Chapter One Anatomy
1. Y
chromosome is:
A. Acrocentric B. Metacentric
C. Submetacentric D. Telocentric
Ans. (A) Acrocentric
2. Cells
in intestine that migrate to surface include the following except:
A. Paneth cells B. Enterocytes
C. Goblet cells D. Enteroendocrine cells
Ans. (A) Paneth cells
3. Common
carotid artery bifurcation occurs at the level of:
A. Hyoid bone B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Superior border of
thyroid cartilage D. Inferior border of thyroid cartilage
Ans. (C) Superior border of thyroid cartilage.
4. While
exposing left subclavian artery which of the following muscle is not dissected?
A. Omohyoid B. Scalenus anticus
C. Scalenus medius D. Sternocleidomastoid
Ans. (C) Scalenus medius
5. Typical
cervical vertebral can be easily differentiated from thoracic vertebral by:
A. Large vertebral body B. Foramen transversarium
C. Superior articular facet D. Wide triangular vertebral canal
Ans. (B) Foramen transversarium
6. Facial
nerve can be assessed by testing action of which ofthe following muscle?
A. Orbicularis oris B.
Temporalis
C. Masseter D.
Pterygoid
Ans. (A) Orbicularis oris
7. Pudendal
nerve supplying sphincter of bladder : has the root value of?
A. T12-L1 B. S1-S2
C. S2-S3 D. L2-L3
Ans. (C) S2-S3
Chapter Two Biochemistry
1. Fastest
technique to detect X-Y intersex:
A. PCR with sequencing B. FISH
C. RFLP D. Single-strand conformational polymorphism
(SSCP)
Ans. (B) FISH
2. Which
of the following is not required in PCR?
A. DNTP B. Primer
C. DNA probe D. Heat stable DNA Polymerase
Ans. (C) DNA probe
3. All
the following reaction occur in the mito chondria except: (JIPMER 1988)
A. Embeden Meroff pathway B. Krebs cycle
C. Urea cycle D. Fatty acid cycle of oxidation
Ans. (A) Embeden Meroffpathway
4. Enzymes
of glycolysis are present in:
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus D. Cell membrane
Ans. (A) Cytosol
5. CO2
+ H2O are formed in which of the following?
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Extracellular matrix D. Cell membrane
Ans. (B) Mitochondria
6. Final
product of Purine metabolism in Don primate mammals:
A. lonosine B. Xanthine
C. Uric acid D. Allantoin
Ans. (D) Allantoin
7. Ammonia
is formed from which ofthe following amino acid?
A. Glutamine B. Alanine
C. Leucine D. Histidine
Ans. (A) Glutamine
8. Essential
amino acids include the following except: (AI
1991)
A. Lysine B. Methionine
C. Leucine D. Alanine
Ans. (D) Alanine
9. Triglyceride
content is highest in:
A. LDL B. VLDL
C. Chylomicrons D. HDL
Ans. (C) Chylomicrons
10. Thymine deficiency is not seen in:
A. Homocystinuria B. Beriberi
C. Wernicke’s-KarsokofPs
psychosis D. Hartnup disease
Ans. (A) Homocystinuria
11. Vitamin A in its overdose/toxicity acts by causing damage to:
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome D. Cell membrane
Ans. (C) Lysosome
12. Vitamin excreted in urine:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E
Ans. (C) Vitamin C
13. Antioxidants in eye include following except: (AI
2007)
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E D. Catalase
Ans. (A) Vitamin A
14. Richest source of vitamin D:
A. Fish B. Egg
C. Citrus fTuit D. Pappya
Ans. (A) Fish
15. Active form of vitamin D?
A. 25-ergosterol B. 1,25-dihydroergosterol
C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
Ans. (D) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
16. Hyaluronic acid occurs maximally at: (DNB 1989; AIIMS
2006 Nov.)
A. Outer layer epidennis B. Vitreous humour
C. Retina D. Cornea
Ans. (B) Vitreous humour
17. Krebs cycle begins with:
A. Pyruvate B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Fatty acid D. Succinyl CoA
Ans. (A) Pyruvate
18. Bile acid is produced from:
A. Bilirubin B. Lipoprotein
C. Cholesterol D. Amino acids
Ans. (C) Cholesterol
ChapteR Three Physiology
1. Not true regarding action
ofENDOTHELIN-l:
A. Vasoconstriction B. Bronchodilatation
C. Decreased GFR D. Water retention
Ans. (B) Bronchodilatation
2. Iron
is absorbed in:
A. Stomach B. Duodenum and proximal jejunum
C. Jejunum and ileum D. Colon
Ans. (B) Duodenum and proximal jejunum
3. Oxygen
toxicity can cause all except:
A. Increases lung
compliance B. Decreased vital capacity
C Atelectatic collapse D. Endothelial damage
Ans: (A) Increases lung compliance
4. O2 transfer to the tissue does not depend on:
A. Hemoglobin concentration B. Cardiac output
C. Type of fluid
administered D. O2 concentration
Ans. (D) Type of fluid administered
5. Cerebral
blood flow is not dependent on:
A. Cerebral Metabolic rate B. CO2
C. Blood pressure D. K+
Ans. (D) K+
6. Non-endogenous
catecholamine:
A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine D. Dobutamine
Ans. (D) Dobutamine
7. All
are true about the blood pressure measurement except:
A. Korotkoff sound IV
correspond to intra arterial diastolic blood pressure
B. BP cuff should be 40% of
arm circumference
C. Small cuff gives rise to
spuriously high diastolic BP
D. Monkeberg sclerosis may
give rise to spuriously high BP
Ans. (C) Small cuff gives rise to spuriously high diastolic BP
8. Renal
Free water clearance is:
A. ADH dependent B. Renin dependent
C. Aldosterone dependent D. Increased by frusemide
Ans. (A) ADH dependent
9. Mineralocorticoid
receptors are not present in:
A DCT B. Colon
C. Hippocampus D. Liver
Ans. (D) Liver
10. Renin is secreted in:
A. PCT B. Ascending loop of Henle
C. Descending loop of Henle D. DCT
Ans. (D) DCT
11. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is located in:
A. Proximal convoluted
tubule B. Ascending loop of distal convoluted tubule
C. Descending loop of
distal convoluted tubule D. Glomerulus
Ans. (B) Ascending loop of distal convoluted tubule
12. True about hemodynamic changes occurring during isometric exercise
include all except:
A. Increased Cardiac output B. Increased Coronary blood flow
C. Increased Peripheral
vascular resistance D. O2 dissociation curve shift to right
Ans. (C) Increased Coronary blood flow
13. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is degraded by:
A. Neutral Endopeptidase B. Protease
C. Protinase D. Altepase
Ans. (A) Neutral Endopeptidase
Chapter Four Pathology
1. Not
a feature of apoptosis:
A. Cell shrinkage B. Chromatin condensation
C. Cytoplasmic blebs and
apoptotic bodies D. Inflammation.
Ans. (D) Inflammation
2. Which
is not a B-cell marker?
A. CD-15 B. CD-21
C. CD-24 D. CD-19
Ans. (A) CD-15
3. Hb
electrophoresis is helpful diagnosis due to which of the following proper,ty?
A. Charge and mobility B. Molecular weight
C. Particle size D. Solubility
Ans. (A) Charge and mobility
4. Steroid-resistant
nephrotic syndrome is associated with mutation in - gene? (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. NPHSl B. PAX
C. HOX II D. NPHS2
Ans. (D) NPHS2
5. Michaelis
Guttman bodies are characteristic of:
A. Multiple myeloma B. Malakoplakia
C. Sarcoidosis D. Pilomatrixoma
Ans. (B) Malakoplakia
6. Histological
appearance ofIiver in malaria:
A. Kuffer cell hyperplasia B. Eosinophilic infiltrate
C. Mononuclear infiltrate D. Foamy cells
Ans. (A) Kuffer cell hyperplasia
Chapter Five Forensic Medicine
1. Spalding’s
sign seen in:
A. Drowning B. Maceration
C. Hanging D. Poisoning
Ans. (B) Maceration
2. Site
of action of Mercury: (AI
2007)
A. Loop of Henle B. PCT
C. OCT D. Collecting ducts
Ans. (B) PCT
3. Which
of he following is nota dialysable poison? (AI
2007)
A. Ethylene glycol B. Copper sulphate
C. Barbiturate D. Alcohol
Ans. (B) Copper sulphate
4. Hemoperfusion
with Charcoal is used in treatment of poisoning with:
A. Ethylene glycol B. Lithiwn
C. Methanol D. Barbiturates
Ans. (D) Barbiturates
Chapter Six Microbiology
1. Most
common cause of IV catheter infection?
A. E co!i B. Kleihsiella
C. Streptococci D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus aureus
Ans. (D) Coagulase negative staphylococcus aureus
2. Traveler’s
diarrhoea is most commonly caused by: (SGPGI2002)
A. EIEC B. S. dysenteriae
C. EPEe D. Salmonella
Ans. (A) ETEC
3. Hemolytic
Uremic Syndrome can be caused by the following except: (JIPMER /995)
A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
C. Shigella D. Vibrio cholerae
Ans. (D) Vibrio cholerae
4. Infective
endocarditis by pseudomonas is common in patients with:
A. Drug addiction with
pethidine B. Immunosuppression
C. Splenectomy D. Steroid therapy
Ans. (D) Steroid therapy
5. Most
common cause of neonatal sepsis in hospitals:
A. Klebsiella B. Betahemdytic streptococci
C. Streptococci D. E. coli
Ans. (D) E. coli
6. Group
A streptococci can be differentiated from other bacteria by: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Optochin sensitivity. B. Bacitracin susceptibility.
C. Bile Solubility. D. Catalase negativity.
Ans. (B) Bacitracin susceptibility
7. True
about pseudo membranous colitis?
A. Toxin A of Clostridium
difjicile is mainly involved in pathogenesis
B. Toxin B of Clostridium
difjicile is mainly involved in pathogenesis
C. Summit lesion is a early
histological finding
D. Blood in stools is a
common feature
Ans. (A) A toxin of Clostridium difficile is mainly involved in
pathogenesis
8. Which
of the following statements about Lepromin test is not true? (AI 2007)
A. It is negative in most
children in first 6 months oflife.
B. It is a diagnostic test.
C. It is an important aid
to classify type ofleprosy disease.
D. BCG vaccination may
convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.
Ans. (B) It is a diagnostic test
9. A
2 year old child on 8th day of 10 day Cefaclor course presented with
fever malaise lymphadenopathy and a mildly pruritic rash on body. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Partially treated
meningitis B. Kawasaki disease
C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Ans. (D) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
10. Which ofthe following is cultivable in vitro?
A. HAV B. HBV
C. HCV D. HEV
Ans. (A) HAV
Chapter Seven Pharmacology
1. Regarding
prodrug and active drug, untrue is:
A. The placebo response is
usually quantitated by administration of an inert material, with exactly the
same physical appearance, odor, consistency, etc., as the active dosage form.
B. The magnitude of the
response is same in all patients
C. The incidence of the
placebo response is fairly constant, being observed in 20-40% of patients in
almost all studies.
D. Placebo “toxicity” also
occurs but usually involves subjective effects: stomach upset, insomnia,
sedation, etc.
Ans. (B) The magnitude of the response is same in all patients
2. Anti-emetics
are the following except:
A. Domeperidone B. Ondansetron
C. Cyclizine D. Phenacizine
Ans. (D) Phenacizine
3. Against
MRSA drugs useful are all the following except: (AI
2007)
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Vancomycin
D. Cefaclor
Ans. (D) Cefaclor
4. Imatinib
mesylate acts by: (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Inhibiting Glutathione
reductase.
B. Blocking the action of
chimeric fusion protein ofbcr-abl
C. Competitive inhibition A
TP binding site of Abl kinase
D. Inhibiting Protein
kinase
Ans. (C) Competitive inhibition A TP binding site of Abl kinase
5. Carbimazole
if given in pregnancy is known to cause the following except:
A. Choanal atresia B. Cleft palate and lip
C. Scalp defect D. Goiter
Ans. (B) Cleft palate and lip
6. Antihypertensive
having highest risk of causing impotence?
A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers
C. Aldosterone antagonist D. Calcium channel blockers
Ans. (B) Beta blockers
7. Bone
marrow depression can be caused by the following drugs except:
A. Methicillin B. Chloramphenicol
C. Chlorpromazine D. Alpha methyl hydantoin
Ans. (A) Methicillin
8. Action
of digoxin is not significantly altered by:
A. Myocardial infarction B. Liver disease
C. Renal failure D. Electrolyte imbalance
Ans. (B) Liver disease
9. Drug
that can cause gynecomastia?
A. Testosterone B. Spironolactone
C. Ampicillin D. Atenolol
Ans. (B) Spironolactone
10. Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Beta blockers B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers D. Sodium channel blockers
Ans. (B) ACE inhibitors
11. Which does not cause activation of NO?
A. Fenoldopam B. Hydralazine
C. Niroprusside D. Nitrogycerine
Ans. (A) Fenoldopam
12. Antihypertensive drug that can be used in pregnancy?
A. Labetolol B. Enalapril
C. Hydralazine D. Amlodepine
Ans. (A) Labetolol
13. Which ofthe following immunosuppressant is a macrolide antibiotic?
A. Cyclosporine B. Azathioprine
C. Mycophenolate D. Tacrolimus
Ans. (D) Tacrolimus
14. FK 506 is:
A. Macrolide antibiotic B. TNF alpha inhibitor
C. Anti-leukemic drug D. Monoclonal antibody
Ans. (A) Macrolide antibiotic
15. Interstitial nephritis can be caused by the following except:
A. Diuretics B. INH
C. Allopurinol D. Beta lactamase inhibitors
Ans. (B) INH
16. Prophylaxis in patients with penicillin sensitive allergy can be
given with?
A. Erythromycin B. Cephalosporins
C. Carbapenems D. Oxacilin
Ans. (A) Erythromycin
17. Which of the following drug does not cause hypertension?
A. Cyclosporin B. Erythropoetin
C. NSAIDS D. L-dopa
Ans. (D) L-dopa
18. Which of the following is an antimetabolite?
A. Methotrexate B. Cyclosporine
C. Etoposide D. Vinblastine
Ans. (A) Methotrexate
19. Naloxone is contraindicated in neonatal resuscitation ifthe mother
is taking:
A. Cocaine B. Amphetamine
C. Methadone D. Phencyclidine
Ans. (C) Methadone
Chapter Eight Medicine
1. Mutation
of which gene related to pulmonary hypertension is?
A. Bone morphogenic protein
receptor 2 gene B. Endothelin gene
C. Fabrin gene D. RANK Ligand gene
Ans. (A) Bone morphogenic protein receptor 2 gene
2. Clubbing
is feature of all the following except:
A. Aortic dissection B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Fungal endocarditis D. Pulmonary A V fistula
Ans. (A) Aortic dissection
3. ‘Half
and halP nail seen in uremia occurs due to:
A. Hemorrhages at the nail
bed B. Capillary proliferation under nail plate
C. Deposition of uremic
crystals at nail base D. Melanin deposition
Ans. (B) Capillary proliferation under nail plate
4. Water
hammer pulse is a feature of:
A. Aortic regurgitation B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis
Ans. (A) Aortic regurgitation
5. Differential
diagnosis of raised JVP with shock will include the following except:
A. Heart failure B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Second degree heart
block D. Right ventricular infarction
Ans. (B) Second degree heart block
6. A
30 year old male has diarrhoea, anaemia, and raised liver enzymes. Which of the
following will you do for further evaluation?
A. Anti-thyroid antibodies B. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
C. Anti-mitochondrial
antibodies D. Anti-endomysial antibodies
Ans. (D) Anti-endomysial antibodies
7. Least
Common complication of measles? (AI
2007)
A. Cranial nerve palsy B. Otitis media
C. Pneumonia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Ans. (D) (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis)
8. Loeffiet’s
syndrome is caused by the following except:
A. Giardia lamblia B. Aspergillus
C. Strongyloides
stercoralis D. Inherited L-tryptophan deficiency
Ans. (A) Giardia lamblia
9. Tests
for neurocardiogenic syncope include all the following except:
A. Duplex doppler of
carotid B. Table tilt test
C. Carotid massage D. 24 hours orthostatic monitoring ofBP
Ans. (A) Duplex doppler of carotid
10. In acute graft verses host disease (Acute GVHD), organ not involved
is?
A. Skin B. Lung
C. Liver D. Intestine
Ans. (B) Lung
11. Which is not a characteristic feature of hemolysis?
A. Burr cells and tear drop
cells B. Decreased haptoglobin
C. Hemoglobinuria D. Reticulocytosis
Ans. (A) Burr cells and tear drop cells
12. Reticulocytosis is seen in all the following except:
A. Postsplenectomy B. Chronic hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Ans. (D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
13. A 21 years old male has anaemia (Hb=5g/dl) with hepatosplenomegaly
and history of single blood transfusion till date. The most probable clinical
diagnosis should be?
A. B-thalassemia major B. B-thalassemia intermedia
C. B- Thalassemia minor D. HbH disease
Ans. (B) B-thalassemia intermedia
14. DIC is feature of:
A. Acute lymphatic leukemia B. Acute Myelomonocytic leukemia
C. Acute promyelocytic
leukemia D. Acute Erythroleukemic leukemia
Ans. (C) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
15. Plasma exchange is of therapeutic benefit in which ofthe following?
A. DIC B. TIP
C. HUS D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
Ans. (B) TTP
16. A 3-year-old child presented with pallor, petechiae, and ecchymotic
patches all over the body with history of pain abdomen. Spleen is not.
palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. ITP. B. TIP
C. Aplastic anemia D. Acute leukemias
Ans. (B) ITP
17. Earliest phenotypic feature of idiopathic hereditary
hemochromatosis is?
A. Postprandial rise in
serum iron level B. Slate grey pigmentation of skin
C. Elevated ferritin levels D. Increased serum transferrin saturation
Ans. (D) Increased serum transferrin saturation
18. Most common cause of renal artery stenosis in childhood in India:
A. Medial fibroplasia B. Intimal fibroplasia
C. Takayasu’s arteritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Ans. (A) Medial fibroplasia
19. Nephrocalcinosis is not seen in:
A. Sarcoidosis B. Distal Renal tubular acidosis
C. Medullary cystic disease
of kidney D. Milk alkali syndrome
Ans. (C) Medullary cystic disease of kidney
20. High anion-gap acidosis is seen the following except: (JIPMER
94)
A. Salicylate toxicity B. Renal failure
C. Lactic acidosis D. Diarrhea
Ans. (D) Diarrhea
21. All the following can be seen in Addison’s disease except:
A. Serum cortisol <8
mmol /L B. Decreased renin
C. Decreased diastolic BP D. Cardiac atrophy
Ans. (B) Decreased renin
22. MEN2 is associated with the following except:
A. Pheochromocytoma B. Islet cell hyperplasia
C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Thyroid cancer
Ans. (B) Islet cell hyperplasia
23. Heterotopic Calcification can be best monitored by: (AI
2007)
A. Serum Calcium Levels B. Follow up X-rays
C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Acid phosphatase
Ans. (A) Serum Calcium Levels
24. A 60-year-old man with sensorineural deafness and bony abnormality
in left leg has sr.ca2+-9.5 and serum alkaline phosphate 440mu/I skeletal
survey shows cotton wool lesions in skull and ivory vertebra. The ~ost probable
diagnosis is?
A. Paget’s disease B. Osteosclerotic metastasis
C. Osteoporosis D. Fibrous dysplasia
Ans. (A) Paget’s disease
25. Pituitary apoplexy is not associated with which of the following?
A. Hypertension B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Hyperthyroidism D. Sickle cell anaemia
Ans. (C) Hyperthyroidism
26. Following cranial radiation therapy production of which ofthe
following Pituitary hormone is first affected?
A. ACTH B. G-I
C. Gonadotropin D. Prolactin
Ans. (B) Growth hormone
27. Arsenic is useful in treatment of
A Acute Promyelocytic
Leukemia B. Myelodysplastic syndrome
C. Transient
myeloproliferative disorders D. ALL
Ans: (A) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
28. Which will prolong life in a patient of PostMyocardial Infarction?
A. Omega-3 fatty acids B. High fiber diet
C. VitaminE D. Steroids
Ans. (A) Omega-3 fatty acids
29. Atkins diet is:
A. Low carbohydrate diet B. Low protein diet
C. Low fat diet D. Low mineral diet
Ans. (A) Low carbohydrate diet
Chapter Nine Surgery
1. Gold
Standard tool for monitoring intracranial tension:
A. Intraventricular
catheter B. Subarachnoid bolt
C. Epidural catheter D. Parenchymal electrode
Ans. (A) Intraventricular catheter
2. Ideal
time for orchiopexy in case ofU ndescended testis:
A. Neonate B. 1-2 years of age
C. 5 years of age D. Before puberty
Ans. (B) 1-2 years of age
3. True
about branchial cyst: (AIIMS
Nov. 2006)
A. Arises from 2nd
branchial arch B. Branchial sinus is more common than cyst
C. Resection of branchial
sinus is not necessary D. Presents with dysphagia and hoarseness of
voice
Ans. (A) Arises from 2nd branchial arch
4. In
a 44-years-old male with carcinoma involving right lateral border tongue with
enlarged level III lymph node of 4 cnf diameter on left side of neck, the
staging would be:
A. N0 B. N2
C. N3 D. N4
Ans. (B) N2
5. A
20-year.~old girl presents with history of neck swelling sihce 6 months. She
also has sy~ptoms of hyp~rthyroidism. On palpation she has a 2 x 2 cm thyroid
nodule. The most appropriate next investigation in further evaluation ofthis
patient would be:
A. Ultrasonography B. Thyroid scan
C. Radioactive iodine
uptake (RAIU) D. CT scan
Ans. (B) Thyroid scan
6. Treatment
of choice for carcinoma breast with positive axillary lymph nodes with modified
radical mastectomy done:
A. Adriyamycin
B. Adriyamycin and tamoxifen
together, ifthere is estrogen receptor positivity
C. Adriyamycin followed
bytamoxifen ifthere is estrogen receptor positivity
D. Adriyamycin and
tamoxifen ifthere is estrogen receptor negativity
Ans. (C) Adriyamycin followed by tamoxifen if there is estrogen
receptor positivity
7. Renal
angle:
A. 11th rib and lateral
border of quadratus lumborum
B. 12th rib and lateral
border of quadratus lumborum
C 11th rib and lateral
border of sacrospinalis muscle
D. 12th rib and lateral
border of sacrospinalis muscle
Ans. (D) 12th rib and lateral border of sacrospinalis muscle
8. Which
of the fpllowing not a complication of surgery for right thoracic outlet
syndrome:
A. Injury to Long thoracic
nerve. B. Brachial plexus injury
C. Lymphatic fistula D. Pneumothorax
Ans (C) Lymphatic fistula
9. AST
: AL T > 1 is seen in:
A. Non-alcoholic liver
disease B. Alcoholic hepatitis
C. Wilson’s disease D. All of the above
Ans. (B) Alcoholic hepatitis
10. Which of the following protein is not synthesized in liver?
A. Immunoglobulin B. c3 complement
C. Fibrinogen D. Haptoglobin
Ans: (A) Immunoglobulin
11. In creased Urinary Copper excretion can be seen in all the
following except:
A. Cholestasis B. Wilson’s disease
C. Hepatic tumors D. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
Ans. (C) Hepatic tumors
12. Which of the following can be most beneficial in the patients with
alcoholic liver disease?
A. S-adenosyl methionine B. N acetyl cysteine .
C. Silmyras D. Pethidine
Ans. (A) S-adenosyl methionine
13. A 9 months pregnant lady presents with jaundice, abdominal
distension, and pedal edema. Though she delivered a normal baby, her clinical
condition deteriorated with increasing abdominal discomfort and distension. On
examination she has tender hepatomegaly 6cm below costal margin. Her bilirubin
is 5d/dl, the ALT levels are 345IU, SAP was 4450/1 and liver enzymes were
elevated. Her ascetic fluid shows 3g/dl albumin with 10 Iymphocytes/ml. Which
of the following is most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Budd Chiari syndrome
C. Acute Fatty liver of pregnancy D. HELLP syndrome
Ans. (B) Budd Chiari syndrome
14. Tumor markers for hepatocellular carcinoma include the following except:
A. Fucosylated AFP B. Neurotensin
C. PIVKA D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
Ans. (D) Alpha 2 macroglobulin
15. Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis is characterized by: (AIIMS
May 2006)
A. Hypochloremic
hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperchloremic
hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hypochloremic
hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
D. Hyperchloremic
hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
Ans. (A) Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
16. CEA is tumor marker for all the following except:
A. Ca breast B. Ca colon
C. Ca stomach D. Osteosarcoma
Ans. (D) Osteosarcoma
17. Accessory pancreatic tissue is most commonly located at:
A. Stomach B. Appendix
C. Ileum D. Splenic hilum
Ans. (B) Stomach
18. Most common complication ofERCP:
A. Bleeding B. Acute cholangitis
C. Acute pancreatitis D. Duodenal perforation
Ans. (B) Acute cholangitis
19. The histological pattern typically seen in Solitary rectal ulcer:
A. The characteristic
muscle fibres with fibrosis and collagen proliferation in lamina propria
B. The trapped mucosa. with
submucosal cysts
C. The chronic inflammatory
cells and granulomas
D. Intraepithelial
collection oflymphocytes
Ans. (A) The characteristic muscle fibres with fibrosis and
collagen proliferation in lamina propria
20. Investigation of choice for diverticulosis:
A. Barium enema B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasonography D. CT scan
Ans. (D) CT scan
21. Screening is most helpful for early detection of which of the
following cancer: (AIIMS
May 2006)
A. Colonic cancer B. Brain tumor
C. Ovarian Cancer D. Prostatic Cancers
Ans. (A) Colonic Cancer
22. A middle aged man presented with a bout of hematemesis. His upper
GI endoscopy was done for the same which tUrD.ed out to be normal. Patient was
treated symptomatically and was relieved. After some hours he again had bouts
of hematemesis. Which ofthe following would be most appropriate step in further
evaluation of this patient:
A. Repeat endoscopic
examination B. Nuclear scan
C. Angiography D. Barium study
Ans. (A) Repeat endoscopic examination
23. Which of the following should not be done in evaluation of
Pheochromocytoma?
A. FNAC B. USG
C. MIBG scan D. MRI
Ans. (A) FNAC
24. Most specific test for acute pyelonephritis: (AIIMS 2006
Nov)
A. Leucocyte esterase test B. Leucocyte cast
C. Nitrite test D. Gram staining of urine sample
Ans. (D) Gram staining of urine sample
25. Consumption of which of the following fruit juice prevents UTI? (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Raspberry juice B. Cranberry juice
C. Orange juice D. Grape juice
Ans. (B) Cranberry juice
26. Which of the following renal calculi are most difficult to treat
with lithotripsy?
A. Uric acid stones B. Cystine stones
C. Calcium oxalate stones D. Triple phosphate stones
Ans. (B) Cystine stones
27. A 70-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent
transurethral resection of prostate (fURP) under spinal anaesthesia. One hour
later, he developed vomiting, drowsiness, and altered sensorium. The most probable
is: (AIPGE
2003)
A. Over dosage of spinal
anaesthetic agent B. Rupture of bladder
C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyponatremia
Ans. (D) Hyponatremia
28. Life threatening conditions common to diabetic patients include the
following except:
A. Malignant otitis extema B. Emphysematous pyelonephritis
C. Emphysematous
appendicitis D. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
Ans. (C) Emphysematous appendicitis
Chapter Ten Paediatrics
1. Nile
blue test is done for: (AI
2007)
A. Fetal lung maturity B. Fetal renal maturity
C. Fetal skin maturity D. Fetal liver maturity
Ans. (C) Fetal skin maturity
2. Neonatal
Reflex present at birth: (AI
2007)
A. Crossed extensor reflex B. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Symmetric tonic neck
reflex D. Rooting reflex
Ans. (D) Rooting reflex
3. Moro’s
Reflex is considered abnormal if it persists even after: (AI
2007)
A. 3 months B. 4 months
C. 5 months D. 6 months
Ans. (D) 6 months
4. A
6 years old child with 50% IQ is able to: (AI
2007)
A. Ride bicycle B. Draw triangle
C. Read simple sentence D. Identify colour
Ans. (D) Identifies colour
5. A
3 years old child is poor in language development has poor concentration, no
friends, plays only with himself, and has some delay in mile stones. The
likely diagnosis is: (AI
2007)
A. ADHD B. Autism
C. Specific learning
disorder D. Normalfor age
Ans. (B) Autism
6. Highest
Acetylcholine esterase levels in amniotic fluid are seen with: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Open spina bifida
B. Gastroschisis
C. Omphalocele
D. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Ans. (A) Open spina bifida
7. Most
common anomaly in Infant of Diabetic Mother:
A. Neural tube defect B. Renal anomalies
C. Cardiac malformation D. Bony abnormalities
Ans. (A) Neural tube defect
8. A
full term neonate presented on 14th day with jaundice with 18 mg/dL of
unconjugated bilirubin. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis? .
A. Hypothyroidism B. G6PD deficiency
C. Breastmilk jaundice D. Neonatal cholangiopathy
Ans. (D) Neonatal cholangiopathy
9. Acute
and Chronic malnutrition is indicated by: (AIIMS
2006 Nov.)
A. Weight for age B. Height for age
C. Weight for height D. Body mass index
Ans. (C) Weight for height
10. Rickets in infancy is characterized by the following except:
A. Irritability B. Craniotabes
C. Enlargement of the
costochondral junctions D. Bowing oflegs
Ans. (D) Bowing oflegs
11. What is not true for cow’s milk?
A. It has lower
carbohydrate than breast milk
B. It has higher potassium
and sodium than infant formula feeds
C. Higher protein than
breast milk
D. It contain more amount
of whey protein than casein
Ans. (D) It contain more amount of whey protein than casem
12. A child presented with fever, non productive cough, and mild
dyspnoea. After the course of mild antibiotic the condition of child improved
transiently but he again presented with high fever productive cough and
increased respiratory distress with chest X-ray showing hypertranslucent I~ngs
and PFT suggestive of severe obstructive changes. What is the following is most
likely diagnosis?
A. Post viral syndrome B. Alveolar microlithasis
C. Bronchiolitis obliterans D. Follicular bronchilitis
Ans. (C) Bronchiolitis obliterans
13. A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from umbilical stump
after birth. Probably diagnosis is: (AI
2007)
A. Factor XIII deficiency B. GIanzmann thrombosthenia
C vWF Deficiency D. Bernord Soulier syndrome
Ans. (A) Factor XIII deficiency
(Ref: Harrison’s Medicine 16th EdlP-677)
14. A Infant presented with weight loss, anorexia, vomiting,
dehydration, weakness, hypotension. Lab studies revealed hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
What is the likely diagnosis?
A. 2 I-hydroxylase
deficiency B. II-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 3-P-hydroxylase
deficiency D. Conn’s syndrome
Ans. (A) 2 I-hydroxylase deficiency
15. A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts
are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. She has bilateral inguinal
masses. Uterus is found to be absent on further evaluation. The most likely
diagnosis is: (AI
2006)
A. Turner’s syndrome B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome. D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Ans. (D) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
16. Not true regarding Congenital Torticollis: (AIIMS
2006 Nov.)
A. In 2/3 cases
sternomastoid mass is palpable B. If untreated leads to Plagiocephaly
C. 80% undergo Spontaneous
resolution D. Always associated with breech presentation
Ans. (D) Always associated with breech presentation
Chapter Eleven Orthopedics
1. In
patients with osteoarthritis of knee joint, atrophy occurs most commonly in
which muscle? (AI 2007)
A. Quadriceps only B. Gastrocnemius
C. Quadriceps and
Hamstrings D. Hamstrings
Ans. (A) Quadriceps only
2. Bohler’s
angle is lost in fracture of:
A. Talus B. Femoral neck
C. Calcaneum D. Tibial plateau
Ans. (C) Calcaneum
Chapter Twelve ENT
1. A
woman complains of conductive deafness after pregnancy. The type of curve
likely to be seen on tympanogram is:
A. Ad B. A
C. As D. B
Ans. (C) As
2. A
6 years old child presents history of with nasal blockade, mouth breathing,
recurrent URQ, and hearing loss. Which ofthe following would be most
appropriate treatment for this child? (AI
2007)
A. Tonsillectomy B. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
C. Grommet insertion D. Myringoplasty with grommet insertion
Ans. (B) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion)
3. Treatment
of choice for Glue ear: (AIIMS
2006 Nov.)
A. Medical Treatment B. Myringotomy with ventilation tube
C. Grommet insertion D. Wait and watch
Ans. (B) Myringotomy with ventilation tube
4. A
person developed sudden stridor, hoarseness of voice, tongue swelling, and
edematous neck after eating a peanut. What is the likely diagnosis? (AIIMS
2006 Nav)
A. Foreign body aspiration B. Pharyngeal perforation
C. Angioneurotic edema D. Para pharyngeal abscess
Ans. (C) Angioneurotic edema
Chapter Thirteen Ophthalmology
1. Least
common cause of childhood blindness in India:
A. Congenital dacrocystitis B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Malnutrition D. Glaucoma
Ans. (A) Congenital dacrocystitis
2. Which
of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder of Retina? (AI 2007)
A. Bardet Biedel syndrome
B. Best disease
C. Gyrate atrophy
(defective arentihine ketoacid aminatransferse activity)
D. Bassen-Komweg syndrome
Ans. (B) Best syndrome
Chapter Fourteen Preventive and Social Medicine
1. L-J
chart is for:
A. Accuracy B. Positivity
C. Sensitivity D. Specificity
Ans. (A) Accuracy
2. Which
of the following is a disability limitation? (AIIMS
Nov. 2006)
A. Reducing occurrence of
polio by immunization B. Arranging for
schooling of child suffering fromPRPP
C. Resting affected limbs
in neutral position D. Provide calipers for walking
Ans. (C) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
3. Most
commonly abused agent in India: (AI
2007)
A. Cannabis indica B. Tobacco
C. Heroine D. Amphetamine
Ans. (B) Tobacco
4. Conditions
that have been identified as immediate priorities within VISION 2020 include
the following except:
A. Cataract B. Trachoma
C. Onchocerciasis D. Epidemic conjunctivitis
Ans. (D) Epidemic conjunctivitis
5. Brucellosis
can be transmitted by all the following routes except: (AI 2007)
A. Transplacental B. Milk borne
C. Person to person D. Inhalation
Ans. (C) Person to person
6. Lice
are not the vectors of: (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Relapsing fever B. Q fever
C. Trench fever D. Epidemic typhus
Ans. (B) Q fever
7. Which
one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of
water? (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Chlorometer B. Berkefeld filter
C. Horrock’s apparatus D. Double pot method
Ans. (B) Horrock’s apparatus
8. Which
is the best method to compare the results obtained by a new test and a gold
standard test? (AIIMS
2006 Nov)
A. Correlation study B. Regression study
C. Bland and Altman
analysis D. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
Ans. (C) Bland and Altman analysis
9. Standard
error is:
A. S.D/n B. S.Dxn
C. SD/2n D. S.D/square root of n
Ans. (C) S.D/square root of n
10. In a sample of 100 people mean hb is 10 and standard deviation is
one. What is the standard error?
A. 0.1 B. 1
C. 0.001 D. 10
Ans. (A) 0.1
11. A survey was done to study the effect of insulin dose and
corresponding “bAle levels corrected for age. What would be the best test to
study the relation?
A. Linear regression B. Logistic regression
C. Pearson correlation D. Student t test
Ans. (D) Student t test
12. Not true about ideal screening test?
A. High Sensitivity B. High ppecificity
C. Posittve predictive
value D. Negative predictive value
Ans. (A) High Sensitivity
13. Increase in confidence limit causes:
A. No insignificant change B. Significant change
C. No change D. Change from significant to nonsignificant
Ans. (A) No insignificant change
14. About ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) true is all except: (AIIMS Nov. 2006)
A. They are preferably
females B. There is one ASHA worker per 1000 population
C. ASHA is skilled birth
attendant D. Provides primary medical care for minor
ailments
Ans. (C) ASHA is skilled birth attendant
15. Aryl group containing phosphorous compounds are the followings except: (AI 2007)
A. Tik 20 B. Propoxur
C. Metformin D. Phenformin
Ans. (A) Tik 20
Chapter Fifteen Obstetrics and Gynaecology
1. Birth
weight of baby can be increased by:
A. Cessation of smoking B. Aspirin therapy
C. Calcium and magnesium D. Rest
Ans. (A) Cessation of smoking
2. Test
most likely to be positive in a female with history of recurrent abortion and
prolonged APIT: (AI
2007)
A. APT B. Bleeding time
C. Lupus anticoagulant D. Clot lysis test
Ans. (C) Lupus anticoagulant
3. Mortality
rate is maximum in Pregnancy with which ofthe following heart diseases? (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Eisenmenger’s syndrome B. Aortic Stenosis
C. Mitral Stenosis D. MVP
Ans. (A) Eisenmenger’s syndrome
4. Not
a part of emergency obstetrics care (EmOC):
A. Blood transfusion B. Manual removal of placenta
C. Caesarean section D. Hysterectomy
Ans. (C) Caesarean section
5. Which
of the following is most common bilateral ovarian tumor?
A. Dermoid B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Dysgerminoma D. GranuJosa cell tumor
Ans. (C) Dysgerminoma
6. Most
commonly removed/resected part of loop in tubectomy include: (AI 2007)
A. Intramural part B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla D. Fimbrial end
Ans. (B) Isthmus
7. Most
common cause of postmenopausal bleecting in India:
A. Carcinoma cervix B. Atrophic vaginitis.
C. Endometrial hyperplasia. D. Endometrial cancer.
Ans. (A) Carcinoma cervix
8. Schiller-Duval
bodies are seen in: (Orrisa
2000)
A. Choriocarcinoma B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodennal sinus tumour D. Immature teratoma
Ans. (C) Endodennal sinus tumour
9. Shape
of cervical canal in nulliparous women is: (AI
2007)
A. Circular B. Tubular
C. Transverse D. Longitudinal
Ans. (C) Transverse
10. Which of the following has halflife of 10 years? (AI
2007)
A. Cu T200 B. Cu380A
C. Lippes loop D. LNG-IUD
Ans. (C) Lippes loop
11. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is beneficial in reducing all the
following except: (AIIMS Nov. 2006)
A. Hot flushes B. Cardiovascular mortality
C. Osteoporosis D. Vaginal dryness
Ans. (B) Cardiovascular mortality
Chapter Sixteen Dermatology
1. A
child has presented with eczematous dermatitis on extensor aspects of
extremities with severe itching. His mother has history of bronchial asthma.
The likely diagnosis is: (AI
2007)
A. Acute eczematous
reaction B. Scabies
C. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
Ans. (C) Atopic dermatitis
2. Which
of the foUowing is TUBERCULIDE? (AI
2007)
A. Lupus vulgaris B. Lupus scrofulaceum
C. Scrofuloderma D. Tuberculosis verruca cutis
Ans. (B) Lupus scrofulaceum
Chapter Seventeen Radiology
1. Spongy
mass in pancreas with central ‘Sunburst’ calcification seen on CT scan is
characteristic of: (JK
2005)
A. Serous cystadenoma of
pancreas B. Mucinous cystadenoma of pancreas
C. Somatostationoma D. Adenocarcinoma of pancreas
Ans. (A) Serous cystadenoma of pancreas
2. Which
of the following test should be done for evaluation of a neonate with bullous
skin lesion and X-ray showing periostitis at long bones? (AI
2007)
A. VORL of both mother and
child B. PCR for tubercular ONA
C. Evaluation of mother D. ELISA study of child
Ans. (A) VORL of both mother and child
3. Most
common site ofinvolvement in Histiocytosis X:
A. Skin B. Bone
C. Lung D.
Liver
Ans. (B) Bone
4. Most
common site of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. Lower end of femur B. Upper end of tibhi
C. Upper end of humerus D. Flat bones
Ans. (A) Lower end offemur
5. The
most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain? (AIIMS May 2003, AI 2003)
A. Putamen/external capsule B. Pons
C. Ventricles D. Lobar white matter
Ans. (A) Putamen/external capsule
6. Which
of the foUowing is radioresistant tumor? (AIIMS
1992)
A. Seminoma B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
C. Neuroma D. Osteosarcoma
Ans. (D) Osteosarcoma
7. Not
a fotm of mechanical deep heat therapy? (AI
2007)
A. Short wake diathermy B. Infrared therapy
C. High Frequency
Ultrasound D. Microwave
Ans. (B) Infrared therapy
Chapter Eighteen Anaesthesia
1. Anaesthetic
agent of choice in patient with renal and hepatic failure:
A. Cisatracurium B. Vecuronium
C. Pipecuronium D. Doxacurium
Ans. (A) Cisatracurium
2. Merit
ofnasotracheal intubation is:
A. Good oral hygiene
B. Less infection
C. Less mucosal damage and
bleeding
D. More movement or
displacement of endotracheal tube
Ans. (A) Good oral hygiene
3. Not
a feature of malignant hyperthermia:
A. DIC B. Hypertension
C. Hyperkalemia D. Bradycardia
Ans. (D) Bradycardia
4. Perioperative
neuromuscular monitoring can be best tested on:
A. Facial nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve D. Femoral nerve
Ans. (B) Ulnar nerve
Chapter Nineteen Psychiatry
1. Naltrexone
(opiate antagonist) is used in treat mentof: (AI 2007)
A. Opioid withdrawal B. Opioid overdose
C. Opioid dependence
relapse D. Ethanol toxicity
Ans. (C) Opioid dependence relapse
2. Delusion
is disorder of: (Maharashtra
2003, AI 2007)
A. Thought B. Insight
C. Perception D. Behaviour
Ans. (A) Thought
3. Drug
of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD): (AI 2007)
A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol D. Clozapine
Ans. (B) Fluoxetine
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