ANATOMY
Q 1. False statement regarding pudendal nerve
is:
A. Both sensory and motor
B. Derived from S2,3,4 spinal nerve roots
C. Leaves pelvis through the
lesser sciatic foramen
D. It is the only somatic nerve
to innervate the pelvic organs
Ans. C
Q 2. Wrong statement regarding the coronary
artery is:
A. Left coronary artery is
present in anterior interventricular groove
B. Usually 3 obtuse marginal
arteries arise from left coronary artery
C. Posterior interventricular
artery arises from right coronary artery
D. Left atrial artery is a
branch of left coronary artery
Ans. B
Q 3. All are true statements regarding inguinal
canal except:
A. Roof is formed by conjoint
tendon
B. Deep inguinal ring is
formed by transversus abdominis
C. Superficial inguinal ring
is formed by external oblique muscle
D. Internal oblique forms
anterior and posterior wall
Ans. B
Q 4. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch
of:
A. Left gastric
B. Coeliac trunk
C. Splenic
D. Gastroduodenal
Ans. D
Q 5. In fracture of middle cranial fossa,
absence of tears is due to lesion in the:
A. Trigeminal ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Lesser petrosal nerve
D. Greater petrosal nerve
Ans. D
Q 6. Motor supply to diaphragm is by:
A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Intercostal nerves
D. Sympathetic nerves
Ans. B
Q 7. All of the following are supplied by
facial nerve except:
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Nasal glands
D. Parotid gland
Ans. D
Q 8. In left coronary artery thrombosis, area
most likely to be involved is:
A. Anterior wall of right
ventricle
B. Anterior wall of left
ventricle
C. Anterior wall of right
atrium
D. Inferior surface of right
ventricle
Ans. B
Physiology
Q 9. Tidal volume is calculated by:
A. Inspiratory capacity minus
the inspiratory reserve volume
B. Total lung capacity minus
the residual volume
C. Functional residual
capacity minus residual volume
D. Vital capacity minus
expiratory reserve volumes
Ans. A
Q 10. Surfactant production in lungs starts at:
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 36 weeks
Ans. A
Q 11. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the
axon hillock because:
A. It has a lower threshold
than the rest of the axon
B. It is unmyelinated
C. Neurotransmitter release
occurs here
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 12. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic
pressure because it has:
A. High molecular weight, low
concentration
B. Low molecular weight, low
concentration
C. High molecular weight,
high concentration
D. Low molecular weight, high
concentration
Ans. D
Q 13. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral
GTT, true is all except:
A. GH levels are increased
B. Increased glucose
tolerance
C. Decreased insulin levels
D. Glucagon levels are
increased
Ans. B
Q 14. Metalloproteins help in jaundice by the
following mechanism:
A. Increased glucoronyl
transferase activity
B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
C. Decrease RBC lysis
D. Increase Y and Z receptors
Ans. B
Q 15. Which protein prevents contraction by
covering binding sites on actin and myosin:
A. Troponin
B. Calmodulin
C. Thymosin
D. Tropomyosin
Ans. D
Q 16. Which of the following is not correct
regarding capillaries:
A. Greatest cross sectional
area
B. Contain 25% of blood
C. Contains less blood than
veins
D. Have single layer of cells
bounding the lumen
Ans. B
Q 17. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will
lead to:
A. Increase in HR, decrease
in BP
B. Slight increase in HR,
normal BP
C. Decrease in HR and BP
D. Prominent increase in HR
Ans. B
Q 18. Single most important factor in control of
automatic contractility of heart is:
A. Myocardial wall thickness
B. Right atrial volume
C. SA node pacemaker
potential
D. Sympathetic stimulation
Ans. D
Q 19. Which of the following is not
mediated through negative feedback mechanism:
A. TSH release
B. GH
formation
C. Thrombin formation
D. ACTH
release
Ans. C
Q 20. Force generating proteins are:
A. Myosin and myoglobin
B. Dynein and kinesin
C. Calmodulin and G protein
D. Troponin
Ans. B
Q 21. Which is true about measurement of BP
with sphygmomanometer versus intraarterial pressure measurements:
A. Less than intravascular
pressure
B. More than intravascular
pressure
C. Equal to intravascular
pressure
D. Depends upon blood flow
Ans. B
Q 22. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin
D deficiency shows:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Ans. C
Q 23. Maximum absorption of water takes place in:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
Ans. A
Biochemistry
Q 24. Basic amino acids are:
A. Aspartate and glutamate
B. Serine and glycine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 25. Amino acid with dissociation constant
closest to physiological pH is:
A. Serine
B. Histidine
C. Threonine
D. Proline
Ans. B
Q 26. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are:
A. Aspartate and ammonia
B. glutamate and ammonia
C. Arginine and ammonia
D. Uric acid
Ans. A
Q 27. If urine sample darkens on standing: the
most likely condition is:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Tyrosinemia
Ans. B
Q 28. A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin
lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely
diagnosis is:
A. Propionic aciduria
B. Multiple carboxylase
deficiency
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Urea cycle enzyme
deficiency
Ans. B
Q 29. Force not acting in an enzyme
substrate complex:
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Wall
D. Hydrogen
Ans. C
Q 30. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by:
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chocolate
D. Carbonated beverages
Ans. A
Q 31. Triple bonds are found between which base
pairs:
A. A-T
B. C-G
C. A-G
D. C-T
Ans. B
Q 32. Which of the following RNA has abnormal
purine bases:
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. 16SRNA
Ans. A
Q 33. False regarding gout is:
A. Due to increased
metabolism of pyrimidines
B. Due to increased
metabolism of purines
C. Uric acid levels may not
be elevated
D. Has a predilection for the
great toe
Ans. A
Q 34. All of the following statements are true
regarding lipoproteins except:
A. VLDL transports endogenous
lipids
B. LDL transports lipids to
the tissues.
C. Increased blood
cholesterol is associated with increased LDL receptors
D. Increased HDL is
associated with decreased risk of coronary disease
Ans. C
Q 35. A destitute woman is admitted to the
hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild
proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable:
A. Fouchet
B. Rothera
C. Hays
D. Benedict’s
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of these fatty acids is found
exclusively in breast milk:
A. Linolaete
B. Linolenic
C. Palmitic
D. d-hexanoic
Ans. A
Q 37. Blood is not a newtonian fluid
because:
A. Viscosity does not
changing with velocity
B. Viscosity changes with
velocity
C. Density does not change
with velocity
D. Density changes with
velocity
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 38. Regarding NK cells, false statement is:
A. It is activated by IL-2
B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
C. It is a variant of large
lymphocyte
D. There is antibody induced
proliferation of NK cells
Ans. D
Q 39. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in
the following:
A. Common variable
immunodeficiency.
B. Severe combined
immunodeficiency
C. Chronic granulomatous
disease
D. Nezelof syndrome
Ans. B
Q 40. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to
vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is non-bile sensitive. It is likely to
be:
A. Strep. agalactiae
B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep. bovis
Ans. C
Q 41. False statement about the streptococcus is:
A. M protein is
responsible for production of mucoid colonies
B. M protein is the
major surface protein of group A streptococci
C. Mucoid colonies
are virulent
D. Endotoxin causes
rash of scarlet fever
Ans. A
Q 42. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic
shock syndrome is:
A. Pyrogenic toxin
B. Erythrogenic
toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. Neurotoxin
Ans. A
Q 43. A child presents with a white patch over the
tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture in:
A. Loeffler medium
B. LJ medium
C. Blood agar
D. Tellurite medium
Ans. A
Q 44. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspected
of having typhoid. What investigation should be done:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 45. All are true about EHEC except:
A. Sereny test is positive
B. Fails to ferment sorbitol
C. Causes HUS
D. Elaborates shiga like
exotoxin
Ans. A
Q 46. An organism grown on agar shows green
coloured colonies, likely organism is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. C
Q 47. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed
by:
A. IgM FTAbs
B. IgG FTAbs
C. VDRL
D. TPI
Ans. A
Q 48. All
are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum except:
A. Non gonococcal urethritis
B. Salpingitis
C. Epididymitis
D. Bacterial vaginosis
Ans. D
Q 49. Regarding HIV infection, not true
is:
A. p24 is used for early
diagnosis
B. Lysis of infected CD 4
cells is seen
C. Dendritic cells do not
support replication
D. Macrophage is a reservoir
for the virus
Ans. C
Q 50. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with
hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis B
C. Sepsis
D. Acute fatty liver of
pregnancy
Ans. A
Q 51. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea
and conjunctivitis is:
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus
Ans. C
Q 52. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED)
medium is preferred over McConkey agar in UTI because:
A. Former prevents swarming of
proteus
B. Is a selective medium
C. Prevents growth of
pseudomonas
D. Promotes growth of candida
Ans. A
Q 53. In which stage of filariasis are
microfilaria seen in peripheral blood:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early adenolymphangitis
stage
C. Late adenolymphangitis
stage
D. Elephantiasis
Ans. B
Q 54. Pancreatic CA is caused by:
A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Paragonimus
D. None
Ans. B
Q 55. All of the following are true except:
A. E.coli is an aerobe and facultative anaerobe
B. Proteus forms uric acid stones
C. E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella
D. Proteus causes deamination of phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic
acid
Ans. B
Q 56. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to
cause which of the following helminthic disease:
A. Tinea saginata
B. Tinea solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichura
Ans. B
Pathology
Q 57. Enzyme that protects the brain from free
radical injury is:
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in:
A. ALL B. AML
C. CLL D. CML
Ans. C
Q 59. All of following are correct about
thromboxane A2 except:
A. Low dose aspirin inhibits
its synthesis
B. Causes vasoconstriction in
blood vessels
C. Causes broncoconstriction
D. Secreted by WBC
Ans. D
Q 60. Which of the following complications is
likely to result after several units of blood have been transfused:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Ans. A
Q 61. The mother has sickle cell disease and
father is normal. Chances of children having sickle cell disease and sickle
cell trait respectively are:
A. 0 and 100%
B. 25 and 25%
C. 50 and 50%
D. 10 and 50%
Ans. A
Q 62. Father has a blood group B, mother has AB;
children are not likely to have the following blood group:
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB
Ans. A
Q 63. Protein involved in intercellular
connections is:
A. Connexin
B. Integrin
C. Adhesin
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 64. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in
elderly except:
A. They are lean and their
body mass is less
B. Have decreasing renal
function with age
C. Have increased baroceptor
sensitivity
D. Body water is decreased
Ans. C
Q 65. True statement regarding inverse
agonists is:
A. Binds to receptor and
causes intended action
B. Binds to receptor and
causes opposite action
C. Binds to receptor and
causes no action
D. Binds to receptor and
causes submaximal action
Ans. B
Q 66. True statement regarding first order
kinetics is:
A. Independent of plasma
concentration
B. A constant proportion of
plasma concentration is eliminated
C. T½ increases with dose
D. Clearance decreases with
dose
Ans. B
Q 67. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for
TB suffers DVT. She is started on warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step
should be:
A. Long term heparin therapy
B. Replace warfarin with
acecoumarin
C. Switch ethambutol for
rifampin
D. Use LMW heparin
Ans. C
Q 68. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure
is:
A. Propranolol
B. Pindolol
C. Sotalol
D. Nadolol
Ans. A
Q 69. All of the following are correct about
steroids except:
A. Inhibit the release of
arachidonic acid from vessel wall through action of phospholipase A2
B. Bind plasma membrane
receptors and following internalization influence nuclear changes
C. Inhibit vascular membrane
permeability
D. Increase glucose synthesis,
glycogen deposition in liver
Ans. B
Q 70. All of the following statements are true
except:
A. PGs and leukotrienes are
derived from arachidonic acid
B. Cox I is an inducible enzyme
C. Cox
II is induced by cytokines at sites of
inflammation.
D. Leukotrienes cause smooth
muscle constriction
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is a false statement:
A. IV noradrenaline
increases systolic and diastolic BP and cause tachycardia
B. IV adrenaline
increases systolic BP, no change or increase diastolic BP and causes
tachycardia
C. IV isoproterenol
causes increase in systolic BP, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
D. Dopamine
improves renal function, increases cardiac output and systolic BP
Ans. A
Q 72. Digoxin is not indicated in:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT
Ans. C
Q 73. All of the following statements are true
about theophylline except:
A. Increase in dose is
required in cardiopulmonary disease
B. Increases cAMP
C. Increase in dose is
required in smokers
D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
Ans. A
Q 74. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:
A. Binds to A site and
inhibit attachment of t-RNA.
B. Inhibits peptidyl
transferase
C. Causes misreading of mRNA
D. Causes termination of
peptide chain elongation
Ans. A
Q 75. False statement about selegeline is:
A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
B. Does not cause cheese
reaction
C. Not useful in advanced
cases of on-off phenomenon
D. It is used in parkinsonism
Ans. A
Q 76. A patient on phenytoin for treatment of
seizures develops depression for which he is prescribed tricyclics. He now
complains of lassitude and his Hb reads 8. Next step in managing this patient
should be:
A. Chest X-ray
B. MCV should be estimated
C. GGT should be estimated
D. Bone marrow examination
Ans. B
Q 77. Which of the following drugs would be
removed by dialysis?
A. Digoxin
B. Salicylates
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Organophosphates
Ans. B
Q 78. In low doses aspirin acts on:
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2
C. PGI2
D. Lipoxygenase
Ans. B
Q 79. True statement about ticlopidine is:
A. Directly
interacts with platelet membrane
B. Onset of action
is delayed
C. Inhibits
platelet gp IIb/IIIa receptors
D. Has fibrinolytic
activity
Ans. A
Q 80. All of the following statements about
methotrexate are true except:
A. Folinic acid enhances the
action of methotrexate
B. Methotrexate inhibit
dehydrofolate reductase
C. Non proliferative cells
are resistant to metho- trexate
D. Methotrexate is used in
treatment of psoriasis
Ans. A
Q 81. Drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a
molecule:
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. Pencillamine
D. Desferioxamine
Ans. A
Forensic
Medicine
Q 82. Gettler’s test is done for death by:
A. Drowning B. Hanging
C. Bums D. Phophorus poisoning
Ans. A
Q 83. Feature indicative of antimortem drowning
is:
A. Cutis anserina
B. Rigor mortis
C. Washer woman’s feet
D. Grass and weeds grasped in
the hand
Ans. D
Q 84. A boy has 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary
teeth. His age is likely to be:
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years
Ans. C
Q 85. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all
over his body. This may be effect of:
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Cannabis
D. Benzodiazepines
Ans. A
Q 86. A person comes in contact with other. This
is called:
A. Locard principle
B. Quetlet’s rule
C. Petty’s principle
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 87. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires
urgent cranial decompression; Doctor should:
A. Operate without formal
consent
B. Take police consent
C. Wait for relatives to take
consent
D. Take magistrate consent
Ans. A
Q 88. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a
private doctor and he is successfully cured. Doctor should:
A. Inform police
B. Not required to inform
police
C. Report to magistrate
D. Refer to a psychiatrist
Ans. B
Preventive
and Social Medicine
Q 89. All are true about DOTS except:
A. Continuation phase drugs
are given in a multi- blister combipack
B. Medication is to be taken
in presence of a health worker
C. Alternate day treatment
D. Improves compliance
Ans. C
Q 90. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar
presents with active tuberculosis. She delivers baby. All of the following are
indicated except:
A. Administer INH to the baby
B. Withhold breastfeeding
C. Give ATT to mother for 2
years
D. Ask mother to ensure
proper disposal of sputum
Ans. B
Q 91. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC
to be called a PHC-R, requisite is:
A. Microscopy
B. Microscopy plus radiology
C. Radiology
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 92. A person has received complete immunization
against tetanus 10 years ago, now he presents with a clean wound without any
lacerations from an injury sustained 3 hours ago. He should now be given:
A. Full course of tetanus
toxoid
B. Single dose of tetanus
toxoid
C. Human tetanus globulin
D. Human tetanus globulin and
single dose of toxoid
Ans. B
Q 93. The false statement regarding tetanus
is:
A. Five doses of immunisation
provide life long immunity
B. TT affords no protection
in the present injury
C. TIG is useful in lacerated
wound
D. TT and Ig both may be given in suspected tetanus
Ans. A
Q 94. A certain community has 100 children out of
whom 28 are immunised against measles. 2 of them acquired measles
simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the efficacy of the
vaccine to be 100%. What is the secondary attack rate?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 21.5%
Ans. C
Q 95. A community has a population of 10,000 and a
birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5 maternal deaths were reported in the current year.
The MMR is:
A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5
Ans. B
Q 96. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same
day. All weigh 2.8 kg each. Calculate the standard deviation:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28
Ans. A
Q 97. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies
weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5
represent:
A. Geometric average
B. Arithmetic average
C. Median
D. Mode
Ans. C
Q 98. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm
carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35 gms fat in his diet. The most applicable
statement here is:
A. His total calorie intake
is 3000 kcal
B. The proportion of
proteins, fats and carbohydrates is correct and in accordance with a balanced
diet
C. He has a negative nitrogen
balance
D. 30% of his total energy
intake is derived from fat
Ans. B
Q 99. A country has a population of 1000 million;
birth rate is 23 and death rate is 6. In which phase of the demographic cycle
does this country lie:
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding
C. Plateau
D. Declining
Ans. B
Q 100. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was
given to 6000; it was not given to the remainder. 3 out of the first
group got lung cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer. The
best conclusion is:
A. Beta carotene and lung
cancer have no relation to one another
B. The p value is not
significant
C. The study is not designed
properly
D. Beta carotene is associated
with lung cancer
Ans. A
Q 101. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a
population of:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
Ans. C
Q 102. In a community, an increase in new cases
denotes:
A. Increase in incidence rate
B. Increase in prevalence
rate
C. Decrease in incidence rate
D. Decrease in prevalence
rate
Ans. A
Q 103. More false positive cases on screening in a
community signify that the disease has:
A. High prevalence
B. High sensitivity
C. Low prevalence
D. Low sensitivity
Ans. C
Q 104. The same screening test is applied to two
communities X and Y; Y shows more false +ve cases as compared to X. The
possibility is:
A. High sensitivity
B. High specificity
C. Y community has high
prevalence
D. Y community has low
prevalence
Ans. C
Q 105. ELISA is performed on a population with low
prevalence of hepatitis B. What would be the result of performing double
screening ELISA tests?
A. Increased sensitivity and
positive predictive value
B. Increased sensitivity and
negative predictive value
C. Increased specificity and
positive predictive value
D. Increased specificity and
negative predictive value
Ans. C
Q 106. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum
lipid levels were tested both before and after its use. Which test is best
suited for the statistical analysis of the result:
A. Paired t-test
B. Student’s test
C. Chi square test
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 107. Type 1 sampling error is classified as:
A. Alpha error
B. Beta error
C. Gamma error
D. Delta error
Ans. A
Q 108. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
A. Proportional mortality
rate
B. Specific mortality rate
C. Case fatality ratio
D. Amount of GDP spent on
control of disease
Ans. C
Q 109. Which of the following diseases needs not
to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bladder cancer
D. Precancerous lesion
Ans. A
Q 110. Best test to detect iron deficiency in
community is:
A. Serum transferrin
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum iron
D. Hemoglobin
Ans. B
Q 111. Which of the following is not a complete
sterilization agent:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite
Ans. B
Q 112. Seasonal trend is due to:
A. Vector variation
B. Environmental
factors
C. Change in herd
immunity
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Medicine
Q 113. False statement about type I respiratory
failure is:
A. Decreased PaO2
B. Decreased PaCO2
C. Normal PaCO2
D. Normal A-a gradient
Ans. D
Q 114. A 60 years old man presents with nonproductive
cough for 4 weeks. He has grade III clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe
on X-ray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
A. Small cell ca
B. Non-small cell ca
C. Fungal infection
D. Tuberculosis
Ans. B
Q 115. A 60 years old man is suspected of having
bronchogenic ca. TB has been
ruled out in this patient. What should be the next investigation:
A. CT guided FNAC
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C. Sputum cytology
D. X-ray chest
Ans. B
Q 116. A man presents with fever, weight loss and
cough. Mantoux reads an induration of 17 × 19 mm; sputum cytology is negative
for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Pneumonia
Ans. A
Q 117. Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is
observed, which of these is not a cause:
A. High altitude
B. Cocaine overdose
C. Post cardiopulmonary
bypass
D. Bilateral renal artery
stenosis
Ans. D
Q 118. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3.
Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic
acidosis
C. Respiratory and metabolic
acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. C
Q 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator shows
decreased pCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans. C
Q 120. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best
modality of treatment is:
A. IV fluids
B. Digoxin
C. Diuretics
D. Vasodilators
Ans. A
Q 121. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is found to
have arrhythmias and a systolic murmur associated with midsystolic clicks.
Which investigation would you use:
A. Electrophysiological
testing
B. CT scan
C. Echocardiography
D. Angiography
Ans. C
Q 122. A patient complains of intermittent
claudication, dizziness and headache. Most likely cardiac lesion is:
A. TOF
B. ASD
C. PDA
D. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. D
Q 123. All of the following are true about ASD
except:
A. Right atrial hypertrophy
B. Left atrial hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular
hypertrophy
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Ans. B
Q 124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually
embolise to:
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Brain
Ans. A
Q 125. A woman has septic abortion done, vegetation
on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
A. Septic infarcts to lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen infarcts
D. Emboli to brain
Ans. A
Q 126. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. RV infarct
Ans. C
Q 127. A patient presents with engorged neck veins,
BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate of 100/min following blunt trauma to the chest.
Diagnosis is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hemothorax
Ans. C
Q 128. Which of the following is not seen on
hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
D. HbS
Ans. A
Q 129. False statement regarding DIC is:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Decreased fibrinogen
C. Decreased PTT
D. Increased PT
Ans. C
Q 130. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except:
A. Henoch Schonlein purpura
B. TTP
C. DIC
D. Leukemia
Ans. A
Q 131. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of
2000/cmm, has a normal different count except for having 6% blasts,
platelets are reduced to 80,000/cmm; moderate splenomegaly is present. Possible
diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Hemolysis
D. lTP
Ans. A
Q 132. A patient being investigated for anemia has a
dry marrow tap; peripheral smear reveals tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Polycythemia rubra vera
Ans. C
Q 133. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera is:
A. Sarcoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Cerebellar
haemangioblastoma
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 134. A young patient presents with jaundice. Total
bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct is 9.6 mg%, alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units.
Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Chronic active hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
Ans. D
Q 135. A young male with gallbladder stones shows the
following test results: serum bilirubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive
for urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatocellular jaundice
D. Protoporphyria
Ans. A
Q 136. An 18 years old male presents with massive
hematemesis. He has history of fever for the past 14 days for which he was
managed with drugs. Moderate splenomegaly is present. Diagnosis is:
A. NSAID induced duodenal
ulcer
B. Drug induced gastritis
C. Esophageal varices
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 137. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Likely source is:
A. Kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
Ans. A
Q 138. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days
after an attack of URTI. Most likely renal pathology is:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous
glomerulonephritis
Ans. C
Q 139. A patient’s CSF report reads as follows:
sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%, chloride
550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The picture is suggestive of:
A. Fungal meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Leukemia
Ans. C
Q 140. Lacunar infarcts are caused by:
A. Lipohyalinosis of
penetrating arteries
B. Middle carotid artery
involvement
C. Emboli to anterior
circulation
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 141. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents with
complaints of slowness of movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity
and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Multi-infarct dementia
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinsonism
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 142. All of the following may be seen in Wilson’s
disease except:
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Dysphagia
D. Chorea
Ans. B
Q 143. An elderly man presents with features of
dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history of frequent falls.
Likely diagnosis is:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Progressive supranuclear
gaze palsy
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. None of the above.
Ans. B
Q 144. A chromosomal anomaly associated with
Alzheimer’s dementia is:
A. Trisomy 18
B. Patau syndrome
C. Trisomy 21
D. Turner syndrome
Ans. C
Q 145. All are true about Huntington’s
disease, except:
A. Chorea
B. Depression, apathy
C. Progressive dementia
D. Cog-wheel rigidity
Ans. D
Q 146. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of
erection; he has low testosterone and high prolactin level in blood. What is
the likely diagnosis:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans. A
Q 147. A patient meets with an accident with
resultant transection of the pituitary stalk. What will not occur:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A
Q 148. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens
with emotional stress. She has two children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis
is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Ans. C
Q 149. A female aged 30 years, presents with episodic
throbbing headache for past 4 years with nausea and vomiting. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Angle closure glaucoma
D. Temporal arteritis
Ans. A
Q 150. A woman complains of headache associated with
paresthesias of the right upper and lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
Ans. C
Q 151. All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except:
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Medullary ca thyroid
D. Parathyroid adenoma
Ans. A
Q 152. A patient with Cushingoid features presents
with hemoptysis. He shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test. Most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
D. Pituitary microadenoma
Ans. C
Q 153. An obese patient presented in casualty in an
unconscious state. His blood sugar measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for
sugar and ketones. Drug most useful in management is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Troglitazone
C. Insulin
D. Chlorpropamide
Ans. C
Q 154. Which of the following is not
associated with thymoma:
A. Red cell aplasia
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
D. Compression of the
superior mediastinum
Ans. C
Q 155. A young basketball player with height 188 cm
and arm span 197 cm has a diastolic murmur best heard in second right
intercostal space. Likely cause of murmur is:
A. AS
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR
D. MR
Ans. C
Q 156. A patient presents with arthritis,
hyperpigmen- tation of skin and hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting
tumor of lung
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Rheumatoid arthrits
Ans. A
Q 157. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement
regarding thymectomy is:
A. Should be done in all
cases
B. Should be done in cases
with ocular involvement only
C. Not required if controlled
by medical management
D. Should be done only in
cases that are associated with thymoma
Ans. A
Q 158. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is:
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Candida
C. Mucormycosis
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
Ans. B
Q 159. The following group of tests should be done to
optimise graft uptake in bone marrow transplant:
A. Blood grouping
B. HLA matching
C. Culture for infection
D. All
of the above
Ans. B
Q 160. True statement about neurocysticercosis
is:
A. Seizures due to
neurocysticercosis are resistant to antiepileptic drugs
B. Albendazole is superior to
praziquantel in the treatment of above condition
C. Common presentation is 6th
cranial nerve palsy and hemiparesis
D. Steroids are used in the
management of hydrocephalus
Ans. B
Q 161. All of the following are true regarding
a patient with acid peptic disease except:
A. Misoprostol is the drug of
choice in patients on NSAIDs
B. DU is preventable by the
use of single night-time H2 blockers
C. Omeprazole may help ulcers
refractory to H2 blockers
D. Misoprostol is DOC in
pregnant patients
Ans. D
Q 162. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal
flexure invading renal papillae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True
statement is:
A. II E stage
B. III E stage
C. IV E stage
D. Staging cannot be done
until bone marrow examination is performed
Ans. C
Q 163. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He
has sudden abnormal flinging movements in right upper and lower limbs. Most
likely site of hemorrahge is:
A. Substantia nigra
B. Caudate nuclei
C. Pons
D. Subthalamic nuclei
Ans. D
Q 164. True about haemophilia A are all except:
A. PTT increased
B. PT increased
C. Clotting time is increased
D. Serum levels of factor
VIII are decreased
Ans. B
Q 165. IPPV can cause:
A. Barotrauma
B. Pleural effusion
C. Increased venous return
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 166. Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is:
A. Exudate seen in basal
cistern
B. Hydrocephalus is non
communicating
C. Calcification commonly
seen in cerebellum
D. Ventriculitis is a common
finding
Ans. A
Q 167. Vegetations on undersurface of AV valves are
found in:
A. Acute rheumatic carditis
B. Limban Sack’s endocarditis
C. Non thrombotic bacterial
endocarditis
D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
Ans. B
Q 168. Triage means:
A. Sorting out of cases on
availability of medical resources and severity of patient’s condition
B. Patients are divided into
3 groups
C. Severely injured patients
are attended first in military camps
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Pediatrics
Q 169. Which of the following is not true about
atrial septal defect:
A. There is a
defect in region of fossa ovalis
B. Blood flow from
left atrium to right atrium
C. Increased blood
flow through lungs lead to pulmonary plethora
D. There is
splitting of first heart sound
Ans. D
Q 170. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay
white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells are seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with
extra biliary atresia
C. Neonatal hepatitis with
physiological jaundice
D. Extra biliary atresia
Ans. B
Q 171. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has
respiratory distress and froth at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Respiratory distress
syndrome
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 172. Ramu, a 8-years-old boy presents with upper GI
bleeding. On examination, he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs
of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on UGIE. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Budd Chiari syndrome
B. Non cirrhotic portal
fibrosis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Veno-occlusive disease
Ans. B
Q 173. A 5-years-old child suffering from nephrotic
syndrome is responding well to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely
finding on light microscopy:
A. No finding
B. Basement membrane
thickening
C. Hypercellular glomeruli
D. Fusion of foot processes
Ans. A
Q 174. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a
male infant is:
A. Anterior urethral valves
B. Posterior urethral valves
C. Stone
D. Stricture
Ans. B
Q 175. A 5-years-old child presents with a calculus
of size 2 cm in the upper ureter. He also complains of haematuria. USG shows no
further obstruction in the urinary tract. Treatment of choice for this patient
would be:
A. Ureterolithotomy
B. Endoscopic removal
C. ESWL
D. Observation
Ans. C
Q 176. A patient presents with LVH and pulmonary
complications. ECG shows left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. TOF
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. TAPVC
D. VSD
Ans. B
Q 177. Potts shunt is anastomosis of:
A. Right subclavian artery to
right pulmonary artery
B. Descending aorta to left
pulmonary artery
C. Left subclavian to left
pulmonary artery
D. Ascending aorta to right
pulmonary artery
Ans. B
Q 178. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal
pain, restless, irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation
reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for MI. Likely
diagnosis is:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TOF
D. Anomalous coronary artery
Ans. D
Q 179. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific
symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen.
He has hypochromic microcytic picture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has ‘a positive
family history’. Next investigation of choice is:
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. Coombs’ test
C. Liver function tests
D. Osmotic fragility test
Ans. A
Q 180. Most common cause of meningitis in children
between 6 months to 2 years of age is:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. H. influenzae
D. E. coli
Ans. C
Q 181. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis,
lytic skull lesions, ear discharge and hepatosplenomegaly. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Histiocytosis X
D. Multiple myeloma
Ans. C
Q 182. Which of the following is true
regarding cretinism:
A. Short limbs compared to
trunk
B. Proportionate shortening
C. Short limbs and short
stature
D. Short limbs and long
stature
Ans. C
Q 183. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include:
A. Deafness and facial nerve
involvement
B. Blindness and
hypothyroidism
C. Goitre and hypothyroidism
D. Multinodular goitre and
mental retardation
Ans. A
Q 184. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite child
with 46 XY karyotype presents with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme
deficiency is:
A. 21 hydroxylase
B. 17 hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 185. Treatment of Kawasaki disease in children is:
A. Oral steroids
B. IV steroids
C. IV Ig
D. Mycophenolate mefentil
Ans. C
Q 186. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a
ventilator. X-ray shows ‘white out lung’ and ABG reveals PO2 of 75. Ventilator
settings are on, FIO2 of 70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be
taken should be:
A. Increase rate to 60 per
minute
B. Increase FIO2 to 80
C. Continue ventilation with
the same settings
D. Weaning ventilator
Ans. C
DermatologY
Q 187. A man aged 50 years presents with, alopecia,
boggy scalp swelling and easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing the
diagnosis would be:
A. KOH smear
B. Culture sensitivity
C. Biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 188. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is:
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Candida
albicans
Ans. A
Q 189. A young man aged 19 years develops a painless
penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker.
Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chancroid
B. Herpes
C. Primary chancre
D. Traumatic ulcer
Ans. C
Q 190. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the
groin and prepuce. All of the following are indicated in this patient except:
A. Bathe and apply scabicidal
solution
B. Treatment should be
extended to all family members
C. Dispose all clothes by
burning
D. Start the patient on IV
antibiotics
Ans. D
Q 191. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents
with a white, non anesthetic, nonscaly, hypopigmented macule on his face. Most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba
B. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Pure neuritic leprosy
Ans. C
Q 192. A 20 years old, male patient, from jaipur
presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting. Most
likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. Chillblains
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Ans. D
Q 193. A 19 year old pregnant girl presents with
light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chloasma
B. SLE
C. Melasma
D. Melanoma
Ans. A
Q 194. A girl aged 19, presents with arthritis and a
photosensitive rash on the cheek. Likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. Chloasma
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Lyme’s disease
Ans. A
Psychiatry
Q 195. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is
admitted to the hospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize the doctor and staff,
thinks that he is in jail and complains of scorpions attacking him. He is in
altered sensorium. This condition is:
A. Acute delirium
B. Acute dementia
C. Acute schizophrenia
D. Acute paranoia
Ans. A
Q 196. A person missing from home, is found wandering
purposefully. He is well groomed, and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Dissociative fugue
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dementia
Ans. A
Q 197. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden
onset palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating for the last 10 minutes and
fears of impending death. Diagnosis is:
A. Hysteria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Panic attack
D. Generalized anxiety
disorder
Ans. C
Q 198. A lady, while driving a car meets with an
accident. She was admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she
often gets up in night and feels terrified She is afraid to sit in a car again.
The diagnosis is:
A. Panic disorder
B. Phobia
C. Conversion disorder
D. Post traumatic stress
disorder
Ans. D
Q 199. A patient present with waxy flexibility,
negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is:
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia
Ans. A
Q 200. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain
and vomiting. He also complains of some psychiatric symptoms and visual
hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Intermittent porphyria
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hysteria
Ans. A
Q 201. Basanti 27 years aged, female thinks her nose
is ugly; her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she
goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next
step would be:
A. Investigate and then
operate
B. Refer to psychiatrist
C. Reassure the patient
D. Immediate operation
Ans. B
Surgery
Q 202. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He
regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Scleroderma
D. Achalasia cardia
Ans. A
Q 203. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma
esophagus is:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Lower third
D. Gastro-esophageal
junction.
Ans. B
Q 204. What is true regarding congenital
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. More common in girls
B. Hypochloremic alkalosis
C. Heller’s myotomy is the
procedure of choice.
D. Most often manifests at
birth
Ans. B
Q 205. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer
of 2.5 cm size. Procedure of choice is:
A. Truncal vagotomy and
antrectomy
B. Truncal vagotomy and
gastrojejunostomy
C. Highly selective vagotomy
D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and
gastrojejunostomy
Ans. A
Q 206. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis
of gastrointestinal tract except:
A. Presents with a mass in
RIF
B. Barium meal shows pulled
up caecum
C. Most common site is
ileocecal junction
D. ATT is the treatment of
choice
Ans. D
Q 207. A 56 year old woman has not passed
stools for the last 14 days. X-ray shows no air/fluid levels. Probable
diagnosis is:
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Aganglionosis of the colon
C. Intestinal
pseudo-obstruction
D. Duodenal obstruction.
Ans. C
Q 208. A man aged 60 years has history of IHD and
atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Acute intestinal
obstruction
B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
C. Peritonitis
D. Appendicitis
Ans. B
Q 209. True statement regarding ‘fistula in
ano’ is:
A. Posterior fistulae have
straight tracks
B. High fistulae can be
operated with no fear of incontinence
C. High and low divisions are
made in relation to the pelvic floor
D. Intersphincteric is the
most common type
Ans. D
Q 210. In a 27 year old male most common cause of a
colovesical fistula would be:
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer colon
Ans. A
Q 211. Following trauma, a patient presents with a
drop of blood at the tip of urinary meatus. He complains of inability to pass
urine. Next step should be:
A. IVP should be done
B. MCU should be done
C. Catheterize, drain bladder
and remove the catheter thereafter
D. Catheterize, drain bladder
and retain the catheter thereafter
Ans. D
Q 212. Chandu, a 45 years male shows calcification on
the right side of his abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view the calcification
is seen to overlie the spine. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gallstones
B. Calcified mesenteric nodes
C. Renal stones
D. Calcified rib
Ans. C
Q 213. Ca
prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because:
A. Valveless communication
exist with Batson’s prevertebral plexus
B. Via drainage to sacral
lymph node
C. Of direct spread
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q 214. Following sexual intercourse, a person
develops pain in the left testes that does not get relieved on elevation
of scrotum. Diagnosis is:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Torsion testis
C. Fournier’s gangrene
D. Tumor testes
Ans. B
Q 215. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most
likely to be:
A. Germ cell tumor
B. Sertoli cell tumor
C. Teratocarcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Ans. D
Q 216. A patient presents with bilateral proptosis,
heat intolerance and palpitations. Most unlikely diagnosis here would be:
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Diffuse thyroid igoitre
D. Reidel’s thyroiditis
Ans. D
Q 217. A patient with long standing multinodular
goitre develops hoarseness of voice. Also, the swelling undergoes sudden
increase in size. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Follicular ca
B. Papillary ca
C. Medullary ca
D. Anaplastic ca
Ans. A
Q 218. A patient presents with swelling in the neck
following a thyroidectomy. What is the most likely resulting complication:
A. Respiratory obstruction
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
palsy
C. Hypovolemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans. A
Q 219. A patient on the same evening following
thyroidectomy presents with a swelling in the neck and difficulty in breathing.
Next management would be:
A. Open sutures immediately
B. Intubate oro-tracheally
C. Wait and watch
D. Administer oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 220. Patient presents with neck swelling and
respiratory distress few hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Next management
would be:
A. Open immediately
B. Tracheostomy
C. Wait and watch
D. Oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 221. A patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following
which he develops perioral tingling. Blood Ca2+ is 8.9 mEq. Next step is:
A. Vitamin D orally
B. Oral Ca2+ and vitamin D
C. Intravenous calcium
gluconate and serial monitoring
D. Wait for Ca2+ to decrease to < 7.0 before taking further
action
Ans. C
Q 222. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the
emergency in a state of shock. He is not responding to IV crystalloids.
Next step in his management would be:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Albumin transfusion
D. Abdominal compression
Ans. A
Q 223. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of
road- traffic accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is:
A. Spleen
B. Mesentery
C. Kidney
D. Rectum
Ans. A
Q 224. A patient is brought to the emergency as a
case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. His
BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is present. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Intra-abdominal bleed
Ans. D
Q 225. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
A. Marjolin’s
B. Rodent
C. Melanoma
D. Curling’s
Ans. A
Q 226. An elderly man presents with history of
abdominal pain. He is found to have a fusiform dilatation of the descending
aorta. Likely cause is:
A. Trauma
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Syphilitic aortitis
Ans. B
Q 227. All of the following are correct regarding AV
fistula except:
A. Arterialization of the
veins
B. Proximal compression
causes increase in heart rate
C. Overgrowth of a limb
D. Causes LV enlargement and
LV failure
Ans. B
Q 228. All of the following are correct about
axillary vein thrombosis except:
A. May be caused by a
cervical rib
B. Treated with IV
anticoagulant
C. Embolectomy is done in all
cases
D. May occur following
excessive exercise
Ans. C
Q 229. A 80 year old patient presents with a midline
tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous.
Treatment of choice is:
A. Hemimandibulectomy
B. Commando operation
C. Segmental mandiblectbmy
D. Marginal mandibulectomy
Ans. C
Q 230. Most common cause of unilateral parotid
swelling in a 27 year old male is:
A. Warthin’s tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Haemangioma
Ans. B
Q 231. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and
mobile lump in the breast. Next investigation is:
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy
Ans. A
Q 232. A 45 years old man presents with progressive
cervical lymph nodes enlargement since 3 month. Most diagnostic investigation
is:
A. X-ray soft tissue
B. FNAC
C. Lymph node biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 233. All of the following are true about
fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except:
A. Equal incidence in males
and females
B. Better prognosis than HCC
C. AFP levels always greater
than > 1000
D. Occur in younger
individuals
Ans. C
Q 234. A child presents with an expansible swelling
on medial side of the nose. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Teratoma
B. Meningocele
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Lipoma
Ans. B
Orthopaedics
Q 235. Following anterior dislocation of the
shoulder, a patient develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation
over the lateral aspect fore arm. Nerve injured is:
A. Radial nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
Ans. B
Q 236. Babloo a 10 years old boy presents with
fracture of humerus. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likely
condition is:
A. Unicameral bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ans. A
Q 237. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3
years back. He now presents with valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias
over the medial border of the hand. The injury is likely to have been:
A. Supracondylar fracture
humerus
B. Lateral condyle fracture
humerus
C. Medial condyle fracture
humerus
D. Posterior dislocation of
the humerus
Ans. B
Q 238. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall. Her
lower limb is abducted and externally rotated. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Neck of femur fracture
B. Intertrochanteric femur
fracture
C. Posterior dislocation of
hip
D. Anterior dislocation of
hip
Ans. D
Q 239. Triple arthrodesis involves:
A. Calcaneocuboid,
talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid
and talonavicular
C. Ankle joint,
calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 240. Babu a 19 years old male has a small
circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma
Ans. D
Q 241. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:
A. Femur, upper end
B. Femur, lower end
C. Tibia, upper end
D. Tibia, lower end
Ans. B
Q 242. Involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the
carpometacarpal joint of base of thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Pseudogout
Ans. B
Q 243. The pivot test is for:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate
ligament
C. Medial meniscus
D. Lateral meniscus
Ans. A
Q 244. Iliotibial band contracture following polio is likely to
result in:
A. Extension at hip
B. Extension at
knee
C. Flexion at hip
and knee
D. Extension at hip
and knee
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 245. All of the following agents can be given for
induction of anaesthesia in children except:
A. Halothane
B. Servoflurane
C. Morphine
D. Nitrous oxide
Ans. C
Q 246. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure
is:
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires
general anaesthesia for surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Isoflurane
Ans. D
Q 248. All of the following are true except:
A. Halothane is good as an
analgesic agent
B. Halothane sensitises the
heart to action of catacholamines
C. Halothane relaxes brochi
& is preferred as anaesthetics
D. Halothane may cause liver
cell necrosis
Ans. A
Ophthalmology
Q 249. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP= 25, normal
anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye.
Diagnosis is:
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Acute angle closure
glaucoma
C. Acute open angle glaucoma
D. Senile cataract
Ans. A
Q 250. A woman complains of coloured haloes around
lights in the evening, with nausea and vomiting, IOP is normal. Diagnosis is:
A. Incipient stage, glaucoma
open angle
B. Prodromal stage, closed
angle glaucoma
C. Migraine
D. Raised ICT
Ans. B
Q 251. Babloo, a 5 years old child, presents with
large cornea, lacrimation and photophobia. Diagnosis is:
A. Megalocornea
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Congenital cataract
D. Anterior uveitis
Ans. B
Q 252. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus causes all except:
A. Nummular keratitis
B. Vitreal haemorrhage
C. Uveitis
D. Cranial nerve palsies
Ans. B
Q 253. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Myaesthenia gravis
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
Ans. A
Q 254. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards and
patient is unable to look up or medially. Likely nerve involved is:
A. Trochlear
B. Trigeminal
C. Oculomotor
D. Abducent
Ans. C
Q 255. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion
of:
A. Right frontal lobe
B. Right occipital lobe
C. Left occipital lobe
D. Left frontal lobe
Ans. A
Q 256. An elderly male with heart disease presents
with sudden loss of vision in one eye. Examination reveals cherry red spot.
Diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein
occlusion
B. Central retinal artery
occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic
neuritis
Ans. B
Q 257. Which of following, is not a feature in
diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination:
A. Microaneurysms
B. Retinal hemorrhages
C. Arteriolar dilatation
D. Neovascularisation
Ans. C
Q 258. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Heteronymous hemianopia
D. Centrocecal scotoma
Ans. D
Q 259. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked
response retinogram
Ans. C
Q 260. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination
is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Leber’s hereditary optic
neuropathy
C. Post papilledema optic
neuritis
D. Traumatic injury to the
optic nerve
Ans. D
ENT
Q 261. A 3 months old child presents with
intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Respiratory obstruction
D. Foreign body aspiration
Ans. B
Q 262. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy
following head trauma with fracture of the mastoid. Best intervention here is:
A. Immediate decompression
B. Wait and watch
C. Facial sling
D. Steroids
Ans. A
Q 263. A case of Bell’s palsy on steroids shows no
improvement after 2 weeks. The next step in management should be:
A. Vasodilators and ACTH
B. Physiotherapy and
electrical stimulation
C. Increase steroid dosage
D. Electrophysiological nerve
testing
Ans. D
Q 264. Chandu a 15 years aged boy presents with
unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek and epistaxis. Likely diagnosis
is:
A. Nasopharyngeal ca
B. Angiofibroma
C. Inverted papilloma
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 265. A 40 years old diabetic presents with blackish
nasal discharge and a mass in the nose. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Mucormycosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Rhinosporiodosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Ans. A
Q 266. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following
is:
A. Supraglortic ca
B. Ca
glottis
C. Ca
nasopharynx
D. Subglottic ca
Ans. C
Obstetrics
& Gynaecology
Q 267. Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is
associated with:
A. Ovarian agenesis
B. Absent fallopian tube
C. Vaginal atresia
D. Bicornuate uterus
Ans. C
Q 268. A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with
features of hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans. B
Q 269. A girl presents with primary amenorrhea, grade
V thelarche, grade II pubarche, no axillary hair. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Testicular feminization
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. A
Q 270. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks
duration and lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:
A. USG abdomen
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Shielded X-ray
Ans. A
Q 271. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months
duration lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ruptured ecotopic
pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Septic abortion
Ans. B
Q 272. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea
presents with mass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
A. Ovarian cyst
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Complete abortion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 273. A 30 years old female, presents to the
emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is
palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Torsion of subserous
fibroid
B. Torsion of ovarian cyst
C. Rupture of ectopic
pregnancy
D. Rupture of ovarian cyst
Ans. B
Q 274. Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history
of 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in
pouch of Douglas. Aspiration yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most
probable diagnosis is:
A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. Red degeneration of fibroid
D. Pelvic abscess
Ans. B
Q 275. A patient complains of post coital bleed. No
growth is seen on per speculum examination. Next step should be:
A. Colposcopic biopsy
B. Conization
C. Pap smear
D. Culdoscopy
Ans. A
Q 276. A 50 years old woman presents with post coital
bleeding. A visible growth on cervix is detected on per speculum examination.
Next investigation is:
A. Punch biopsy
B. Colposcopic biopsy
C. Pap smear
D. Cone biopsy
Ans. A
Q 277. Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap
smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be:
A. Colposcopy
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Conization
D. Wartheim’s hysterectomy
Ans. D
Q 278. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered
sensorium and is having hiccups. The likely cause is:
A. Septicemia
B. Uremia
C. Raised ICT
D. Intestinal obstruction
Ans. B
Q 279. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule
breached, ascites positive for malignant cells. Stage is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Ans. B
Q 280. The true regarding adenomyosis is:
A. More common in nullipara
B. Progestins are the agents
of choice for medical management
C. Presents with menorrhagia,
dysmenorrhoea, and an enlarged uterus
D. More common in young women
Ans. C
Q 281. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy
reveals proliferative changes. Which hormone should be preferred?
A. MDPA
B. Desogestrel
C. Norethisterone
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 282. A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million
sperms/ml, 60 % normal morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no
agglutination is seen. Diagnosis is:
A. Azoospermia
B. Aspermia
C. Oligospermia
D. Normospermia
Ans. C
Q 283. Primary peritonitis is more common in females
because:
A. Ostia of fallopian tubes
communicate with abdominal cavity
B. Peritoneum overlies the
uterus
C. Rupture of functional
ovarian cysts
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
Q 284. False statement regarding HCG is:
A. It is secreted by
cytotrophoblasts
B. It acts on same receptor
as LH does
C. It has luteotrophic action
D. It is a glycoprotein
Ans. A
Q 285. All of the following are false except:
A. Oxytocin
sensitivity increased during delivery
B. Prostaglandins
should be given during 2nd trimester
C. Ergot
derivatives relax lower segment of uterus
D. Oxytocin is best
for induction of labour in IUD
Ans. A
Q 286. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Anencephaly
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 287. All of the following are indications for
termination of pregnancy in APH patient except:
A. 37 weeks
B. IUD
C. Transverse lie
D. Continous bleeding
Ans. C
Q 288. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with
bleeding per vagina. Invetigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The
treatment is:
A. Immediate CS
B. Blood transfusion
C. Conservative
D. Medical induction of
labour
Ans. A
Q 289. A pregnant woman presents with red
degeneration of fibroid. Management is:
A. Myomectomy
B. Conservative
C. Hysterectomy
D. Termination of pregnancy
Ans. B
Q 290. An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant
woman. Management is:
A. Immediate removal by laprotomy
B. Wait and watch
C. Removal by laparotomy in
second trimester
D. Remove at time of
caesarean section
Ans. C
Q 291. Most useful investigation in the first
trimester to identify risk of fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic
mother is:
A. Glycosylated Hb
B. Ultrasound
C. MS-AFP
D. Amniocentesis
Ans. A
Q 292. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea
therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding
this, except:
A. Oral hypoglycaemics cause
PIH
B. Insulin does not cross placenta
C. Oral hypoglycaemics cross
placenta and deplete fetal insulin
D. During pregnancy insulin
requirement increases and cannot be met with sulphonylureas
Ans. A
Q 293. Condition associated with lack of a single
pelvic ala is:
A. Robert’s pelvis
B. Naegele’s pelvis
C. Rachitic pelvis
D. Osteomalacia pelvis
Ans. B
Q 294. Consequence of maternal use of cocaine is:
A. Hydrops fetalis
B. Sacral agenesis
C. Cerebral infarction
D. Hypertrichosis
Ans. C
Q 295. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/amniocentesis
is not likely to detect:
A. Tay Sachs’ disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Duchenne muscular
dystrophy
Ans. A
Q 296. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic
babies, risk of having a third one is:
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Ans. B
Radiology
Q 297. A neonate presents with respiratory distress,
contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic airfilled lesions in the
chest. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital diaphragmatic
hernia
B. Congenital lung cysts
C. Pneumonia
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 298. Ground glass appearance is not seen in:
A. Hyaline membrane disease
B. Pneumonia
C. Left to right shunt
D. Obstructive TAPVC
Ans. C
Q 299. Drug that is radioprotective:
A. Paclitaxel
B. Vincristine
C. Amifostine
D. Etoposide
Ans. C
Q 300. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following
is:
A. Ca kidney
B. Ca
colon
C. Ca
pancreas
D. Ca cervix
Ans. D
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