AIIMS NOV 2008

Anatomy

1.     Terminal group of Colic lymph nodes

A.  Epicolic

B.  Pre aortic

C.  Paracolic

D.  Intermediate

Ans. (B)

2.     Boundaries of triangle of DOOM are all except

A.  Ductus deferens

B.  Testicular vessels

C.  Cooper’s ligament

D.  Reflected fold of peritoneum

Ans. (C)

3.     Blood supply of sternocleidomastoid muscle are all except

A.  Superior thyroid artery

B.  Thyrocervical trunk

C.  Occipital artery

D.  Posterior auricular artery

Ans. (B)

4.     Buccinator muscle is pierced by all except

A.  Parotid duct

B.  Buccal branch of facial nerve

C.  Buccal branch of mandibular nerve

D.  Molar mucosal glands of buccopharyngeal fascia

Ans. (C)

5.     Boundaries of triangle of auscultation all except

A.  Scapula

B.  Lattissimus dorsi

C.  Serratus anterior

D.  Trapezius

Ans. (C)

6.     Axillary sheath is derived from

A.  Pre-vertebral fascia

B.  Clavipectoral fascia

C.  Axillary fascia

D.  Pectoral fascia

Ans. (A)

7.     Thrombosis of subclavian artery at the outer border of first rib, flow in axillary artery is maintained by all except

A.  Subscapular artery

B.  Superior thoracic artery

C.  Suprascapular artery

D.  Transverse cervical artery

Ans. (B)

8.     Derivates of alar plate are all except

A.  Inferior olivary nucleus

B.  Hypoglossal nucleus

C.  Dentate nucleus

D.  Substantia nigra

Ans. (B)

9.     Spleen projects into

A.  Greater sac

B.  Left paracolic gutter

C.  Left subhepatic space

D.  Infra colic gutter

Ans. (A)

PHYSIOLOGY

10.   Introns are present in all except

A.  Z DNA

B.  B DNA

C.  Mitochondrial DNA

D.  Nuclear DNA

Ans. (C)

11.   Mineralocorticoid receptor is present in all/Except

A.  Liver

B.  Colon

C.  Hippocampus

D.  Kidney

Ans. (A)

12.   Stimulation of vagus leads to

A.  Increased heart rate

B.  Increase in RR interval

C.  Increase in EF

D.  Increased cardiac output

Ans. (B)

13.   Mammalian circadian rhythm is maintained by

A.  Supra optic

B.  Suprachiasmatic

C.  Para ventricular

D.  Median eminence

Ans. (B)

14.   ICT is primarily maintained by

A.  CSF absorption rate

B.  Cerebral blood flow

C.  CSF production

D.  Choroidal blood pressure

Ans. (A)

15.   Gene coding for transport of folic acid is present in

A.  Chromosome 5

B.  10

C.  21

D.  X

Ans. (C)

16.   Presynaptic inhibition

A.  Reduction of neurotransmiter release from the pre synaptic nerve ending

B.  Block of conduction of AP in the presynaptic neuron

C.  Depoalarises the presynaptic membrane of afferent neuron

D.  First order afferent neuron

Ans. (A)

17.   Weber fechner law is

A.  Intensity of stimulus is proportional to strength of stimulus

B.  Stimulation is equal to the magnitude

C.  Intensity is related to the number of receptors stimulated

D.  Intensity of stimulus is proportionalto magnitude of sensation

Ans. (D)

18.   Mean circulatory filling pressure is

A.  Difference between systemic arterial pressure and pulmonary artery pressure

B.  It is pressure everywhere in the circulation when heart is suddenly stopped

C.  Pressure in the atrium during the filling

D.  Signifies the pulmonary and aortic pressure

Ans. (B)

19.   Post prandial maximal contractility is in

A.  Ascending colon

B.  Descending colon

C.  Transverse colon

D.  Sigmoid colon

Ans. (D)

20.   All are secondary messengers except

A.  Guanyl cylase

B.  Inositol tri phosphate

C.  Cyclic GMP

D.  DAG

Ans. (A)

21.   Firefly produces intesnse photolumonsity due to

A.  ATP

B.  GTP

C.  NADH

D.  Phospho creatinine

Ans. (A)

22.   In kidney

A.  Clearance is greater than GFR, Only if secreted into tubular fluid

B.  If a substance is secreted into the tubules then the Glomerular Filtration Rate must be more than the clearance

C.  Descending loop of henle is freely permeable to electrolytes only

D.  The fluid entering the descending loop of hene is siginifantly hypotonic to plasma

Ans. (A)

23.   All are present in medulla except

A.  Collecting duct

B.  JG apparatus

C.  Vasa recta

D.  Loop of henle

Ans. (B)

24.   For severe bullous emphysema, total lung volumes are measured by

A.  Helium dilution technique

B.  Transdiaphragmatic pressure

C.  Body plethysmography

D.  Diffusion capacity of CO

Ans. (C)

25.   Hybridoma technique false is

A.  Ab producing cells are fused with immortalized plasma cell.

B.  HGPRT & Thymidine kinase is required for Denovo pathwaw & salvage pathway

C.  Aminopterine a folate analogue inhibite denovo synthesis

D.  Myeloma cells proliferate abundantly in HAT medium

Ans. (D)

26.   Not present in cerebellar cortex

A.  Purkinje cells

B.  Golgi cells

C.  Bipolar cells

D.  Granular cells

Ans. (C)

27.   Persussis toxin does not lead to

A.  ADA ribosylation of Gi alpha subunit

B.  Blocks adenlyl cyclase

C.  Increased calcium release from sarcoplasm reticulum

D.  Persistent activation of Gs alpha subunit

Ans. (B)

BIOCHEMISTRY

28.   Vit K causes carboxylation of

A.  Glutamic acid

B.  Aspartic acid

C.  Histidine

D.  Histamine

Ans. (A)

29.   Cofactor for carboxylation reaction

A.  Biotin

B.  Thiamine

C.  Niacin

D.  Coenzyme A

Ans. (A)

30.   Enzyme activity present in Ribosomes is

A.  Aminoacyl t-RNA Synthetase

B.  Peptidyl Transferase

C.  Peptidase

D.  GTP ASE

Ans. (B)

31.   TPP deficiency cause energy production defect by

A.  Alpha Ketogutarate

B.  Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

C.  Transketolase

D.  Acetyl Co-A Carboxylase

Ans. (B)

32.   In muscle, phosphorylase b is kept in inactivated state by

A.  cAMP

B.  ATP

C.  Calcium

D.  Glucose

Ans. (B)

33.   Non functional plasma enzymes are all except

A.  ALP

B.  Prostatic acid phosphatise

C.  Lipoprotein lipase

D.  Hormone sensitive lipase

Ans. (C)

34.   For absorption at 280 nm, alanine is replaced by

A.  Tryptophan

B.  Histidine

C.  Lysine

D.  Proline

Ans. (A)

35.   Regarding glutathione all are true except

A.  Haemoglobin to meth haemoglobin

B.  Scavenging free radicals

C.  Acts as a co factor for some enzyme

D.  Sulfur content helps in detoxification

Ans. (A)

36.   Refsum disease cause by defect in

A.  Thiophorase

B.  Phytanic acid hydroxylase

C.  Acyl CoA dehydrogenase

D.  CPT-1

Ans. (B)

37.   Regarding Isotype deteminants of Ig true is

A.  The changes in the hypervariable domain of both light & heavy chain.

B.  The changes in the constant domain of both heavy chain.

C.  To differentiate the subclass Ig

D.  Changes in antigen binding sites of the variable region

Ans. (B)

38.   Which of the following differentiates secretory Ig from membranous Ig

A.  RNA processing

B.  One turn/two turn joining rule

C.  Allelic exclusion

D.  Class switching

Ans. (A)

39.   Intrinsic enzyme activity of GTP has following properties

A.  GTP dependent kinase

B.  Converts GTP to GDP

C.  GTPase activity

D.  GTP donates gamma Phosphate to serine residues of intracellular proteins.

Ans. (C)

40.   All of the following Detoxification Reactions occur in Phase I Xenobiotics except:

A.  Reduction

B.  Oxidation

C.  Hydrolysis

D.  Conjugation

Ans. (D)

41.   Biomolecules are measured by all except

A.  Xray crystallography

B.  NMR Spectrometry

C.  HPLC

D.  Mass spectrometry

Ans. (D)

pathology

42.   BRCA 1 gene is located in

A.  Chr 17

B.  Chr 13

C.  Chr 22

D.  Chr 11

Ans. (A)

43.   MCH Locus is present in

A.  Chr 5

B.  Chr 6

C.  Chr 1

D.  Chr 10

Ans. (B)

44.   Hypersensitive vasculitis involves

A.  Arterioles

B.  Post capillary venules

C.  Capillaries

D.  Medium sized arteries

Ans. (B)

45.   Metastasis is due to

A.  Angiogenesis

B.  Down regulation of tyrosine kinase

C.  Tumerogenesis

D.  Apoptosis

Ans. (A)

46.   Virchow’s triad includes all except

A.  Hypercoagulable state

B.  Thrombosis

C.  Vein injury

D.  Stasis in veins

Ans. (B)

47.   Interlinking of antibody dependent and antibody independent complement pathway is by

A.  C8

B.  C3

C.  C5

D.  C1q

Ans. (B)

48.   Oxidative respirative burst is caused by

A.  Peroxidise

B.  Oxidase

C.  SOD

D.  Catalase

Ans. (B)

49.   Most potent stimulus for naive T cells

A.  Macrophages

B.  B cells

C.  Follicular dendritic cells

D.  Mature dendritic cells

Ans. (D)

50.   Which of the following antibodies involved in myositis?

A.  Anti scl70

B.  Anti jo1

C.  Anti ku

D.  Anti sm

Ans. (B)

51.   NBT test is done for

A.  B cell

B.  T cell

C.  Phagocytosis

D.  Complements

Ans. (C)

MICROBIOLOGY

52.   30 years female from Shimla withfever, hypotension, lymphadenopathy, glucose broth shows stalactile growth, what is the cause

A.  Yersinia pestis

B.  Franscisella tularensis

C.  Brucella abortus

D.  Coxiella burnetti

Ans. (A)

53.   Bacteriophages which is true

A.  Toxicity transfer

B.  Transformation of bacteria

C.  Only transfers Chromosomal DNA

D.  It is a bacteria infects virus

Ans. (A)

54.   Plasmodium falciparum is diagnosed by all except

A.  HRP 1

B.  LDH

C.  Immuno chromato graphy

D.  Aldolase

Ans. (A)

55.   All are RNA viruses except

A.  Ebola

B.  Rabies

C.  Simian virus 40

D.  Vesicular stomatitis virus

Ans. (C)

56.   Farmer with forearm lymphocutaneous swelling diagnosis is

A.  Trichophyton

B.  Sporothrix schenkii

C.  Cladosporium botunea

D.  Philophora

Ans. (B)

57.   Pseudomonas organism caued infection in intravascular devices

A.  Ps. aeruginosa

B.  Ps. capasia

C.  Ps. putida

D.  Ps. Multocida

Ans. (A)

58.   Regarding Polysaccharide Antigen which is true

A.  Less immunogenic

B.  Memory function

C.  T Cell independent

D.  Polyclonal B cell activation

Ans. (C)

PHARMACOLOGY

59.   In a patient with renal failure which of the following cephalosporin can be given

A.  Cefuroxine

B.  Cefoperazone

C.  Cefepine

D.  Cefoxitin

Ans. (B)

60.   10 years old female treated for upper respiratory tract infection with cofactor for 10 days following with the developed fever, lymphadenopathy, rashes, what is the propable cause

A.  Type iii hypersensitivity reaction

B.  Infectious mononucleosis

C.  Kawasaki disease

D.  Inadequately treated upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. (A)

61.   Digoxin toxicity increased by all except

A.  Renal failure

B.  Hyperkalaemia

C.  Hypomagnesemia

D.  Hypercalcemia

Ans. (B)

62.   To which class does ifosfamide belong to

A.  Camptothecans

B.  Alkylating agent

C.  Antimetabolite

D.  Antibiotic

Ans. (B)

63.   All of the following are alkylating agents except

A.  5 FU

B.  Melphalan

C.  Cyclophosphamide

D.  Chlorambucil

Ans. (A)

64.   Which of the following is not an immunosuppressant

A.  Cyclosporine

B.  Azathiprine

C.  Steroids

D.  Cephalosporins

Ans. (D)

65.   In cirrhosis patients, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except

A.  Lorazepam

B.  Paracetamol

C.  Metranidazole

D.  Therophylline

Ans. (A)

66.   All the following drugs produce neuroleptic malignant syndrome except

A.  Domperidone

B.  Metaclopramide

C.  Haloperidol

D.  Amantadine

Ans. (D)

67.   In detrusor overactivity all the following drugs are indicated except

A.  Flavoxate

B.  Tolterodine

C.  Solifenazine

D.  Duloxetine

Ans. (D)

68.   Regarding acarbose all the following are true except

A.  Decreases both fasting and post prandial blood sugar

B.  Inhibits alpha glucosidase

C.  Decreases fibrinogen

D.  Prevents progression of impaired glucose tolerance to type II DM

Ans. (C)

69.   Thalidomide is indicated in all the following conditions except

A.  HIV neuropathy

B.  HIV oral ulcers

C.  ENL

D.  Behcet’s disease

Ans. (A)

70.   Regarding ACE inhibitors which of the following in true

A.  ACE converts angiotensiongen to AT I

B.  T½ of enalapril is more than lisinopril

C.  It should be used only in decompensated left ventricular dysfunction

D.  Pre treatment stoppage of diuretics decreases first dose hypotension

Ans. (D)

71.   In osteoporosis which of the following drug causes both increased bone formation and decreased bone resorption

A.  Ibandronate

B.  Calcitonin

C.  Teriperatide

D.  Strontium Renelete

Ans. (D)

72.   Regarding herception which is true

A.  Injection of herceptin Ag increases antibody response

B.  Her-2/neu is positive in most of the breast cancers so it can be used as a good target

C.  Development of mouse Ab

D.  It is used in patient with metastatic breast Ca.

Ans. (D)

73.   Vasopressor of choice in obstetrics patients

A.  Ephedrine

B.  Phenylephrine

C.  Methoxamine

D.  Mephentermine

Ans. (A)

74.   Which of the following anticancer is excreted by lung

A.  Doxorubicin

B.  Cyclophosphamide

C.  Cisplatin

D.  5FU

Ans. (D)

75.   Recurrent histiocytosis is treated by

A.  Fludarabine

B.  Cladrabine

C.  High dose cytosine arabinoside

D.  High dose methotraxate

Ans. (B)

FORENSIC MEDICINE

76.   Pest control man, came with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, transverse ridges on nails, caused by

A.  Arsenic

B.  Mercury

C.  Lead

D.  Cadmium

Ans. (A)

77.   Hydrocution is

A.  Electrocution in water

B.  Cold water drowing

C.  Hot water drowning

D.  Post mortem submersion in water

Ans. (B)

78.   Embalming fluid contains all except

A.  Phenol

B.  Ethanol

C.  Formalin

D.  Glycerine

Ans. (B)

79.   Falanga is

A.  Sitting in abnormal position

B.  Hitting the feet with stick

C.  Electric current for torture

D.  Pulling of hair

Ans. (B)

80.   Thanatology is

A.  Study of death

B.  Essence of crime

C.  Traumatology

D.  Trichology

Ans. (A)

OPHTHALMOLOGY

81.   All of the following are true horner’s syndrome except

A.  Ptosis & miosis in ipsilateral eye

B.  Heterochromia of the iris

C.  Anhydrosis of the ipsilateral face

D.  Apparent exophthalmos

Ans. (D)

82.   Left abducens nerve palsy true is

A.  Left side adduction weakness

B.  Diplopia on left gaze

C.  Ptosis

D.  Accomodation paralysis

Ans. (B)

83.   Refractory index is maximum for

A.  Cornea

B.  Anterior surface of lens

C.  Posterior of surface of lens

D.  Centroid of lens

Ans. (D)

84.   Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by

A.  Chlamydia trachomatis

B.  Chlamydia psittaci

C.  Gornorrhoea

D.  Herpes

Ans. (A)

ENT

85.   Nasolabial cyst true except

A.  Usually bilateral

B.  Arises from odontogenic epithelium

C.  Present in submucosal anterior nasal floor

D.  Usually adult onset

Ans. (B)

86.   Spontaneous CSF leak is not associated with

A.  Partial or total empty sella syndrome

B.  Pseudo tumor cerebri

C.  Increased ICP

D.  Low risk in encephalocele

Ans. (D)

87.   Sustained release Micro Catheter (Micro Wick) is indicated in which of the following conditions

A.  Delivery of drug to round window

B.  Frey’s syndrome

C.  Drooling of saliva

D.  Epistaxis

Ans. (A)

MEDICINE

88.   Which will not improve with dialysis in uremic patients

A.  Pericarditis

B.  Peripheral neuropathy

C.  Seizures

D.  Metabolic acidosis

Ans. (C)

89.   Progressive multifocal leuckoencephalopathy is associated with all except

A.  Indolent course for many years

B.  Deep white matter demyelination

C.  Brain biopsy diagnostic

D.  Usually presents with visual defects and speech problems

Ans. (A)

90.   PRIONS

A.  Protect disulfide bonds from oxidation

B.  Catalyses abnormal protein folding

C.  It is virus encoded

D.  Cleaves normal proteins

Ans. (B)

91.   All the following diseases are caused by protein folding defects except?

A.  Amyloidosis

B.  Prion diseases

C.  Multiple sclerosis

D.  CJD

Ans. (C)

92.   TNF antagonists are used in all except

A.  SLE

B.  Psoriasis

C.  Seronegative spondyloarthritis

D.  Behcet’s syndrome

Ans. (A)

93.   All are minor criteria in multiple myeloma except

A.  Plasma cell count 20% in bone marrow

B.  M spike IgG at 3 g/dl, IgA at 1.5 g/dl

C.  Plasmacytoma on biopsy

D.  Multiple lytic lesions

Ans. (C)

94.   In congestive heart Failure all are major framingham critera except

A.  Cardiomegaly

B.  Hepatomegaly

C.  S3 gallop

D.  Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea

Ans. (B)

95.   54 year old smoker presents with history of fever, hemoptysis, oligoarthritis and weight loss for 6 months. Serial X rays showed fleeting opacities. What is the diagnosis?

A.  Carcinoma lung

B.  Wegener’s granulomatosis

C.  TB

D.  ABPA

Ans. (B)

96.   Regarding TTP all are true except

A.  Hyaline fibrin thrombi

B.  Low complement levels

C.  Minimal activation of coagulation system

D.  Coombs negative hemolytic anemia

Ans. (B)

97.   A 16 year old girl on exposure to light first complaints of pallor, then cyanosis, later presents with erythema of fingers. What is the expected clinical suspicion?

A.  Systemic juvenile RA

B.  SLE

C.  Scleroderma

D.  PAN

Ans. (C)

98.   According to ARC modified criteria of 1987, which joint is not included in RA?

A.  Ankle

B.  Metatarsophalangeal

C.  Tarso metatarsal

D.  Elbow

Ans. (C)

99.   Mucocutaneous lesions of Reiter’s syndrome includes all except

A.  Oral ulcers

B.  Circinate balanitis

C.  Subcutaneous nodules

D.  Keratoderma blenorrhagica

Ans. (C)

100. A lady of 29 years comes with progressive breathlessness since 4 months. General physical and clinical examination was insignificant. Investigations revealed FVC 90%, FEV1/FVC 92, DLCO 56% and oxygen saturation after exercise reduced from 92% to 86%. What is the diagnosis?

A.  Anxiety

B.  Primary alveolar hypoventilation

C.  Primary pulmonary hypertension

D.  Interstitial lung disease

Ans. (C)

101. Most common cause of mononeuritis multiplex in India is

A.  RA

B.  Hansen’s

C.  PAN

D.  SLE

Ans. (B)

102. Vasodilation in spider naevi is due to

A.  Hepato toxins

B.  Estrogen

C.  Tetosterone

D.  Aldosterone

Ans. (B)

103. Microangiopathic haemolytic anemia is seen in all except

A.  Metal valves in heart

B.  TTP

C.  Microscopic polyangiitis

D.  Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

Ans. (C)

104. All of the following indicate replication phase in chronic hepatitis B patient except

A.  HBV DNA

B.  HBV DNA polymarase

C.  Anti HbC antibody

D.  Elevated Liver enzymes

Ans. (C)

105. A middle aged female presents with polyarthritis with elevated rheumatoid factor and ANA levels, which among the following will help you to differentiate RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS from SLE?

A.  Soft tissue swelling at the proximal inter phalangeal join

B.  Juxta articular osteoporosis on x ray

C.  Articular erosions on X ray

D.  Elevated ESR

Ans. (C)

106. A girl comes with pain abdomen. She was treated with sulpha drugs for recent infection following which she developed fever, rash. She developed hypertension and seizures. The diagnosis is

A.  Acute intermittent porphyria

B.  Adenosine deaminase deficiency

C.  Congenital erythropoeitic porphyria

D.  HGPRTase deficiency

Ans. (A)

107. A 24 years old young patient presenting with arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis, positive for HLA B 27. Which of the following is the causative organism?

A.  Ureaplasma Urealyticum

B.  Trichomonas Vaginalis

C.  Mycoplasma Hominis

D.  Group A B hemolytic streptococci

Ans. (A)

108. Dengue - most sensitive diagnostic test is

A.  IgM ELISA

B.  Tissue culture

C.  CFT

D.  Electron microscopy

Ans. (A)

109. Acrodermatitis enteropathica true all except

A.  Due to decreased zinc levels

B.  Produces diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis

C.  Zinc can be given for treatment

D.  It has autosomal recessive inheritance

Ans. (B)

110. GERD gold standard test for diagnosis is

A.  24 hour pH monitoring

B.  Manometry

C.  Mucosal biopsy

D.  Esophagoscopy

Ans. (A)

111. Which of the following pair is incorrect

A.  Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy

B.  Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis

C.  Increased calcium intake cause iron deficiency

D.  Vit A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vit A diet

Ans. (B)

SURGERY

112. Hunterian ligature is used for

A.  Aneurysm

B.  AV malformation

C.  Varicose veins

D.  Dissection

Ans. (A)

113. Most common site of peripheral aneurysm

A.  Femoral

B.  Popliteal

C.  Carotid

D.  Iliac

Ans. (B)

114. In deep posterior compartmental syndrome pain is produced on

A.  Toe flexion

B.  Toe extension

C.  Foot dorsiflexion

D.  Foot inversion

Ans. (C)

115. Most common cause of Mesenteric Ischemia

A.  Arterial embolism

B.  Venous thrombosis

C.  Non occlusive mesenteric ischemia

D.  Arterial thrombosis

Ans. (A)

116. In a multiple injuries patient developed fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, rash around umbilicus on 2nd day, what is the cause

A.  Fat embolism

B.  Pulmonary embolism

C.  Meningitis

D.  Drug hypersensitivity

Ans. (A)

117. Left Breast ca with left supra-clavicular lymph node what is the stage

A.  IIIb

B.  IV

C.  IIIc

D.  IIb

Ans. (C)

118. Glomus tummor most common site is

A.  Finger

B.  Adrenal

C.  Liver

D.  Pituitary

Ans. (A)

119. Medullary Ca of thyroid treatment is

A.  Surgery only

B.  Surgery + RAI

C.  CT + RT

D.  Radiotherapy alone

Ans. (A)

120. Cholangiocarcinoma common site is

A.  Hilum

B.  Intrahepatic

C.  Distal bile duct

D.  Multifocal

Ans. (A)

121. 24 years female came with right hypochondrial pain, cholecystectomy done, HPE shows stage IA carcinoma, next line of management

A.  Follow up

B.  Radical cholecystectomy

C.  CT

D.  CT + RT

Ans. (A)

122. Surgery done is morbid obesity are all except

A.  Sleeve gastrectomy

B.  Gastric byepass

C.  Biliary and pancreatic diversion

D.  Ileal transposition

Ans. (D)

123. Curling’s ulcer in burns present at

A.  Esophagus

B.  Stomach

C.  Colon

D.  Duodenum

Ans. (D)

124. Gleason’s score all are true except

A.  Staging from 1-10

B.  Higher the stage poor prognosis

C.  Used for grading the disease

D.  Used for treatment purpose

Ans. (A)

125. Complication of parenteral nutrition are all except

A.  Essential fatty acid deficiency

B.  Metabolic bone disease

C.  Hyper-phosphatemia

D.  Cardiopulmonary failure

Ans. (C)

126. Post neck dissection shoulder syndrome all are present except

A.  Shoulder pain

B.  Normal electromyography

C.  Limitation of movement

D.  Shoulder drop

Ans. (B)

127. 25 years female nipple discharge duct ectasia with normal mammogram treatment is

A.  Microdochotomy

B.  Radical duct dissection

C.  Simpel mastectomy

D.  Central quadrentectomy

Ans. (B)

128. Trendelberg’s sign is seen injury of

A.  Superior gluteal Nerve

B.  Inferior Gluteal Nerve

C.  Obturator Nerve

D.  Femoral Nerve

Ans. (A)

ORTHOPAEDICS

129. Nikoladni’s sign other name is

A.  Murray’s

B.  Branham’s sign

C.  Darrier’s sign

D.  Frey’s sign

Ans. (B)

130. Velpeau sling Y swathe bandages are used for

A.  Acromio-clavicular joint dislocation

B.  Scapular fracture

C.  Clavile fracture

D.  Shoulder dislocation

Ans. (A)

131. Risser’s brace is used for

A.  Thoracolumbar scoliosis

B.  Lumbar scoliosis

C.  Kyphosis

D.  Spondylolosthesis grade III

Ans. (A)

132. Insertive Achilles tendinitis is caused by

A.  Chronic repetitive stress

B.  Wearing ill fit shoes

C.  Common in jumpers

D.  Due to steroid treatment

Ans. (A)

133. Watson & Jones surgery is done for

A.  Neglected CTEV

B.  Paralytic deformity

C.  Valgus foot

D.  Peroneal tendons

Ans. (D)

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY

134. Tubal motility is lost in

A.  Kartagener’s syndrome

B.  Turner’s syndrome

C.  Noonan’s syndrome

D.  Down’s syndrome

Ans. (A)

135. Ovarian reserve is best indicated by

A.  FSH

B.  LH

C.  LH/FSH ratio

D.  Estradiol

Ans. (A)

136. PCOS all are true except

A.  Increased DHEAS

B.  Increased LH secretion

C.  Increased LH/FSH ratio

D.  Marked hyperprolactinemia

Ans. (D)

137. Para 3 withobstructed labour, patient is dehydrated, with tachycardia and fetal demise. What will you do?

A.  Craniotomy

B.  Decepitation

C.  C.S.

D.  Wait and watch

Ans. (A)

138. Patient with h/o infertility treatment with 6 weeks amenorrhea, serum beta HCG 1000 IU, no gastational sac is visible on ultrasound. What is the next in management?

A.  Expectant management

B.  Medical management

C.  Repeat beta HCG after 48 hours

D.  Repeat beta HCG after 7 days

Ans. (C)

139. 25 year old nulliparous female has undergone laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy. HPE shows serous cystadenocarcinoma, what is the next step in management?

A.  Regular CA 125 and follow up

B.  Staging salpingo oophorectomy

C.  TAH with BSO

D.  Chemotherapy

Ans. (D)

140. CLUE CELLS are present in

A.  Trichomonas vaginalis

B.  Bacterial vaginosis

C.  Candida

D.  Gonorrhoea

Ans. (B)

141. Primi with 37 weeks of amenorrhoea, mild uterine contractions, cervix 1 cm even after 10 hours, uneffeced cervix. What is the next step?

A.  Sedation and watch

B.  Syntocinon infusion

C.  Amniotomy

D.  Caesarian Section

Ans. (A)

142. 45 year old female with DUB, endometrial thickness 8mm on USG, next step is

A.  Hysterectomy

B.  Endometrial HPE

C.  Progesterone therapy

D.  Estrogen therapy

Ans. (B)

143. Shoulder dystocia, which procedure is contraindicated

A.  McRober’s procedure

B.  Fundal pressure

C.  Suprapubic pressure

D.  Wood’s maneuver

Ans. (B)

144. FIGO staging of Ca Cervix does not include

A.  IVP

B.  CECT

C.  Cystoscopy

D.  Proctosigmoidoscopy

Ans. (B)

145. Suden hyperflexion of thigh over abdomen (McRober’s Procedure), which of the following nerves is commonly involved

A.  Common peroneal nerve

B.  Obturator nerve

C.  Lumbosacral trunk

D.  Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Ans. (D)

146. Contraceptive efficacy is measured by

A.  Keta thermometer

B.  Pearl index

C.  Chandler index

D.  Sullivan’s index

Ans. (B)

147. Which of the following is most pathognomonic of cholestasis of pregnancy?

A.  Serum bilirubin

B.  Serum bile acid

C.  Serum ALP

D.  Liver enzymes

Ans. (C)

PEDIATRICS

148. CHEOPS (Children’s Hospital Eastern Ontario Pain Scale) – children pain assessment – all are criteria except

A.  Touch

B.  Cry

C.  Oxygen saturation

D.  Torso

Ans. (C)

149. ALL – the following are good prognostic factors except

A.  2-8 years old

B.  t(9/22), 8/14

C.  Total lymphocyte count <50,000

D.  Hyperdiploidy

Ans. (B)

150. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome is associated with all except

A.  Thrombocytopenia

B.  Autosomal recessive

C.  No platelet aggregation with agonists

D.  Recurrent infections

Ans. (B)

151. A mother developed chicken pox rashes 3 days before delivery which among the following is true

A.  Both mother and baby not affected

B.  At risk of congenital varicella syndrome

C.  Child is immune to varicella

D.  Mother has to receive intra partum viral treatment

Ans. (B)

152. 3.5 kg term male baby, born on uncomplicated pregnancy, developed respiratory distress at birth, not responded to surfactant, ECHO finding revealed nothing abnormal, x-ray showed ground glass appearance and culture negative. Apgars 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes. History of one month female sibling died before. What is the diagnosis?

A.  TAPVC

B.  Meconium aspiration

C.  Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

D.  Diffuse herpes simplex infection

Ans. (C)

153. A 7½ year old girl with non reductive cough, mild stridor for 3 months duration, patient is improving but suddenly developed wheeze, productive cough, mild fever and on x-ray hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. The most probable diagnosis is

A.  Bronchiolitis obliterans

B.  Hemosiderosis

C.  Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis

D.  Follicular bronchitis

Ans. (A)

154. Which of the following is true regarding BCG

A.  Diluents used are normal saline and distilled water

B.  Spirit can be used for swabbing injection site

C.  Lymphadenopathy is observed in 6 weeks

D.  WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain

Ans. (D)

155. A 2 year old boy came to emergency department at 3 am with dyspnoea and fever. It was associated with barking cough and stridor was present only on crying. But child was consolable and well hydrated and was able to drink. Next management is

A.  Nebulized epinephrine (racemic)

B.  Dexamethasone

C.  Bloo culture and blood examination

D.  Nasal washings of RSV and influenza virus

Ans. (B)

156. A 7½ year old girl was not able to comb her hair and climb upstairs with gower’s sign positivity. She also had palpable rash on metacarpophalangeal joints. Next investigation should be,

A.  Creatine kinase serum level

B.  Nerve conduction studies

C.  Increased ESR level

D.  RA factor

Ans. (A)

157. Which is not true regarding vaccines

A.  Thiomersal is used as preservative in DPT

B.  Magnesium chloride is used as stabilizing agent in OPV

C.  Neomycin is used in BCG

D.  Kanamycin is used in measles vaccine

Ans. (C)

158. HIV transmission from mother to child can be reduced by all except

A.  Zidovudine to mother

B.  Vitamine A supplementation

C.  Vaginal delivery

D.  Avoid breast feeding

Ans. (C)

159. False about Rubella is

A.  IgM Ab in fetal blood

B.  Ig G antibody after 6 months can be diagnostic

C.  Neonate presents with cataract, deafness, congenital heart disease

D.  More dangerous if transmission occurs after 16 weeks

Ans. (D)

160. A child 10 years old present with hyperactivity, in attention. Parents are extreely worried, what would you say to the parents?

A.  Normal behavior

B.  Behavioral problem and behavior therapy

C.  Serious problem and medical therapy

Ans. (C)

ANAESTHESIA

161. Nitogen narcosis is due to

A.  High affinity to nitrogen

B.  Increased nitric oxide production

C.  Interferes with dismutase enzyme

D.  Reducing free radical damage

Ans. (A)

162. NO is contraindicated in all except

A.  Laser microlaryngeal surgery

B.  Vitreo retinal surgery

C.  Cochlear implants

D.  Extration surgery

Ans. (D)

163. Maximum absorption of local anaesthetic is

A.  Caudal

B.  Epidural

C.  Brachial plexus block

D.  Intercostal block

Ans. (D)

RADIOLOGY

164. Early diagnosis by USG is done for

A.  Anencephaly

B.  Encephalocele

C.  Cystic hygroma

D.  Spina bifida

Ans. (A)

165. Central dot sign is seen in

A.  PSC

B.  CAROLI’s diseases

C.  Polycystic liver disease

D.  Biliary hamartoma

Ans. (B)

166. USG shows thickened gall bladder mucosa and comet tail artefact what is the diagnosis

A.  Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis

B.  Adenomatous polyp

C.  Adenomyomatosis

D.  Gall bladder cancer

Ans. (C)

167. Re garding CT scan all are true except

A.  Decrease in milliamperes in tube decreases dose significantly in paediatric ct chest

B.  Automated control of mA current passage will help reduce radiation exposure

C.  50% decrease in KVP reduces 50% radiation dose

Ans. (C)

168. Permanent folds are the except

A.  Gastric rugae

B.  Spiral valve

C.  Plica cirularis

D.  Transverse rectal fold

Ans. (A)

169. 24 years male, CT shows necrotic mass in left hilum of kidney with heterogenous contrast enhancement what is the diagnosis

A.  Malignant melanoma

B.  Metastatic transitional ca

C.  Metastatic germ cell tumor

D.  Lymphoma

Ans. (B)

170. Female 25 years, with abducens palsy, seizures with Cavernous sinus mass hyperlucency on T2W image and slow gradual filling on CECT, what is the diagnosis

A.  Meningioma

B.  Cavernous hemangioma

C.  Astrocytoma

D.  Schwannoma

Ans. (B,A)

171. Investigation of choice for recurrent GIST

A.  PET

B.  CECT

C.  MRI

D.  MIBG

Ans. (A)

172. A 24 years. Man had stab injury involving his right flank, he was stable haemodynamically; most appropriate next step

A.  CECT

B.  DPL

C.  Exploratory Coeliotomy

D.  Coeliac angiography

Ans. (A)

DERMATOLOGY

173. Female with central forehead circular hypopigmentation causes

A.  Hydroquinone

B.  Isobenzyol form of hydro quinone

C.  Para tertiary catechol

D.  Paratertiary phenol

Ans. (B)

174. Congenital epidermolysis bullosa is caused by mutation in

A.  Laminin V

B.  Collagen VII

C.  Keratin

D.  PLET antigen

Ans. (B)

175. 2 month old girl with linear verrucous plaque in the trunk. On histological examination vacuolar degeneration of keratinocytes in granular and spinosal layer. Probable diagnosis is

A.  Linear Darier’s disease

B.  Incontienta pigmenti

C.  Linear hyperkeratotic

D.  Linear verrucous epidermal nevus

Ans. (A)

PSYCHOLOGY

176. Cognitive model of depression is given by

A.  Beck’s

B.  Ellis

C.  Goldfried

D.  Meicheinbanon

Ans. (A)

177. Features of type II schizophrenia [T.J.CROWE] are all except

A.  Abnormal CT findings

B.  Disorganization

C.  Poor response to treatment

D.  More of Negative symptoms

Ans. (B)

178. Most recent biomarker for ECT is

A.  CSF dopamine

B.  CSF HIAA

C.  Brain derived growth factor

D.  Thyroid hormone

Ans. (C)

SPM

179. SAFE strategy does not include

A.  Sanitation

B.  Oral azithromycin

C.  Vitamin A supplementation

D.  Face washing

Ans. (C)

180. Kaplan meier Method is for

A.  Survival

B.  Incidence

C.  Prevalence

D.  Frequency

Ans. (A)

181. All of the following are anti larval measures except

A.  Intermittent irrigation

B.  Paris green

C.  Gambusia

D.  DDT

Ans. (D)

182. Which one of the following is not true about DDT

A.  It is a contact poison

B.  Causes immediate death

C.  Residual action remains for 18 months

D.  Has synergistic action with pyrethrum

Ans. (B)

183. Fish contains all except

A.  Iron

B.  Vitamin A

C.  Iodine

D.  Phosphorus

Ans. (A)

184. Cluster sampling – true is all except

A.  Sampling frame is necessary

B.  Sample size is equal to that of simple random sampling

C.  Clusters are select from the clusters in the community

D.  Sample size may vary according to study design

Ans. (B)

185. Cover of syringe is discarded in

A.  Black

B.  Blue

C.  Yellow

D.  Red

Ans. (B)

186. All of the following are discarded by incineration except

A.  Animal waste

B.  Cytotoxic drugs

C.  Sharps

D.  Human anatomical waste

Ans. (C)

187. Average Indian woman all are true except

A.  Age 20-39 years

B.  Healthy and Wt. 55 kg

C.  8 hours for active work

D.  2 hours for recreation, 2 hours for exercise, 2 hours of household work

Ans. (B)

188. In community false positivity of a test increases with

A.  Prevalence is high

B.  Prevalence is low

C.  High specificity

D.  High sensitivity

Ans. (B)

189. NPU refers to

A.  Amount of nitrogen retained to amount of nitrogen intake X 100

B.  Indicates the quality of protein

C.  Amount of Nitrogen absorbed to amount of nitrogen in food

D.  Amount of total energy intake

Ans. (A)

190. All of the following about breast milk is true except

A.  Maximum secretion is at 12 months

B.  Calcium absorption is better with mother’s milk when compared with cow’s milk

C.  Mother’s milk has high lactose

D.  Milk is a reference protein

Ans. (D)

191. Incidence can be calculated by

A.  Case control study

B.  Cross section study

C.  Prospective study

D.  Retrospective study

Ans. (C)

192. Cyclodevelopmental in vector

A.  Filaria

B.  Plague

C.  Malaria

D.  Japanese encephalitis

Ans. (A)

193. National population policy all except

A.  To bring TFR to replacement level by 2015

B.  To bring IMR 30/1000 live births

C.  To bring MMR below 100/1,00,000 live births

D.  100% registration for birth death, marriage and pregnancy

Ans. (A)

194. RCT true are all except

A.  Baseline characteristics are comparable

B.  Investigator bias is eliminated by double blinding

C.  Sample size depends on the type of study

D.  Dropouts are excluded from study

Ans. (B)

195. Lepromin test is most important for

A.  Diagnosis

B.  Prognosis

C.  Treatment

D.  Epidemiological study

Ans. (B)

196. Typhoid fever – period of isolation

A.  3 days after of starting Chloramphenicol

B.  Till WIDAL is negative

C.  Till fever subsides

D.  Til 3 consecutive samples of urine and stools are negative

Ans. (D)

197. According to “prevention of disabilities act of 1995”, the seventh illness which was added is

A.  Mental illness

B.  Neurological illness

C.  Road traffic accident

D.  Substance abuse

Ans. (D)

198. Biosafety level 3 includes all of the following except

A.  St. Louis encephalitis

B.  Coxiella burnetti

C.  Mycobaterium tuberculosis

D.  Human influenza virus

Ans. (B)

199. Test for Pasteurized milk are all except

A.  Phosphatase test

B.  Standard plate count

C.  Coliform count

D.  Methylene blue reduction test

Ans. (D)

200. Minimal incubation period is for

A.  Rubella

B.  Influenza

C.  HBV

D.  HAV

Ans. (B)