239. Which one of the following is not used
as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?
A. AFP.
B. LDH.
C. HCG.
D. CEA.
Ans. D
OrthOpaedics
Q 240. A young woman met with an accident and had
mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture
dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management?
A. Immediate anterior
decompression.
B. Cervical traction followed
by instrument fixation.
C. Hard cervical collar and
bed rest cervical laminectomy.
D. Cervical laminectomy.
Ans. B
Q 241. Which one of the following is the
investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes’ disease?
A. Plain X-ray.
B. Ultrasonography (US).
C. Computed tomography (CT).
D. Magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI).
Ans. D
Q 242. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the
following except:
A. Crush nerve injury.
B. Fetal development.
C. Senescence.
D. Neuropraxia.
Ans. D
Q 243. In Klippel-Feil syndrome, the patient has all
of the following clinical features except:
A. Low hair line.
B. Bilateral neck webbing.
C. Bilateral shortness of
sternomastoid muscles.
D. Gross limitations of neck
movements.
Ans. C
Q 244. The most common sequelae of tuberculous
spondylitis in an adolescent is:
A. Fibrous ankylosis.
B. Bony ankylosis.
C. Pathological dislocation.
D. Chronic osteomyelitis.
Ans. B
Q 245. In radionuclide imaging the most useful radio-
pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
A. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
B. Technetium-sulphur-colloid
(99mTc-Sc).
C. Technetium-99m (99mTc).
D. Technetium-99m linked to
methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).
Ans. D
Q 246. Heberden’s arthropathy affects:
A. Lumbar spine.
B. Symmetrically large
joints.
C. Sacroiliac joints.
D. Distal interphalangeal
joints.
Ans. D
Q 247. Subtrochanteric fractures of femur can be
treated by all of the following methods except:
A. Skeletal traction on
Thomas’ splint.
B. Smith Petersen nail.
C. Condylar blade plate.
D. Ender’s nail.
Ans. B
Q 248. All of the following are true about fracture
of the atlas vertebra, except:
A. Jefferson fracture is the
most common type.
B. Quadriplegia is seen in
80% cases.
C. Atlantooccipal fusion may
sometimes be needed.
D. CT scans should be done
for diagnosis.
Ans. D
Q 249. A 30-year-old man had road traffic accident
and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden
breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
A. Pneumonia.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Bronchial asthma.
D. Fat embolism.
Ans. D
Q 250. A 45-year-old was given steroids after renal
transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips.
Which one of the following is most likely cause?
A. Primary osteoarthritis.
B. Avascular necrosis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Aluminum toxicity.
Ans. B
Q 251. All of the following areas are commonly
involved sites in pelvic fracture except:
A. Pubic rami.
2. Alae of ileum.
3. Acetabula.
4. Ischial tuberosities.
Ans. D
ANAESTHESIA
Q 252. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing
the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
A. In a difficult intubation.
B. In a cardiopulmonary
resuscitation.
C. In a child undergoing an
elective/routine eye surgery.
D. In a patient with a large
tumor in the oral cavity.
Ans. D
Q 253. The following are used for treatment of
postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children
except:
A. Ketamine.
B. Ondansetron.
C. Propofol.
D. Dexamethasone.
Ans. A
Q 254. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents
causes a rise in the intracranial pressure:
A. Sevoflurane.
B. Thiopentone sodium.
C. Lignocaine.
D. Propofol.
Ans. A
Q 255. The following modes of ventilation may be used
for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
A. Controlled Mechanical
ventilation (CMV).
B. Synchronized intermittent
mandatory ventilation (SIMV).
C. Pressure support
ventilation (PSV).
D. Assist-control ventilation
(ACV).
Ans. A
Q 256. A lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) can
be carried out under all the following techniques anaesthesia except:
A. General anaesthesia.
B. Spinal anaesthesia.
C. Caudal anaesthesia.
D. Combined spinal epidural.
Ans. C
Q 257. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a
spontaneonsly breathing infant during anaesthesia is:
A. Jackson Rees modification
of Ayres T piece.
B. Mapleson A or Magill’s
circuit.
C. Mapleson C or Waters to
and fro canister.
D. Bains circuit.
Ans. A
Q 258. All of the following are the disadvantages of
anesthetic ether, except:
A. Induction is slow.
B. Irritant nature of ether
increases salivary and bronchila secretions.
C. Cautery can not be used.
D. Affects blood pressure and
is liable to produce arrhythmias.
Ans. D
Q 259. Which one of the following is the fastest
acting inhalational agent?
A. Halothane.
B. Isoflurane.
C. Ether.
D. Sevoflurane.
Ans. D
Gynaecology
and obstetrics
Q 260. Aspermia is the term used to describe:
A. Absence of semen.
B. Absence of sperm in
ejaculate.
C. Absence of sperm motility.
D. Occurrence of abnormal
sperm.
Ans. A
Q 261. Which of the following ultrasound marker is
associated with greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in fetus:
A. Echogenic foci in heart.
B. Hyperechogenic bowel.
C. Choroid plexus cysts.
D. Nuchal edema.
Ans. D
Q 262. The highest incidence of gestational
trophoblastic disease is in:
A. Australia.
B. Asia.
C. North America.
D. Western Europe.
Ans. B
Q 263. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
A. Interspinous diameter.
B. Diagonal conjugate.
C. True conjugate.
D. Intertuberous diameter.
Ans. A
Q 264. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the
ovary is:
A. Choriocarcinoma.
B. Dysgerminoma.
C. Embryonal cell tumor.
D. Malignant teratoma.
Ans. B
Q 265. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have
the following cardiac anomaly:
A. Coarctation of aorta.
B. Fallot’s tetrology.
C. Ebstein’s anomaly.
D. Transposition of great
arteries.
Ans. D
Q 266. Which one of the following is the ideal
contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
A. IUCD.
B. Depo-provera.
C. Diaphragm.
D. Oral contraceptive pills.
Ans. C
Q 267. The karyotype of a patient with androgen
insensitivity syndrome is:
A. 46 xx.
B. 46 xy.
C. 47 xxy.
D. 45 xo.
Ans. B
Q 268. The following drug is not helpful in
the treatment of ectopic pregnancy:
A. Methotrexate.
B. Misoprostol.
C. Actinomycin-D.
D. RU 486.
Ans. B
Q 269. The best period of gestation to carry out
chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is:
A. 8-10 weeks.
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 12-14 weeks.
D. 14-16 weeks.
Ans. B
Q 270. Which one of the follwing biochemical
parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
A. Maternal serum alpha
fetoprotein.
B. Amniotic fluid alpha
fetoprotein.
C. Amniotic fluid acetyl
cholinesterase.
D. Amniotic fluid
glucohexaminase.
Ans. C
Q 271. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if
cervical length is:
A. 2.5 cm.
B. 3.0 cm.
C. 3.5 cm.
D. 4.0 cm.
Ans. A
Q 272. All are the risk factors associated with
macrosomia except:
A. Maternal obesity.
B. Prolonged pregnancy.
C. Previous large infant.
D. Short stature.
Ans. D
Q 273. Which of the following statements is incorrect
in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
A. The rate of congenital
malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.
B. Seizure frequency
increases in approximately 70% of women.
C. Breast feeding is safe
with most anticonvulsants.
D. Folic acid supplementation
may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.
Ans. B
Q 274. All are the causes of intrauterine growth
retardation except:
A. Anemia.
B. Pregnancy induced
hypertension.
C. Maternal heart disease.
D. Gestational diabetes.
Ans. D
Q 275. Misoprostal has been found to be effective in
all of the following except:
A. Missed abortion.
B. Induction of labour.
C. Menorrhagia.
D. Prevention of post-partum
hemorrhage (PPH).
Ans. C
Q 276. All of the following appear to decrease hot
flushes in menopausal women except:
A. Androgens.
B. Raloxifene.
C. Isoflavones.
D. Tibolone.
Ans. B
Q 277. In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the
following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
A. Serum HCG.
B. Serum alphafetoprotein.
C. Serum lactic
dehydrogenase.
D. Serum inhibin.
Ans. C
Q 278. Use of one of the following vaccination is
absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. Hepatitis-B.
B. Cholera.
C. Rabies.
D. Yellow fever.
Ans. B/D
Q 279. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea
in India is:
A. Endometrial tuberculosis.
B. Premature ovarian failure.
C. Polycystic ovarian
syndrome.
D. Sheehan’s syndrome.
Ans. A
ophthalmology
Q 280. In von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, the retinal
vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which
one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in
this syndrome?
A. Optic radiation.
B. Optic tract.
C. Cerebellum.
D. Pulvinar.
Ans. C
Q 281. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casualty
with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no
perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is
A. Iris vessels.
B. Circulus iridis major.
C. Circulus iridis minor.
D. Short posterior ciliary
vessels.
Ans. A
Q 282. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden
painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of
trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Vitreous haemorrhage.
B. Optic atrophy.
C. Developmental cataract.
D. Acute attack of angle
closure glaucoma.
Ans. A
Q 283. The mother of a one and a half year old child
gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed
tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital cataract.
B. Retinoblastaoma.
C. Endophthalmitis.
D. Coats’ disease.
Ans. B
Q 284. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of
the following except:
A. Keratoconus.
B. Herpes simplex keratitis.
C. Leprosy.
D. Neurofibromatosis.
Ans. B
Q 285. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020’ programme, the
‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases?
A. Trachoma.
B. Glaucoma.
C. Diabetic retinopathy.
D. Onchocerciasis.
Ans. A
Q 286. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of
the following except:
A. Miosis.
B. Enophthalmos.
C. Ptosis.
D. Cycloplegia.
Ans. D
Q 287. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:
A. 3rd cranial nerve.
B. 4th cranial nerve.
C. 5th cranial nerve.
D. 6th cranial nerve.
Ans. B
Q 288. Which of the following statement is true
regarding Acanthamoeba keratistis?
A. For the isolation of the
causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient afar plate.
B. the causative agent,
Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil.
C. Keratitis due to
Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host.
D. Acanthamoeba does not
depend upon a human host for the completion of its life-cycle.
Ans. D
Q 289. A 30-year-old man has 6/5 vision each eye,
unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. At 1 metre distance. His
complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two
minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Hypermetropia.
B. Presbyopia.
C. Accommodative inertia.
D. Cycloplegia.
Ans. C
Q 290. Contact lens wear is proven to have
deleterious effects on the corneal physiology which of the following statements
is incorrect in connection with contact lens wear?
A. The level of glucose
availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced.
B. There is a reduction in
hemidesmosome density.
C. There is increased
production of CO2 in the epithelium.
D. There is a reduction in
glucose utilization by corneal epithelium.
Ans. A
ENT
Q 291. All are true for Gradenigo’s syndrome
except:
A. It is associated with
conductive hearing loss.
B. It is caused by an abscess
in the petrous apex.
C. It leads to involvement of
the cranial nerves V and VI.
D. It is characterized by
retro-orbital pain.
Ans. A
Q 292. The most common and earliest manifestation of
carcinoma of the glottis is:
A. Hoarseness.
B. Haemoptysis.
C. Cervical lymph nodes.
D. Stridor.
Ans. A
Q 293. Androphonia can be corrected by doing:
A. Type I Thyroplasty.
B. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
C. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
D. Type 4 Thyroplasty.
Ans. D
Q 294. Use of Seigel’s speculum during examination of
the ear provides all except:
A. Magnification.
B. Assessment of movement of
the tympanic membrane.
C. Removal of foreign body
from the ear.
D. As applicator for the
powdered antibiotic of ear.
Ans. C
Radiology
Q 295. Which one of the following is the most
preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?
A. Transfemoral route.
B. Transaxillary route.
C. Direct carotid puncture.
D. Transbrachial route.
Ans. A
Q 296. Which one of the following radioisotope is
not used as permanent implant?
A. Iodine-125.
B. Palladium-103.
C. Gold-198.
D. Caesium-137.
Ans. B
Q 297. Which one of the following tumors shows
calcification on CT scan:
A. Ependymoma.
B. Medulloblastoma.
C. Meningioma.
D. CNS lymphoma.
Ans. C
Q 298. The technique employed radiotherapy to
counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as:
A. Arc technique.
B. Modulation.
C. Gating.
D. Shunting.
Ans. C
Q 299. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used for:
A. Organ imaging .
B. Measuring the
radioiactivity.
C. Monitoring the surface
contamination.
D. RIA.
Ans. B
Q 300. At t = 0 there are 6 ´ 1023 radioactive atoms of a substance, which decay with
a disintegration constant (l) equal to 0.01/sec. What would be the initial
decay rate?
A. 6 ´ 1023.
B. 6 ´1022.
C. 6 ´ 1021.
D. 6 ´ 1020.
Ans. C
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