AIIMS MAY 2009

Anatomy

1.     Not a sphincter of vagina:

A.  Pubovaginalis

B.  Internal urethral sphincter

C.  External urethral sphincter

D.  Bulbo spongiosum

Ans. (C)

2.     Urothelium lines of the following except:

A.  Ureter

B.  Membranous Urethra

C.  Bladder

D.  Major Calyces

Ans. (B)

3.     Endothelial cells of cornea derived from:

A.  Endoderm

B.  Mesoderm

C.  Neural Crest

D.  Ectoderm

Ans. (C)

4.     Anterior posterior stability of eye ball is maintained by

A.  SR

B.  SO

C.  Retro orbital fat

D.  Tennon capsule

Ans. (C)

5.     Sphincter of Odi has how many sphincters?

A.  2

B.  3

C.  5

D.  7

Ans. (B)

6.     Structure passing along with aorta in/aortic hiatus?

A.  Thoracic duct and azygos vein

B.  Thoracic duct and hemiazygos vein

C.  Lt. Vagus nerve azygos vein

D.  Lt. Vagus nerve and hemiazygos vein

Ans. (A)

7.     Segment of liver which drains left hepatic duct?

A.  1

B.  3

C.  5

D.  6

Ans. (B)

8.     False about hepatic duct:

A.  Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure

B.  Left hepatic duct crosses IV segment

C.  Right hepatic duct crosses V and VIII segments

D.  Caudate lobe drains only left hepatic duct

Ans. (D)

9.     Pain in arm, loss of contour of deltoid & failure of abduction after tetanus vaccine 5 days after vaccination due to

A.  Brachial neuritis

B.  Radial n entrapment

C.  Thoracic outlet syndrome

D.  Hysterical Syndrome

Ans. (A)

10.   Capacitation of sperms takes place in:

A.  Uterus

B.  Epidydymis

C.  Seminal vesicles

D.  Seminiferous tubules

Ans. (A)

11.   Enophthalmos is caused by:

A.  Superior levator paralysis

B.  Tennons capsule instability

C.  Orbiculis oculi paralysis

D.  Superior tarsal muscle paralysis

Ans. (A)

12.   Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?

A.  Appendix

B.  Uterus

C.  Rectum

D.  Urinary bladder

Ans. (A)

13.   Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:

A.  Splenic

B.  Gastroduodenal

C.  Superior mesenteric

D.  Coeliac

Ans. (B)

14.   All are of adult size at birth except:

A.  Mastoid antrum

B.  Ossicles

C.  Orbital cavity

D.  Maxillary antrum

Ans. (D)

15.   Deltoid ligament is not attached to:

A.  Medial cuneiform

B.  Medial malleolus

C.  Sustentaculum tali

D.  Spring ligament

Ans. (A)

16.   Structures deep to the posterior belly of digastric are all except:

A.  Hypoglossal nerve

B.  Hyoglossus

C.  Retromandibular vein

D.  Occipital artery

Ans. (C)

PSM

17.   Which is not a mode of health education?

A.  Primary health care approach

B.  Regulatory approach

C.  Service approach

D.  Mass media

Ans. (D)

18.   Most common mode of lead poisoning:

A.  Orally

B.  Contact

C.  Inhalation

D.  Air Pollution

Ans. (C)

19.   Target population for targeted intervention for HIV includes all except:

A.  Migrant labourers

B.  Sex workers

C.  Street children

D.  Industrial workers

Ans. (D)

20.   STEPS approach by WHO is for assessing incidents of risk factor for:

A.  Communicable diseases

B.  Non communicable diseases

C.  Immune deficient diseases

D.  Autoimmune diseases

Ans. (B)

21.   Nested case control study is a type of:

A.  Prospective study

B.  Retrospective study

C.  Ecological study

D.  Case control study

Ans. (A)

22.   To know the prevalence of cataract in a population at a given point of time study design used is:

A.  Cross Sectional

B.  Cohort

C.  Ecological

D.  Case control

Ans. (A)

23.   HIV screening in pregnancy as recommended by CDC?

A.  Universal screening

B.  Symptomatic

C.  Opt. In screening

D.  Opt. Out screening

Ans. (D)

24.   Blood banks get permission to operate from:

A.  NACO

B.  NABL

C.  State Ministry/Ministry of Health

D.  Drug Controller General of India

Ans. (D)

25.   Not a part of targets for 10th Five Year Plans?

A.  Increase Cataract Surgery to 450/lakh population

B.  IOL implantation in more than 80% of cataract operations

C.  Development of 50 paediatric ophthalmology units.

D.  100% coverage of Vit. Aprophylactic doses from 9 months to 3 years of age children

Ans. (D)

26.   Thiamine requirement by body depends on consumption of:

A.  Carbohydrates

B.  Fats

C.  Amino acids

D.  Minerals

Ans. (A)

27.   Profit put before health in which view?

A.  Marxist

B.  Feminist

C.  Foucaldian theory

D.  Personian

Ans. (A)

28.   Safe disposal of Mercury?

A.  Bury under earth

B.  Collect carefully and reuse

C.  Combustion

D.  Treat with chemical

Ans. (B)

29.   Acquired, constant & permanent but liable to change later on

A.  Knowledge

B.  Cultural believe

C.  Practice

D.  Attitude

Ans. (A)

30.   A temporary, provisional views held by the people on a point of view is

A.  Opinion

B.  Cultural believe

C.  Practice

D.  Attitude

Ans. (A)

31.   Which doesn’t measure association?

A.  P valve

B.  Odds ratio

C.  Relative risk

D.  Cronbach’ alpha

Ans. (D)

Pediatric

32.   A 10-month-old baby previously normal, suddenly becomes distressed in his crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal, except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose showed a level of 30mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A.  21 hydroxylasedeficiency

B.  Hyperinsulinism

C.  Familial glucocorticoid deficiency

D.  Cushing’s syndrome

Ans. (C)

33.   A 3-month-old female child with normal genitalia and normal blood pressure presents to the emergency department with severe dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement blood levels of which of the following will be helpful?

A.  17-hydroxy progesterone

B.  Renin

C.  Cortisol

D.  Aldosterone

Ans. (A)

34.   A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly, abdominal distension, jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?

A.  Adrenal hemorrhage

B.  Wolman’s disease

C.  Pheochromocytoma

D.  Addison’s disease

Ans. (B)

35.   All are true about scurvy except:

A.  Skeletal changes in adult occur with clinical deficiency of Vit. C

B.  Defective proximal calcification is the central cause for bone change

C.  Cartilaginous overgrowth results in widening of epiphyseal plate

D.  Bowing of legs

Ans. (B)

36.   Pilocytic astrocytoma false is:

A.  Spreads to posterior fossa

B.  Seen at eighty years of age

C.  Best prognosis among all intracranial neoplasms

D.  Surgery and radiation therapy used for treatment

Ans. (B)

Obstetrics & gynaecology

37.   Caesarean section can be done in which heart disease during pregnancy:

A.  Eissenmenger syndrome

B.  AS

C.  Cardiomyopathy

D.  Aortic aneurysm

Ans. (D)

38.   Mayer Rokintansky Kuster Kauser:

A.  Absent ovary uterus present

B.  Absent ovary, uterus and vagina

C.  Absent uterus and vagina

D.  Uterus absent, tubes and ovary present

Ans. (D)

39.   A lady presented with creamy white vaginal discharge with fishy odour, drug of choice is:

A.  Doxycycline

B.  Ofloxacin

C.  Metronidazole

D.  Chondamycin

Ans. (C)

40.   All are true about aneuploidy except:

A.  30% of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero

B.  80% of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero

C.  Occurrence of aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mother’s age

D.  Not recalled

Ans. (C)

41.   Pregnancy is Contradiction in all except:

A.  Eissenmenger syndrome

B.  WPW syndrome

C.  PPHT

D.  Marfan involving aortic root

Ans. (A)

42.   Not true in a diabetic pregnant patience?

A.  Risk of congenital malformation is 6-10%.

B.  1-2% incidence of single umbilical artery

C.  Free radical is most important cause of injury

D.  Insulin R 500 IU can be given

Ans. (D)

43.   Clomiphene citrate:

A.  It is antiestrogenic

B.  Trials shown used in increase sperm count in oligospermia

C.  Twin pregnancy incidence increased by 40%

D.  3 fold increase in pregnancy compared to placebo.

Ans. (A)

44.   Tran abdominal Chronic villas sampling is bests done on:

A.  7-9 wk

B.  9-11 wk

C.  11-13 wk

D.  20-24 wk

Ans. (C)

45.   Vase previa true is condition seen is

A.  ECS at 38 wks

B.  U/S Low lying placeta in the second trimester is a risk facto

C.  Incidence is 1 in 1500 cases

D.  Mortality association is 20%

Ans. (A)

Anaesthesia

46.   Flat capnogram is seen in all except:

A.  Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube

B.  Disconnection of endotracheal tube

C.  Mechanical ventilation failure

D.  Bronchospasm

Ans. (D)

47.   Most cardiostable:

A.  Ketamine

B.  Thiopentone

C.  Etomidate

D.  Propofol

Ans. (C)

48.   Coeliac pluexes block complication is:

A.  Retroperitoneal haemorrhage

B.  Pneumothorax

C.  Intra-arterial injury

D.  Hypotension

Ans. (D)

49.   Which is seen after tracheostomy?

A.  Increased V/P ratio

B.  Inversion of V/P ratio

C.  Decrease in dead space

D.  Increased resistance to air flow

Ans. (C)

50.   Methemoglobinemia is caused which local anaesthetic?

A.  Prilocaine

B.  Procaine

C.  Lidocaine

D.  Ropivacine

Ans. (A)

51.   Which is safe in myasthenia gravis?

A.  Aminoglycosides

B.  Azathioprine

C.  Tetracycline

D.  Phenytoin

Ans. (D)

52.   True about CPAP ail except:

A.  Used prophylactically in baby born with <1 kg wt or <28 weeks gestation

B.  Initiate as early in preterm with resp. diseases

C.  Initiate with <50-60% Fi O2

D.  Improed lung compliance and oxygenation

Ans. (A)

Microbiology

53.   Listeria culture media:

A.  Baker

B.  Korthoff

C.  Tinsdale

D.  Blood agar

Ans. (D)

54.   All are dimorphic except:

A.  Blastomyces

B.  Histoplasma

C.  Penicillium mameffei

D.  Phialophora

Ans. (D)

55.   Microaerophilic bacteria:

A.  Campylobacter

B.  Vibrio cholera

C.  Pseudomonas

D.  Salmonella

Ans. (A)

56.   Treponema palidum isolated from CSF in which stage?

A.  Primary syphilis

B.  Secondary syphilis

C.  Tertiary syphilis

D.  Tabes dorsalis

Ans. (A/B)

57.   All cause malasorption syndromes except:

A.  Giardiasis

B.  Ascaris

C.  Strongyloides

D.  Capillaria phillipinesis

Ans. (B)

58.   Congenital toxoplasmosis not true:

A.  IgA is more sensitive than IgM

B.  An increase in IgM beyond 1st week of life is diagnostic

C.  IgG is diagnostic

D.  Dye test is used

Ans. (C)

59.   Acid fast organism with oocyst of size 5µm on stool examination, causing diarrhea in HIV positive patient:

A.  Cryptosporidium

B.  Isospora belli

C.  Microsoporidia

D.  Blastocystis hominii

Ans. (A)

60.   A traveler present with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and on USG investigations a egg was found in his biliary tract. Likely organism:

A.  Clonorchis sinensis

B.  Pasciola buski

C.  Gnathostomata

D.  Ascaris

Ans. (A)

61.   Which species of Clostridum does not cause gas gangrene?

A.  Cl. perfringes

B.  Cl. Histolyticum

C.  C. Novyii

D.  C. Sporogenes

Ans. (D)

62.   Autoinfection is seen with:

A.  Cryptosporidium

B.  Strogyloidies

C.  Giardia

D.  Ganthostoma

Ans. (B)

63.   Intermediate host of echinococcus granulossus?

A.  Dog

B.  Pig

C.  Cat

D.  Man

Ans. (D)

Pathology

64.   Annexin 5 is seen attached to an imermeable cell. The cell is in the process of:

A.  Cell cycle progression

B.  Cell cycle stops

C.  Apoptosis

D.  Necrosis

Ans. (C)

65.   Hyperplasia and hypertrophy both occur in:

A.  Breast enlargement during puberty

B.  Uterus during pregnancy

C.  Skeletal muscle enlargement during exercise

D.  Left ventricle hypertrophy

Ans. (B)

66.   Nodular regenerative hyperplasia in liver is associated with?

A.  Viral hepatitis

B.  Alcoholic hepatitis

C.  Autoimmune hepatitis

D.  Renal transplantation

Ans. (D)

67.   Most common cause of cancer with ageing:

A.  Telomerase inhibition

B.  Telomerase reactivation

C.  Suppression of proto-oncogene’s

D.  Increased signals for apoptosis

Ans. (B)

68.   True about Metastatic calcification:

A.  Starts in mitochondria

B.  Occurs in damaged cardiac valves

C.  Occurs in dead tissues

D.  Calcium levels are normal

Ans. (A)

69.   Patch test denotes which type of hypersensitivity?

A.  I

B.  II

C.  III

D.  IV

Ans. (D)

70.   Skip lesions seen in:

A.  Crohn’s disease

B.  Ulcerative colitis

C.  Typhoid

D.  TB enteritis

Ans. (A)

71.   All are true except:

A.  Chediak Higashi syndrome is due to deficient phagolysosome formation.

B.  In Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected

C.  Mycloperoxidase action is mainly due to HOCl.

D.  NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions.

Ans. (B)

Biochemistry

72.   Eukaryotic membrane is made up of all except:

A.  Triglycerides

B.  Carbohydrates

C.  Cholesterol

D.  Lecithin

Ans. (A)

73.   What is not done by insulin?

A.  Glycolysis

B.  Ketogenesis

C.  Glycogenesis

D.  Lipogenesis

Ans. (B)

74.   Which migrates fastest on paper chromatography on methylcellulose medium:

A.  Ascorbic acid

B.  Glycine

C.  Lysine

D.  Valine

Ans. (D)

75.   True about translation in eukaryoks are all except:

A.  N formyl methionine transfer RNA will be the first

B.  5’3’ direction

C.  3’5’ direction

D.  EF 2 shift b/w GDP & GTP

Ans. (B)

76.   NO formed in body by

A.  L Arginine

B.  Glycine

C.  Valine

D.  Aspartic acid

Ans. (A)

77.   Oligomisnorm gene used in Primer

A.  Site directed mutagenesis

B.  RELP

C.  Error base PCR

D.  Mass chromatography

Ans. (C)

ENT

78.   Endolymph is secreted by:

A.  Hair cells

B.  Stria Vascularis

C.  Scala tympani

D.  Scala Vestibuli

Ans. (B)

79.   Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3. Treatment is given:

A.  Oral steroids + Vit. B

B.  Vit. B + Vasodilators

C.  Oral Steroids + Acyclovir

D.  Intratympanic steroids

Ans. (B)

80.   Man with strained n croaky voice with spasmodic dysfunction

A.  Adductor spasm,

B.  Abductor spasm

C.  Botox in pca best treatment

D.  Type 4 thyroplasty is treatment

Ans. (A)

Pharmacology

81.   Cerebellar toxicity is caused by

A.  Cytosine arabinoside

B.  Bleomycin

C.  Cisplatin

D.  Busulfan

Ans. (A)

82.   Tolazoline is used as:

A.  Vasoconstrictor in treatment of gastro esophageal varices.

B.  Vasodilator during angiography to relieve vasospasm

C.  A new radio-contrast agent

D.  New antispasmodic during biliary spasm

Ans. (B)

83.   Side effect of Amiodarone

A.  Fibrosis

B.  Cirrhosis

C.  Productive Cough

D.  Corneal micro deposits

Ans. (C)

84.   Treatment of heparin overdose is:

A.  Vit. -K

B.  Blood transfusion

C.  Protamine sulphate

D.  Platelet infusion

Ans. (B)

85.   Thalidomide not used in:

A.  HIV associated neuropathy

B.  Bechet’s

C.  HIV associated oral ulcers

D.  ENCL

Ans. (A)

86.   Which can be given orally:

A.  Cytosine arabinoside

B.  Actinomycin D

C.  Mesna

D.  Doxorubicin

Ans. (B)

87.   Allopurinol used in organ preservation as:

A.  Free radical destruction

B.  Preservative

C.  Antioxidant

D.  None of above

Ans. (A)

88.   True about warfarin are all except:

A.  Crosses placenta, should not be given in pregnancy

B.  Vit. K dependent factors inhabited

C.  t½ is 36 hours

D.  In liver disease dose in increased

Ans. (D)

89.   Pharmacovigilance:

A.  Check cost of drugs

B.  Check drug safety

C.  Monitoring of pharmacy students

D.  Keep a check on dealers

Ans. (B)

90.   Cetuximab used in

A.  Palliative treatment in head neck ca

B.  Analcanalca

C.  Small cell ca lung

D.  Gastric cancer

Ans. (A)

91.   Mechanism of action of Multi Drug Resistance gene:

A.  Inhibit prodrug activation

B.  Efflux of the drug from the cell

C.  Increasing the rate of metabolism of drug

D.  Inactivating the receptors for drug action

Ans. (B)

92.   Not true about cephalosporin:

A.  Inhibit cell wall synthesis

B.  Cefoperazone is antipseudomonal

C.  Cetazidime is third generation cephalosporin

D.  Cefoxitin has no anaerobic activity

Ans. (D)

93.   Digitalis toxicity potentiated by all except:

A.  Hyperkalemia

B.  Hypomagnesemia

C.  Hyperalcemia

D.  Renal failure

Ans. (A)

94.   For ACE inhibitors, which of the following is true?

A.  Inhibit angiotensionogen conversion to angiotensin-I

B.  Omit diuretics to prevent 1st dose hypotension

C.  Enalopril is more long acting than Lisinopril

D.  Can’t be given till systolic function resolves.

Ans. (B)

95.   Highest emetic potential is by

A.  Cisplatin

B.  High dose methotrexate

C.  High dose Cyclophosphamide

D.  Vincristine

Ans. (A)

Surgery

96.   Death in Crohn’s most commonly due to

A.  Thromboembolism

B.  Sepsis

C.  Malignancy

D.  Electrolyte imbalance

Ans. (B)

97.   Seminomatous and non-seminematous tumors true is all except:

A.  Seminomatous when localised to testis give radiotherapy

B.  Non seminomatous when localized to testis orchidectomy + removal of RPLN.

C.  Seminomatous spread by haematogenous route as compared to non seminomatous.

D.  Non seminomatous are more malignant thn seminomatous.

Ans. (C)

98.   Boover sign is used for testing muscle of

A.  Respiratory

B.  Abdominal

C.  Facial

D.  Occular

Ans. (C)

99.   Sister joseph marry nodule in which a

A.  Gastric

B.  Pancreatic

C.  Colon

D.  Ovarian

Ans. (A)

100. Which of the following is used to define penetrating neck injury?

A.  2 cm. Depth of wound

B.  Injury to vital structures

C.  Breach of platysma

D.  Through and through wound

Ans. (C)

101. Choledochal cyst not true

A.  Type Second is m/c type

B.  Rupture leads to peritonitis

C.  Radical excision & reconstruction of biliary tract is treat meant of choice

D.  Lined by squamous epithelium

Ans. (A)

102. Not a premalignant lesion of esophagus

A.  Medistinal fibrosis

B.  Caustic burn

C.  Human papilloma virus

D.  Diverticula

Ans. (D)

103. Most common cause of esophagitis

A.  Smoking

B.  Alcohol

C.  Reflux Disease

D.  Increased intake of Spices

Ans. (C)

104. Most common cause for nosocomial infection

A.  Admission for elective surgery

B.  Admission for normal delivery

C.  Know neoplasm patient in OPD for follow up

D.  Endoscopic evaluation

Ans. (A)

105. Stain used 2 find carcinoma while doing endoscopy

A.  Toluidine blue

B.  Gentian violet

C.  Hematoxylin 2 eosin

D.  Methylene Blue

Ans. (A)

106. Double bubble sign is seen with:

A.  Esophageal atresia

B.  Pyloric stenosis

C.  Duodenal atresia

D.  Heal atresia

Ans. (C)

107. Penile Angiography is indicated in all except:

A.  Peyronie’s disease

B.  Vascular malformation

C.  Priapism

D.  Ischemic erectile dysfunction

Ans. (A)

108. Most important prognostic factor of renal cancer based on:

A.  Size of tumor

B.  Pathological staging

C.  Nuclear grading

D.  Histology

Ans. (B)

Forensic

109. Large bruise with minimal trauma occurs in:

A.  Scalp

B.  Soles

C.  Palm

D.  Face

Ans. (D)

110. Cuts of genitalia are commonly:

A.  Homicidal

B.  Post-mortem artifact

C.  Accidental

D.  Self inflicted

Ans. (A)

111. A pest control worker was brought to the emergency room with h/o pain in abdomen vomiting, garlic odor in breath, which of the following is the most common poison?

A.  Lead

B.  Arsenic

C.  Mercury

D.  Phosphenes

Ans. (B)

112. Not a sign of ante-mortem contusion:

A.  Sharp margins

B.  Raised above the surface

C.  Coagulation of blood

D.  Vital reaction

Ans. (A)

Ophthalmology

113. Maximum refractive index is for:

A.  Cornea

B.  Anterior surface of lens

C.  Centroid of lens

D.  Posterior surface of lens

Ans. (C)

114. A young male presents with blurred vision in right eye followed by similar complaints in left eye after 3 months. On examination – Pupillary reflex is normal and centrocaecal scotoma is seen. He has parafoveal/juxtafovcal telangiectasia and disc hyperaemia. Most likely diagnosis:

A.  Leber’s hereditary optic atrophy

B.  Optic neuritis

C.  Papilloedema

D.  Toxic optic neuropathy

Ans. (A)

115. Sclera is thinnest at:

A.  Equator

B.  Insertion of recti

C.  Beneath the recti

D.  Behind the insertion of recti

Ans. (D)

116. Diplopia with limitation of adduction of right eye with abduction saccades of left eye and normal convergent is due to:

A.  Duane’ sretractionsyndrome

B.  Partial 3rd nerve palsy

C.  Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

D.  Absence of medial rectus

Ans. (C)

117. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:

A.  Blow on forehead

B.  Blow on lower jaw

C.  Blow on parietal bone

D.  Fall on back of the head

Ans. (A)

Radiology

118. C1 C2 best seen in:

A.  Lateral view

B.  Oblique view

C.  AP view

D.  Odontoid view

Ans. (D)

119. Hounsefield Units depends on

A.  Electron density

B.  Mass density

C.  Effective atomic no. a

D.  Attenuation ration

Ans. (A)

120. Stereotactic surgery is done with all except:

A.  Gamma knife CO60

B.  Electron

C.  Proton

D.  Linear accelerator

Ans. (None)

121. Revisable ischemia of the heart is detected by:

A.  Angiography

B.  Thallium scan

C.  MUGA

D.  Resting Echocardiography

Ans. (B)

Psychiatry

122. Subcortical dementia occurs in all except:

A.  Alzheimer’s disease

B.  Supranuclear Palsy

C.  Parkinson’s

D.  HIV associated dementia

Ans. (A)

123. Formation and delusion of persecution occurs simultaneously in:

A.  Cocaine

B.  Amphetamine

C.  Cannabis

D.  Morphine

Ans. (A)

124. True about hallucination except:

A.  It occurs in inner subjective space

B.  It is vivid as real sensation

C.  It occurs in absence of stimuli

D.  It occurs without the will of subject

Ans. (A)

125. Alcohol anticraving agents all are used except:

A.  Lorazepam

B.  Topiramate

C.  Accemprosate

D.  Naltrexone

Ans. (A)

126. Which of the following agent cannot be used as treatment of heroine dependence

A.  Lorazepam

B.  Naltrexone

C.  Clonidine

D.  Disulfiram

Ans. (D)

127. Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill to a mentally, challenged child:

A.  CBT (Cognitive Behaviour Therapy)

B.  Contingency

C.  Cognitive reconstruction

D.  Self instruction

Ans. (B)

128. A man taking 20 cigarettes per day, started coughing, his family suggested quitting cigaretes. He is ready to quit but thinks that quitting will make him irritable, the best health planning model followed is:

A.  Cost and survival

B.  Persuasion

C.  Precontemplation and preparation

D.  Belief

Ans. (C)

Orthopaedics

129. A 7 year old boy with abrupt onset of pain in hip with hip held in abduction. All investigations are normal except for a high value of ESR. Which is the next line of management?

A.  Hospitalize and observe

B.  Ambulatory observation

C.  Intra venous antibiotics

D.  USG guided aspiration of hip

Ans. (B)

130. Haematogenous infection to bone involves which part of long bone?

A.  Epiphysis

B.  Diaphysis

C.  Metaphysis

D.  Where nutrient artery enters bone

Ans. (C)

131. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is seen in which arthritis?

A.  Rheumatoid arthritis

B.  Psoriatic arthritis

C.  Ankylosing spondylitis

D.  Osteoarthritis

Ans. (A)

132. Crescent fracture true is:

A.  Acetabulum shift backwards

B.  Rotational instability found.

C.  Fracture of iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption

D.  Dislocation of pubic symphysis with fracture of both iliac bones

Ans. (C)

133. Stability of posterior glenohumeral joint tested by:

A.  Jerk’s test.

B.  Fulcrum test

C.  Crnak test

D.  Sulcus test

Ans. (A)

134. Kocher Langenback procedure done in

A.  Acetabular fracture

B. 

C. 

D. 

Ans. (A)

135. Emergency treatment of acetabular fracture done in A/E:

A.  Recurrent dislocation despite Rx

B.  Open ace tubular #

C.  Sciatic n entrapment

Ans. ()

136. Osteosclerotic bone lesion is found most commonly in which carcinoma?

A.  Prostate

B.  Kidney

C.  Thyroid

D.  Lung

Ans. (A)

Medicine

137. LV hypertrophy does not occurs in:

A.  MS

B.  AR

C.  AS

D.  MR

Ans. (A)

138. Most important cause of acute right heart failure?

A.  Tricuspid stenosis

B.  Pulmonary stenosis

C.  Massive pulmonary embolism

D.  Tricuspid regurgitation

Ans. (C)

139. Bilateral medulary nephrocalcinosis seen in all except:

A.  Hyperoxaluria

B.  Barter’s

C.  Prolonged use of Furosemide

D.  ARPKD

Ans. (D)

140. Histiocytosis which is false:

A.  Highly radiosensitive

B.  Disseminated is letterer sine disease

C.  Seen in < 3 years old

D.  Gonadal involvement is common

Ans. (A)

141. A 55 years old diabetic lady without any previous H/O headache presented with severe acute headache, nausea and on examination found to have neck rigidity. Detailed history lead to finding a past H/O photophobia. Most common can be:

A.  Acute viral encephalitis

B.  Hydrocephalus

C.  Migrane

D.  SAH

Ans. (D)

142. Right cerebral hemisphere damage seen is all except:

A.  Visuospatial deficit

B.  Anosognosia

C.  Dyscalculia

D.  Dysgsraphia

Ans. (D)

143. Which is not true about primary Sjogern’s syndrome?

A.  Xerostomia

B.  Xerophthalmia

C.  Lymphoma

D.  Connective tissue disorder/autoimmune disorder

Ans. (D)

144. Gene therapy has been successfully used in:

A.  Cystic fibrosis

B.  Sickle cell anemia

C.  Thalassemia

D.  SCID

Ans. (D)

145. CNS finding in HIV patient are all except:

A.  Giant cell surrounding vessels

B.  Microglial nodules

C.  Inclusion body

D.  Posterior column vaculopathy

Ans. (C)

146. Blood transfusion complications are all except:

A.  Hyperkalemia

B.  Citrate toxicity

C.  Metabolic acidosis

D.  Leucocytosis

Ans. (D)

147. Which of the following is NOT a cause of congenital hypercoagulability?

A.  Protein C deficiency

B.  Protein S deficiency

C.  Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

D.  MLCSTR gene mutations

Ans. (C)

148. Following are true about Wilson’s disease except:

A.  Serum ceruloplasmin <20 mg/ac

B.  24 hour urinary copper excretion <100 ug

C.  Autosomal recessive

D.  Liver biopsy with >200 ug/g dry weight is gold standard.

Ans. (B)

149. Treatment of a lady with sputum positive pulmonary TB in early pregnancy:

A.  Start the treatment with Cat. I immediately

B.  Treatment to be delayed till second trimester

C.  Category II treatment in first trimester

D.  Category III treatment in first trimester

Ans. (A)

150. In prions disease all are true except:

A.  They are caused by infections proteins

B.  Neurodegenerative disease

C.  Biopsy of brain is specific

D.  Myoclonus present in 10% cases.

Ans. (D)

151. Tumrolysis syndrome not seen:

A.  Hyperuricemia

B.  Hyperphosphatemia

C.  Hypercalcemia

D.  Hyperkalemia

Ans. (C)

152. Major Jone’s criteria for Rheumatic fever are all except:

A.  Carditis

B.  Chorea

C.  Arthritis

D.  ESR

Ans. (D)

153. A patient with memory impairment, visuo spatial deficits and paranoid delusions is found to have neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. Other pathological findings associated will be:

A.  Amyloid plaque

B.  Lewy Bodies

C.  X synuclein

D.  Negri bodies

Ans. (A)

154. Most important in Coronary heart disease:

A.  LDL

B.  HDL

C.  Triglycerides

D.  VDL

Ans. (A)

155. Romberg sign positive with eyes closed in seen in lesions of:

A.  Spinocerebellr tract

B.  Spinothalamic tract

C.  Propriocetion

D.  Pontocerebellar tract

Ans. (C)

156. A man developed swelling of face frequently with occasional laryngeal edema, most probable diagnosis is:

A.  C-l esterase deficiency

B.  Allergy

C.  Anaphylaxsis

D.  Non recalled

Ans. (A)

157. Most common cause of acute RVF;

A.  Massive pulmonary embolism

B.  Tricuspid stenosis

C.  Pulmonary stenosis

D.  Tricuspid regurgitation

Ans. (A)

158. Drugs not used for the treatment of acute hyperkalemia:

A.  Insulin+glucose

B.  Potassium exchange resins

C.  Calcium gluconate

D.  Sodium bicarbonate

Ans. (B)

159. Blood borne infections are all except:

A.  Hep G

B.  EBV

C.  CMV

D.  Parvovirus B19

Ans. (B)

160. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis:

A.  After transplant in Alport’s

B.  Microscopic polyangitis

C.  Henoch Schonlein purpura

D.  SLE

Ans. (B)

161. Hypersensitivity vasculitis involves:

A.  Arterioles

B.  Post capillary venules

C.  Capillaries

D.  Medium sized arteries

Ans. (B)

162. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?

A.  I.V. immunoglobulins

B.  Steroids

C.  Azathioprine

D.  Methotrexate

Ans. (A)

163. All of the following are true about lupus anticoagulant except:

A.  Prolongation of only aPTT

B.  Recurrent second trimester absorption

C.  Recurrent bleeding episodes

D.  Can be associated without any clinical symptoms

Ans. (B)

164. Serum fructosamine can be used in all, except:

A.  Screening of diabetes

B.  Rapid change in DM treatment

C.  Short term control OD DM

D.  Screening of DM in pregnancy

Ans. (A)

165. The nobel prize in physiology or medicine for 2007 jointly to Mario R. Capecchi, Martin J. Evans and Oliver Smithies for their discoveries of:

A.  Detection of chemical/growth factors for preventing growth of tumors

B.  Principles for introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use embryonic stem cells

C.  Non genetic method treating muscular dystrophies

D.  Not recalled

Ans. (B)

Physiology

166. VIII nerve receives afferents of:

A.  Taste

B.  Balance

C.  Pain

D.  Smell

Ans. (B)

167. During Ovulation phase:

A.  Increase in inhibin A level

B.  FHS induce steroid genesis in granulosa cells

C.  Decrease Activin A level

D.  Reduction division occurs at the time of ovulation

Ans. (D)

168. Diff b/w Rods & Cones are all except in:

A.  Sensitivity

B.  Number

C.  Type light

D.  Transduction

Ans. (D)

169. Somatomedin at normal physiological concentration combination do:

A.  Lypogenesis

B.  Glyconeogenesis

C.  Glucose taken up by cells

D.  Deposition of chondritin sulphate

Ans. (D)

170. Muscle spindle function:

A.  Maintain muscles length

B.  Muscles tension

C.  Muscle tone

D.  Withdrawal reflex

Ans. (A)

171. High affinity of fetal Hb with O2 due to:

A.  Decreases 2, 3 DPG

B.  Reduced pH

C.  Increase releases of CO

D. 

Ans. (A)

172. Development of fibers of cortex is:

A.  Tangential

B.  Vertical

C.  Irregular

D.  Horizontal

Ans. (B)

173. Central processing at auditory pathway is for

A.  Speech discrimination

B.  Frequency discrimination

C.  Intensity discrimination

D.  Sound Localization

Ans. (D)

174. Estrogens action on carbohydrate metabolism

A.  Increase uptake of glucose through

B.  Glycolysis increase

C.  Increasing central adipose deposition

D.  Decrease fasting insulin level

Ans. (D)

Skin

175. Granular deposits of IgA in intradermal space:

A.  Bullous pemphigoid

B.  Pemphigus vulgaris

C.  Dermatitis herpetiformis

D.  Lichen planus

Ans. (C)

176. IgG intercellular deposits are seen in:

A.  Bullous pemphigoid

B.  Pemphigus vulgaris

C.  Dermatitis herpetiformis

D.  Lichen planus

Ans. (B)

177. IgA deposits on skin biopsy:

A.  Henoch Schouleiln puspura

B.  Giant cell arteritis

C.  Microscopic plyangitis

D.  Wegener’s granulomatosis

Ans. (A)

178. Neurofibromatosis all are true except:

A.  Autosomal recessive

B.  Scoliosis

C.  Neurofibroma

D.  Association with cataract

Ans. (A)