anatomy
Q 1. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic
nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the
patient to:
A. Shrug the shoulders.
B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side.
C. Touch the opposite shoulder.
D. Lift a heavy object from the ground.
Ans. B
Q 2. The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and
arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as:
A. Choroid plexus.
B. Tuberal plexus.
C. Pampiniform plexus.
D. Pectiniform septum.
Ans. C
Q 3. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look
towards the right or left:
A. Atlanto-occipital joint.
B. Atlanto-axial joint.
C. C2-C3 joint.
D. C3-C4 joint.
Ans. B
Q 4. The first costochondral joint is a:
A. Fibrous joint.
B. Synovial joint.
C. Syndesmosis.
D. Synchondrosis.
Ans. D
Q 5. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the
following features except:
A. It is devoid of perichondrium.
B. It has a rich nerve supply.
C. It is avascular.
D. It lacks the capacity to regenerate.
Ans. B
Q 6. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid
organs except:
A. Lymph nodes.
B. Spleen.
C. Thymus.
D. Subepithelial
collections of lymphocytes.
Ans. C
Q 7. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following
nerves are liable to injury, except:
A. Lateral cutaneus nerve of thigh.
B. Ilioinguinal nerve.
C. Subcostal
nerve.
D. Iliohypogastric nerve.
Ans. A
Q 8. Infection/inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged
superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
A. Isthmus of uterine tube.
B. Inferior port of anal canal.
C. Big toe.
D. Penile urethra.
Ans. D
Q 9. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung
due to all of the following features except:
A. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.
B. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left
bronchus.
C. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.
D. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the
principal bronchus.
Ans. A
Physiology
Q 10. One intern calculated the concentration of O2 in blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering
atmospheric pressure as 760 mmHg, how much approximately O2 tension could have been in the blood?
A. 40 mmHg.
B. 60 mmHg.
C. 80 mmHg.
D. 100 mmHg.
Ans. D
Q 11. To which of the following family of chemical mediators of
inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?
A. Kinin system.
B. Cytokines.
C. Chemokines.
D. Arachidonic acid metabolites.
Ans. D
Q 12. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:
A. Glycine.
B. Acetylcholine.
C. Aspartate.
D. Glutamate.
Ans. D
Q 13. During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes
place at the:
A. Beginning of systole.
B. End of isovolumetric contraction.
C. End of diastole.
C. End of diastasis.
Ans. B
Q 14. The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema,
because:
A. The plasma oncotic pressure is high.
B. There is renal compensation.
C. Increased cardiac output.
D. There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure.
Ans. D
Q 15. The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the
following, except:
A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units.
B. Increasing the number of motor units activated.
C. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor
neurons.
D. Recruiting larger motor units.
Ans. C
Q 16. During acclimatization to high altitude all of the following take
place, except:
A. Increase in minute ventilation.
B. Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors.
C. Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia.
D. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left.
Ans. D
Q 17. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of:
A. Neuromusculer junction.
B. Sarcolemmal proteins.
C. Muscle contractile proteins.
D. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness.
Ans. B
Q 18. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
A. Inhibin.
B. Luteinising hormone.
C. Follicle stimulating hormone.
D. Melatonin.
Ans. C
Q 19. Before the onset of puberty the GnRH neurons are under the
inhibitory control of:
A. Glycine.
B. Glutamate.
C. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA).
D. Beta-endorphin.
Ans. C
Q 20. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to
oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is:
A. Desmolase.
B. Isomerase.
C. Aromatase.
D. Hydroxylase.
Ans. C
Q 21. Which of the following is a membrane-bound enzyme that catalyzes
the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP ?
A. Tyrosine kinase.
B. Polymerase.
C. ATP synthase.
D. Adenlylate cyclase.
Ans. D
Q 22. A small Ca2+ binding protein
that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to
changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as:
A. Cycline.
B. Calmodulin.
C. Collagen.
D. Kinesin.
Ans. B
Q 23. The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have:
A. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
B. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
C. A disulphide loop.
D. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids.
Ans. B
Q 24. In which of the following forms the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is
circulated in plasma?
A. Bound to neurophysin-I.
B. Bound to neurophysin-II.
C. Bound to plasma albumin.
D. Free form.
Ans. D
Q 25. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base
deficit /access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave
him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood
based on PCO2. Which
of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood?
A. Red ford nomogram.
B. DuBio’s nomogram.
C. Goldman constant field equation.
D. Siggaard-Andersen nomogram.
Ans. D
Biochemistry
Q 26. The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is:
A. Laminin.
B. Fibronectin.
C. Collagen type 4.
D. Heparan sulphate.
Ans. A
Q 27. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
A. AUG codon.
B. UAA codon.
C. UAG codon.
D. UGA codon.
Ans. A
Q 28. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single
stranded RNA template molecule is known as:
A. DNA polymerase.
B. RNA polymerase.
C. Reverse transcriptase.
D. Phosphokinase.
Ans. C
Q 29. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the
mature mRNA, is known as:
A. Intron.
B. Exon.
C. Plasmid.
D. TATA box.
Ans. A
Q 30. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow
obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his
blood?
A. Chylomicrons.
B. VLDL.
C. LDL.
D HDL.
Ans. B
Q 31. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver
less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following
metabolic changes are observed in this disorder, except:
A. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is higher than normal.
B. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is lower
than normal.
C. Less pyruvate is formed.
D. Less ATP is generated.
Ans. B
Q 32. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:
A. DNA polymerase II.
B. DNA polymerase I.
C. DNA exonuclease.
D. DNA ligase.
Ans. C
Q 33. RNA polymerase does not require:
A. Template (ds DNA).
B. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP).
C. Divalent metal ions (Mn2+, Mg2+).
D. Primer.
Ans. D
Q 34. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques, except:
A. Mass spectroscopy.
B. RIA.
C. ELISA.
D. Sequencing of nucleic acid.
Ans. C
Q 35. Alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of:
A. Primary structure.
B. Secondary structure.
C. Tertiary structure.
D. Quaternary structure.
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of
Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum ?
A. Inositol triphosphate.
B. Parathyroid hormone.
C. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol.
D. Diacyl glycerol.
Ans. A
Q 37. Which of the following elements is known to
influence the body’s ability to handle oxidative stress?
A. Calcium.
B. Iron.
C. Potassium.
D. Selenium.
Ans. D
Q 38. In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine
kinase-1 increases?
A. Myocardial ischemia.
B. Brain ischemia.
C. Kidney damage.
D. Electrical cardioversion.
Ans. B
Q 39. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently
linked to:
A. Clathrin.
B. Pepsin.
C. Laminin.
D. Ubiquitin
Ans. D
Q 40. Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for
valine in hemoglobin?
A. Isoleucine.
B. Glutamic acid.
C. Phenylalanine.
D. Lysine.
Ans. A
Q 41. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding
of other proteins?
A. Proteases.
B. Proteosomes.
C. Templates.
D. Chaperone.
Ans. D
Q 42. Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid
sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved
parameter in these two proteins?
A. Quaternary structure.
B. Tertiary structure.
C. Amino acid sequence.
D. Loop and turn segments.
Ans. C
Microbiology
Q 43. Which of the following statements is true about hapten?
A. It induces brisk immune response.
B. It needs carrier to induce immune response.
C. It is a T-independent antigen.
D. It has no association with MHC.
Ans. B
Q 44. Regarding gas gangrene, one of the following is correct:
A. It is due to Clostridium botulinum infection.
B. Clostridial species are gram-negative spore forming anaerobes.
C. The clinical features are due to the release of protein
endotoxin.
D. Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments.
Ans. D
Q 45. The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:
A. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect.
B. Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an
adjuvant effect.
C. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its
immunogenicity.
D. Presence of H. influenza type B component increases its
immunogenicity.
Ans. C
Q 46. A 20 year-old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool
sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.
coli is likely to be the causative agent:
A. O157 : H7.
B. O159 : H7.
C. O107 : H7.
D. O55 : H7.
Ans. A
Q 47. Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a
two-year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-Iactamase
producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial
choice in such a situation is:
A. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination.
B. Ciprofloxacin.
C. Third-generation cephalosporin.
D. Vancomycin.
Ans. C
Q 48. A 30 year-old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with
fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram-positive small to medium
coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount
from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:
A. Listeria monocytogenes.
B. Corynebacterium sp.
C. Enterococcus sp.
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.
Ans. A
Q 49. The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial
meningitis is:
A. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
B. Neisseria meningitidis.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae.
Ans. D
Q 50. In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are
implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism, except:
A. Vibrio cholerae.
B. Shigella sp.
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
Ans. C
Q 51. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure.
The most likely aetiological agent is:
A. Hepatitis B virus.
B. Hepatitis C virus.
C. Hepatitis E virus.
D. Hepatitis A virus.
Ans. C
Q 52. All of the following clinical features are associated with
Enteroviruses, except:
A. Myocarditis.
B. Pleurodynia.
C. Herpangina.
D. Hemorrhagic fever.
Ans. D
Q 53. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?
A. Yellow fever is endemic in India.
B. Dengue virus has only one serotype.
C. Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks.
D. Mosquito of Culex vishnui-complex is the vector of Dengue
fever.
Ans. C
Q 54. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be
established by all of the following tests, except:
A. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum
specimen.
B. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immuno-fluorescence
assay in nasopharyngeal washings.
C. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture.
D. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) antibodies
in a single serum specimen.
Ans. D
Q 55. All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus, except:
A. It is transmitted by feco-oral route.
B. Asymptomatic infections are common in children.
C. There is a single serotype causing infection.
D. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity.
Ans. C
Q 56. A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and
delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth
and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion one year
back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of b-haemolytic
colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram
positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae.
C. Peptostreptococci.
D. Enterococcus faecium.
Ans. B
Q 57. A farmer presenting with fever off-and-on for the past 4 years
was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following
serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage, except:
A. Standard agglutination test.
B. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. Coombs’ test.
Ans. A
Q 58. A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his
hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of gram positive
bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean’s reaction. The most
likely aetiological agent is:
A. Clostridium tetani.
B. Listeria monocytogenes.
C. Bacillus anthracis.
D. Actinomyces
sp.
Ans. C
Q 59. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein
synthesis:
A. Cholera toxin.
B. Shiga toxin.
C. Pertussis toxin.
D. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli.
Ans. B
Q 60. A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a
genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows graim negative
coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be:
A. Thayer-Martin medium.
B. Blood agar with X & V factors.
C. Chocolate agar with isovitale X.
D. Tellurite blood agar.
Ans. C
Q 61. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of
attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the
gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be
appropriate vaccine candidates, except:
A. CFA-l.
B. P1- Pili.
C. CS-2.
D. K 88.
Ans. B
Pathology
Q 62. Which of the following is a procoagulation protein?
A. Thrombomodulin.
B. Protein C.
C. Protein S.
D. Thrombin.
Ans. D
Q 63. To which of the following events the good outcome in
neuroblastoma is associated with:
A. Diploidy.
B. N-myc amplification.
C. Chromosome 1p deletion.
D. Trk A expression.
Ans. D
Q 64. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant metabolic
disorder?
A. Cystic fibrosis.
B. Phenylketoniria.
C. a-l antitrypsin
deficiency.
D. Familial hypercholesterolemia.
Ans. D
Q 65. The following is not a feature of Alzheimer’s disease:
A. Neurofibrillary tangles.
B. Senile (neuritic) plaques.
C. Amyloid angiopathy.
D. Lewy bodies.
Ans. D
Q 66. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene?
A. C-myc.
B. P53.
C. bcl-2.0
D. bax
Ans. C
Q 67. Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult
myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?
A. Trisomy 8
B. 20q–
C. 5q
D. Monosomy
Ans. C
Q 68. All of the following are the good prognostic features for
Hodgkin’s disease, except:
A. Haemoglobin > 10 g/dl.
B. WBC count < 15,000/mm3.
C. Absolute lymphocyte count < 600/µl.
D. Age < 45 years.
Ans. C
Q 69. A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours
duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment
depression. He succumbed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart
revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and
anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most
likely to reveal:
A. Edema in between normal myofibres.
B. Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils.
C. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of
granulation tissue.
D. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages.
Ans. B
Q 70. Splenic macrophages in Gaucher’s disease differ from those in
ceroid histiocytosis by staining positive for:
A. Lipids.
B. Phospholipids.
C. Acid fast stain.
D. Iron.
Ans. A
Q 71. All of the following statements about Hairy cell leukaeumia are
true, except:
A. Splenomegaly is conspicuous.
B. Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes.
C. Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
(TRAP).
D. The cells express CD25 consistently.
Ans. B
Q 72. A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a
golden brown discoloration of Descemet’s membrane. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Fabry’s disease.
B. Wilson disease.
C. Glycogen storage disease.
D. Acute rheumatic fever.
Ans. B
Q 73. The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because:
A. Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma.
B. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen.
C. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions.
D. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx.
Ans. D
Q 74. A 37 year old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture
showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
A. Iron deficiency.
B. Folic deficiency.
C. Malnutrition.
D. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency.
Ans. A
Q 75. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is
most likely characterized by:
A. Significant numbers of schistocytes.
B. A brisk reticulocytosis.
C. Decreased coagulation factor levels.
D. Significant thrombocytopenia.
Ans. C
Pharmacology
Q 76. All of the following anticancer agents cause bone marrow
depression, except:
A. Chlorambucil.
B. Daunorubicin.
C. Doxorubicin.
D. Flutamide.
Ans. D
Q 77. Morphine can be used in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Head injury.
B. Asthma.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Diabetes.
Ans. A
Q 78. Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine
and all the following drugs, except:
A. Isoniazid.
B. Cyclosporine.
C. Levodopa.
D. Hydralazine.
Ans. B
Q 79. All of the following statements about an alpha- glucosidase
inhibitor are true, except:
A. Reduces intestinal absorption of carbohydrates.
B. Effective in both type 1 and 2 diabetes mellitus.
C. Hypoglycemia is a common and serious side effect.
D. Can be used with other oral hypoglycemic agents.
Ans. C
Q 80. Which one of the following statements about biguanides is not
true?
A. Do not stimulate insulin release.
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production.
C. Renal dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use.
D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas.
Ans. C
Q 81. Which of the following statements is not true about tacrolimus?
A. It is a macrolide antibiotic.
B. It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection.
C. Glucose intolerance is a well recognized side effect.
D. It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug.
Ans. D
Q 82. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the
following conditions, except:
A. Acute decompensated heart failure.
B. Hypotension.
C. Hypertension.
D. Erectile dysfunction.
Ans. D
Q 83. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic
amiodarone therapy:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis.
B. Hypothyroidism.
C. Hyperthyroidism.
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Ans. D
Q 84. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drugs
ethical clearance is not required?
A. Phase I.
B. Phase II.
C. Phase III.
D. Phase IV.
Ans. D
Q 85. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitor?
A. Zalcitabine.
B. Lamivudine.
C. Nevirapine.
D. Didanosine.
Ans. C
Q 86. Which of the following antimicrobials has
anti-pseudomonal action:
A. Cefpodoxime proxetil.
B. Ceforanide.
C. Cefotetan.
D. Cefoperazone.
Ans. D
Q 87. Which of the following statements is not true regarding
sulfonamides:
A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastrointestinal tract.
B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration.
C. Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus.
D. Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Nocardia
species.
Ans. A
Q 88. Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride
channels?
A. Ethanol.
B. Alphaxolone.
C. Zolpidem.
D. Buspirone.
Ans. D
Q 89. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed
ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this combination
incorrect:
A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action.
B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects
like agranulocytosis.
C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not able to
act.
D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine.
Ans. D
Q 90. A 30 year old pregnant woman developed tuberculosis. Which of the
following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
A. INH.
B. Rifampicin.
C. Streptomycin.
D. Ethambutol.
Ans. C
Q 91. Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose
adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50 mg/min?
A. Ciprofloxacin.
B. Trovafloxacin.
C. Lomefloxacin.
D. Sparfloxacin.
Ans. B
Q 92. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be
treated with all the following drugs, except:
A. Tobramycin.
B. Amikacin.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Clarithromycin.
Ans. A
Q 93. All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa
are correct, except:
A. In parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy.
B. It is a prodrug.
C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic
potential.
Ans. D
Q 94. Which of the following actions is ascribed to delta type of
opioid receptors?
A. Supraspinal analgesis.
B. Respiratory depression.
C. Euphoria.
D. Reduced intestinal motility.
Ans. A
Q 95. A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
B. Crosses the placental barrier easily.
C. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
D. Is highly protein bound.
Ans. A
Q 96. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically
started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the
patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review
of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the
combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one
of the following is the most likely combination that was given?
A. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
B. Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
D. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin.
Ans. C
Forensic Medicine
Q 97. BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all, except:
A. Lead.
B. Organic mercury.
C. Cadmium.
D. Arsenic.
Ans. C
Q 98. A 39-year-old carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the
local shop. After about an hour he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of
vision. He has been brought to the emergency out patient. He should be given:
A. Naloxone.
B. Diazepam.
C. Flumazenil.
D. Ethyl alcohol.
Ans. D
Q 99. Contre-coup injuries are seen in:
A. Brain.
B. Heart.
C. Liver.
D. Pancreas.
Ans. A
Q 100. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all the following chemical tests for
blood, except:
A. Benzedine test.
B. Phenophthalein test.
C. Orthotoluidine test.
D. Teichmann’s test.
Ans. C
Q 101. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except:
A. Blood grouping.
B. HLA typing.
C. Preciptin test.
D. DNA fingerprinting.
Ans. C
Q 102. In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be
seen in death due to:
A. Massive haemorrhage.
B. Cyanide poisoning.
C. Corrosive poisoning.
D. Septicemia.
Ans. D
Q 103. Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by:
A. Potassium cyanide.
B. Phophorus.
C. Aniline dyes.
D. Carbon monoxide.
Ans. C
Q 104. A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed
right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor
vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored.
Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
A. Grievous.
B. Simple.
C. Dangerous.
D. Serious.
Ans. B
Q 105. A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is
talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils,
staggering gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is:
A. Alcohol intoxication.
B. Carbamates poisoning.
C. Organophosphorous poisoning.
D. Datura poisoning.
Ans. D
Q 106. A convict whose family or relations were not known and no
biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped trom the jail. A
dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to
mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity
that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by:
A. Blood grouping.
B. DNA
Profile.
C. Anthropometry.
D. HLA typing.
Ans. C
Q 107. The cephalic index of Indian population is between:
A. 70-75.
B. 75-80.
C. 80-85.
D. 85-90.
Ans. B
Preventive and Social Medicine
Q 108. The most common malignant tumor of adult males in india is:
A. Oropharyngeal carcinoma.
B. Gastric carcinoma.
C. Colo-rectal carcinoma.
D. Lung cancer.
Ans. A
Q 109. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals
except:
A. To bring down total fertility rate (TFR) to replacement levels
by 2015.
B. To reduce the infant mortality rate to 30 per 1000 live births.
C. To reduce the maternal mortality rate to 100 per 100,000 live
births.
D. 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and
pregnancies.
Ans. A
Q 110. The following statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD),
except:
A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD.
B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar.
C. IUD can be used for emergency contraception within 5 days.
D. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years.
Ans. A
Q 111. All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation
period except:
A. Latent period.
B. Period of communicability.
C. Serial interval.
D. Generation time.
Ans. B
Q 112. “Five clean practices” under strategies for elimination of neonatal
tetanus include all except:
A. Clean surface for delivery.
B. Clean hand of the attendant.
C. New blade for cutting the cord.
D. Clean airway.
Ans. D
Q 113. The current recommendation for breast-feeding is that:
A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of
age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of
age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it
is best avoided in first 2 days.
D. The baby should be allowed to breast-feed till one year of age.
Ans. B
Q 114. According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of
spread of yellow fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below:
A. 1%.
B. 5%.
C. 8%.
D. l0%.
Ans. A
Q 115. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months.
B. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%.
C. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow’s
milk.
D. It provides about 65 Kcals per 100 ml.
Ans. A
Q 116. All of the following statements about leprosy are true except:
A. MultibacilIary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5
skin patches.
B. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of
leprosy.
C. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment
tor 6 months or more.
D. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the
prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population.
Ans. B
Q 117. Multipurpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the
recommendation of:
A. Srivastava Committee.
B. Bhore Committee.
C. Kartar Singh Committee.
D. Mudaliar Committee.
Ans. C
Q 118. The usefulness of a ‘screening test’ in a community depends on its:
A. Sensitivity.
B. Specificity.
C. Reliability.
D. Predictive value.
Ans. D
Q 119. If the grading of diabetes is classified as ‘mild’ ‘moderate’ and
‘severe’ the scale of measurement used is:
A. Interval.
B. Nominal.
C. Ordinal.
D. Ratio.
Ans. C
Q 120. If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people
selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
A. 0.01.
B. 0.03.
C. 0.001.
D. 0.003.
Ans. B
Q 121. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were
asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in
this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:
A. Cross-sectional study.
B. Retrospective cohort study.
C. Concurrent cohort study.
D. Case-control study.
Ans. C
Q 122. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis
infection in a community is:
A. Mass Miniature Radiography.
B. Sputum examination.
C. Tuberculin test.
D. Clinical examination.
Ans. C
Q 123. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a primary
health centre . She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach
regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to:
A. Give a dose of tetanus toxoid (TT) and explain her that it will
not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks
even if she delivers in the meantime.
B. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in
this pregnancy.
C. Given one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for
this pregnancy.
D. Give her anti-tetanus immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine.
Ans. A
Q 124. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases
include all of the following except:
A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption.
B. Reduction in fat intake to 20 to 30 percent of caloric intake.
C. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10 percent
of total energy intake.
D. Reduction of cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 kcal per day.
Ans. A
Q 125. Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the
following except:
A. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies.
B. Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal
services.
C. Reduce the under five mortality to half.
D. Management of reproductive tract infections
& sexually transmitted infections.
Ans. C
Q 126. A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub
center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest
indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is
best way to manage the child?
A. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia.
B. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care.
C. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition
worsens.
D. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an
antibiotic.
Ans. D
Q 127. A 31/2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which
of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child?
A. BCG, DPT1, OPV1, and DPT2,
OPV2 after 4 weeks.
B. BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin
A.
C. BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin
A.
D. DT1, DT2 and booster after I year.
Ans. C
Q 128. The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in
relation to the true disease status of the population being tested:
Screening Disease Z Total
Test Results Yes No
Positive 400 200 600
Negative 100 600 700
Total 500 800 1300
The
specificity of the screening test is:
A. 70%. B. 75%.
C. 79%. D. 86%.
Ans. B
Q 129. If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10,
the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:
A. Original standard deviation x 10
B. Original standard deviation/l0.
C. Original standard deviation –10.
D. Original standard deviation itself.
Ans. A
Q 130. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130
mmHg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be:
A. Symmetrical.
B. Positively skewed.
C. Negatively skewed.
D. Either positively or negatively skewed, depending on the
standard deviation.
Ans. C
Q 131. All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy, except:
A. Breast milk.
B. Insect bite.
C. Transplacental spread.
D. Droplet infection.
Ans. C
Q 132. Which of the fol1owing is the most reliable method of estimating
blood alcohol level?
A. Cavett’s test.
B. Breath alcohol analyzer.
C. Gas liquid chromatography.
D. Thin layer chromatography.
Ans. C
Medicine
Q 133. Fordyce’s (spots) granules in oral cavity arise from:
A. Mucous glands.
B. Sebaceous glands.
C. Taste buds.
D. Minor salivary glands.
Ans. B
Q 134. For which of the following diseases the enzyme replacement therapy
is available?
A. Albinism.
B. Niemann-Pick disease.
C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy.
D. Gaucher disease.
Ans. D
Q 135. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by all of the following, except:
A. Chronic sinopulmonary disease.
B. Decreased levels of a-fetoprotein.
C. Chromosomal breakage.
D. IgA deficiency.
Ans. B
Q 136. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all, except:
A. Osteopetrosis.
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy.
C. Hurler’s syndrome.
D. Hemochromatosis.
Ans. D
Q 137. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following
malignancies, except:
A. Hodgkin’s disease.
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
D. Multiple myeloma.
Ans. D
Q 138. HBA1C level in blood explains:
A. Acute rise of sugar.
B. Long term status of blood sugar.
C. Hepatorenal syndrome.
D. Chronic pancreatitis.
Ans. B
Q 139. Which of the following gene defects is associated with development
of medullary carcinoma of thyroid?
A. Ret proto oncogene.
B. FAP gene.
C. Rb gene.
D. BRCA1 gene.
Ans. A
Q 140. The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is:
A. Medullary type.
B. Follicular type.
C. Papillary type.
D. Anaplastic type.
Ans. C
Q 141. A 40 year old man presented with painless haematuria. Bimnual
examination revealed a ballottable mass over the right flank. Subsequently
right nephrectomy was done and the mass was seen to be composed of cells with
clear cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis were frequent. Cytogenetic
analysis of this mass is likely to reveal the abnormality of:
A. Chromosome 1.
B. Chromosome 3.
C. Chromosome 11.
D. Chromosome 17.
Ans. B
Q 142. Serum C3 is persistently
low in the following, except:
A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
C. Lupus nephritis.
D. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis.
Ans. A
Q 143. Persistent vomiting most likely causes:
A. Hyperkalaemia.
B. Acidic urine excretion.
C. Hypochloraemia.
D. Hyperventilation.
Ans. C
Q 144. An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal
spike on serum electrophoresis (lgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed
plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Multiple myeloma.
B. Indolent myeloma.
C. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance.
D. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia.
Ans. C
Q 145. A 34-year-old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past
ten years. One evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought
to the casualty. On examination he had tachycardia, shallow breathing,
constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mmHg. He had brisk bilateral
deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of
the following is the best treatment for him?
A. Buprenorphine.
B. Flumazenil.
C. Methadone.
D. Naloxone.
Ans. D
Q 146. A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive
recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure
should be evaluated first:
A. Pulmonary artery.
B. Bronchial artery.
C. Pulmonary vein.
D. Superior vena cava.
Ans. B
Q 147. In which of the following a ‘Coeur en Sabot’ shape of the heart is
seen:
A. Tricuspid atresia.
B. Ventricular septal defect.
C. Transposition of great arteries.
D. Tetralogy of Fallot.
Ans. D
Q 148. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past
10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal.
The next step in investigation should be:
A. Lung Ventilation- perfusion scan.
B. Pulmonary arteriography.
C. Pulmonary venous wedge angiography.
D. Echocardiography.
Ans. B
Q 149. Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF?
A. Germ cell tumours.
B. Medulloblastoma.
C. CNS Lymphoma.
D. Craniopharyngoma.
Ans. D
Q 150. A 20-year-old male presented with chronic constipation, headache
and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue,
medullated corneal nerve fibers and a nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of
thyroid gland. This patient is a case of:
A. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
B. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
C. MEN IIA.
D. MEN IIB.
Ans. D
Q 151. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for
Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?
A. Ceftriaxone.
B. Ciprofloxacin.
C. Doxycycline.
D. Minocycline.
Ans. C
Q 152. In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in
the portal system is in the:
A. Hepatic vein.
B. Post sinusoidal.
C. Extra hepatic portal vein.
D. Sinusoids.
Ans. D
Q 153. In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is:
A. Infrahepatic inferior vena cava.
B. Infrarenal inferior vena cava.
C. Hepatic veins.
D. Portal vein.
Ans. C
Q 154. Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the
following organs, except:
A. Lung.
B. Liver.
C. Pancreas.
D. Spleen.
Ans. A
Q 155. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing’s
syndrome?
A. Loss of diurnal variation.
B. Increased ACTH.
C. Increased plasma cortisol.
D. Increased urinary metabolites of cortisol.
Ans. A
Q 156. A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3
years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be:
A. Craniopharyngioma.
B. Prolactinoma.
C. Meningioma.
D. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage.
Ans. B
Q 157. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line
and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
A. Klinefelter syndrome.
B. Turner syndrome.
C. Cri du chat syndrome.
D. Noonan syndrome.
Ans. B
Q 158. Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and
prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large
hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:
A. 46, XYY.
B. 46, XY.
C. 46, XXY.
D. 46, X.
Ans. C
Q 159. Kinky-hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has
peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degeneration is seen and dies
by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two
sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother’s brother
also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the possible mode of
inheritance in her family?
A. X-Iinked recessive.
B. X-Iinked dominant.
C. Autosomal recessive.
D. Autosomal dominant.
Ans. A
Q 160. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels
very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea
frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy
produts. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young
man is deficient?
A. a-amylase.
B. b-galactosidase.
C. a-glucosidase.
D. Sucrose.
Ans. B
Q 161. A 45-year old woman visited her physician with complaints of
increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also
had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides
gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance
test are as follows:
Parameters Fasting 1 hr 2hr
Blood glucose 155 270 205
[mg/dl]
Urine glucose –ve +++ ++
Ketone bodies –ve –ve –ve
Which
of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case:
A. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
B. She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
C. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet
control and exercise could not control the pathological situation.
D. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in
predicting the nature of the diabetes.
Ans. A
Q 162. A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptives for many years,
developed neurological symptoms such as depres-sion. irritability, nervousness
and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dl. Biochemical
investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations
of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and
cholesterol in serum.
All
the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral
contraceptive use, except:
A. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion.
B. Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines.
C. Decreased hemoglobin level.
D. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level.
Ans. D
Q 163. A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness,
palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a
thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte
count I2,000/mm3,
red cell casts in the urine and I2,000/mm3, serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
D. Disseminated tuberculosis.
Ans. C
Q 164. A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks
duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields.
All of the fol1owing investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except:
A. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood.
B. Serum ACE levels.
C. CECT of chest.
D. Gallium scan.
Ans. C
Q 165. A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of
valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are
in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be
attributed to valproate except:
A. Weight gain of 5 kg.
B. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L.
C. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 mg/dL.
D. Lymphadenopathy.
Ans. D
Q 166. A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis patient currently on
INH, rifampicin, pyrizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His
CD4 count was 100/mL and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/ml. Which
of the following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided:
A. Indinavir.
B. Lamivudin.
C. Ritonavir.
D. Efavirenz.
Ans. C
Q 167. An 18-yr-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth
fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg
and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were
unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and
antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Takayasu’s arteritis.
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Ans. B
Q 168. All of the following are associated with low complement levels except:
A. Lupus nephritis.
B. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis.
C. Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome.
D. Post-infections glomerulonephritis.
Ans. C
Q 169. All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women except:
A. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention.
B. It is not related to menstrual cycles.
C. There is increased water retention in upright position.
D. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases.
Ans. A
Q 170. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating
a case of gynaecomastia except:
A. Testosterone.
B. Prolactin.
C. Estradiol.
D. Luteinizing hormone.
Ans. B
Q 171. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following
adminis-tration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine
deficiency goiter is known as:
A. Jod-Basedow effect.
B. Wolff-Chaikoff effect.
C. Thyrotoxicosis factitia.
D. de Quervain’s thyroiditis.
Ans. A
Q 172. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterized by the
presence of all the Ifollowing except:
A. Red cell casts.
B. Acanthocytes.
C. Crenated red cells.
D. Dysmorphic red cells.
Ans. B
Q 173. Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection:
A. Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by
administration of nucleoside analogues.
B. CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression.
C. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients.
D. In latent phase HIV is minimal replication.
Ans. A
Q 174. All of the following are true about amiodarone induced thyroid
dysfunction except:
A. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas.
B. Hypothyroidism is more common in men.
C. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity.
D. Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of serum
T4 levels.
Ans. B
Q 175. All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except:
A. Pulsus paradoxus.
B. Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram.
C. Electrical alternans.
D. Kussmaul’s sign.
Ans. D
Q 176. All of the following may be used in pregnancy
associated hypertension except:
A. Nifedipine.
B. Captopril.
C. Methyldopa.
D. Hydralazine.
Ans. B
Q 177. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial
fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he
developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered
was:
A. Verapamil.
B. Digoxin.
C. Grvedilol.
D. Propranolol.
Ans. B
Q 178. The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is:
A. T3.
B. T4.
C. TSH.
D. Thyroglobulin.
Ans. C
Q 179. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin
saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of:
A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Anemia of chronic disease.
C. Hemochromatosis.
D. Lead poisoning.
Ans. C
Q 180. A young male develops fever, followed by
headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed
shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Acute pyogenic meningitis.
B. Herpes simplex encephalitis.
C. Neurocysticercosis.
D. Carcinomatous meningitis.
Ans. B
Q 181. A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet.
Examination reveals presence of Mees’ lines in the nails and rain drop
pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above
mentioned symptoms is:
A. Lead.
B. Arsenic.
C. Thallium.
D. Mercury.
Ans. B
Q 182. All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor
involvement, except:
A. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.
B. Acute intermittent porphyria.
C. Lead intoxication.
D. Arsenic intoxication.
Ans. D
Q 183. The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected
subarachnoid haemorrhage should be:
A. Non-contrast computed tomography.
B. CSF examination.
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
D. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography.
Ans. A
Q 184. An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal
examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrahges.
Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this
retinitis:
A. Herpes simplex virus.
B. Human herpes virus 8.
C. Cytomegalovirus.
D. Epstein-Barr(EB) virus.
Ans. C
Q 185. Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral
encephalitis ?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
B. Japanese encephalitis virus.
C. Nipah virus.
D. Cytomegalovirus.
Ans. C
Q 186. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia
trachomatis infection is:
A. Direct fluorescent antibody test.
B. Enzyme immunoassay.
C. Polymerase chain reaction.
D. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells.
Ans. C
Q 187. Which of the following is not an indication for antiphospholipid
antibody testing:
A. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses.
B. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents.
C. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia.
D. Gestational diabetes.
Ans. D
Pediatrics
Q 188. Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down
syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs. Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down
syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents
before the next pregnancy?
A. Triple test.
B. a-fetoprotein.
C. Karyotyping.
D. b-human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG).
Ans. C
Q 189. Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months- 12 years of age) is
usually due to the following organisms, except:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Neisseria meningitidis.
C. Hemophilus influenzae type B.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
Ans. D
Q 190. All of the following are neural tube defects, except:
A. Myelomeningocele.
B. Anencephaly.
C. Encephalocele.
D. Holoprosencephaly.
Ans. D
Q 191. All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex, except:
A. Retinoblastoma.
B. Cataract.
C. Retrolental fibroplasia.
D. Glaucoma.
Ans. D
Q 192. Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all, except:
A. Chronic renal failure.
B. Hypothyroidism.
C. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM).
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Ans. D
Q 193. All of the following are essential features of attention deficit
hyperactivity disease (ADHD), except:
A. Lack of concentration.
B. Impulsivity.
C. Mental retardation.
D. Hyperactivity.
Ans. C
Q 194. A two month old child is able to:
A. Show a positive parachute protective reflex.
B. Hold head steady in a seated position.
C. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows.
D. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral
suspension.
Ans. D
Q 195. Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is:
A. Domperidone.
B. Metoclopramide.
C. Cisapride.
D. Omeprazole.
Ans. C
Q 196. A 10 month old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots in both eyes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A
to this child?
A. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14.
B. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 14.
C. 2 lakh units IM on day 0, l and 14.
D. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14.
Ans. D
Q 197. All of the following statements are true about
sickle cell disease, except:
A. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions.
B. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3
years of age.
C. There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and
polymerization of HbS.
D. Patient presents early in life before 6 months of age.
Ans. D
Q 198. In neonatal cholestasis, if the serum gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase
(gamma GTP) is more than 600 IU/L the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Neonatal hepatitis.
B. Choledochal cyst.
C. Sclerosing cholangitis.
D. Biliary atresia.
Ans. D
Q 199. The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability equivalent to
adult’s kidney by:
A. One year of age.
B. Eighteen months of age.
C. Three to six months of age.
D. Just before puberty.
Ans. B
Q 200. A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at
birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later balloon atrial
septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely
diagnosis of this infant is:
A. Tetrology of Fallot.
B. Transposition of great vessels.
C. Truncus arteriosus.
D. Tricuspid atresia.
Ans. B
Q 201. Which of the following is the feature of Y chromosome?
A. Acrocentric.
B. Telocentric.
C. Submetacentric.
D. Metacentric.
Ans. A
Q 202. A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation
revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum
calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA
units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable
diagnosis in his case?
A. Nutritional rickets.
B. Renal rickets.
C. Hyperparathyroidism.
D. Skeletal dysplasia.
Ans. C
Q 203. A 10 month old child presents with two weeks’ history of fever,
vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates
and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Cryptococcus neoformans.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Ans. A
Q 204. All are the features of absence seizures, except:
A. Usually seen in childhood.
B. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG.
C. Postictal confusion.
D. Precipitation by hyperventilation.
Ans. C
Q 205. A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing
pallor since birth and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most
relevant test for achieving diagnosis:
A. Hb electrophoresis.
B. Peripheral smear examination.
C. Osmotic fragility test.
D. Bone marrow examination.
Ans. A
Q 206. A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off-and-on for
past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for
past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute leukemia.
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
C. Hypersplenism.
D. Aplastic anemia.
Ans. A
Q 207. A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with
complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of
age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigations showed Hb - 3.8 gm %;
MCV - 58 fl; MCH - 19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmatic fragility is normal
(target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid
marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Acute lymphoblastic anemia.
C. Hemoglobin D disease.
D. Hereditary spherocytosis.
Ans. A
Q 208. An infant develops cough and fever. The X- ray examination is
suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the
causative agent, except:
A. Parainfluenza viruses.
B. Influenza virus A.
C. Respiratory syncytial virus.
D. Mumps virus.
Ans. D
Q 209. Screening by using maternal serum fetoproteins helps to detect all
of the following, except:
A. Neural tube defects.
B. Duodenal artesia.
C. Talipes equinovarus.
D. Omphalocele.
Ans. C
Dermatology and Venereology
Q 210. Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic atypia of
melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltraton by anaplastic cells, which are
also present in the papillary and reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Melanoma, Clark level IV.
B. Congenital melanocytic nevus.
C. Dysplastic
nevus.
D. Melanoma, Clark level III.
Ans. A
Q 211. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on
extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence
staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermo-epidermal junction. The
most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris.
B. Bullous pemphigoid.
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
D. Nummular eczema.
Ans. C
Q 212. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over
the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed
urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Fixed drug eruption
B. Lichen planus.
C. Urticaria pigmentosae
D. Urticarial vasculitis
Ans. C
Q 213. A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural
eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal
cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:
A. Seborrheic dermatitis.
B. Atopic dermatitis.
C. Airborne contact dermatitis.
D. Nummular dermatitis.
Ans. B
Psychiatry
Q 214. Ms. B, a 27-year-old nurse had extracurricular interest in trecking
and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later
she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not be able
to work again. She thought life was not worth living and has consumed 60
tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from:
A. Adjustment disorder.
B. Conversion disorder.
C. Depressive disorder.
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Ans. C
Q 215. Signs of organic brain damage are evident on:
A. Bender Gestalt test.
B. Rorschach test.
C. Sentence Completion test.
D. Thematic Apperception test.
Ans. A
Q 216. A 25-year old housewife came to the psychiatry out patient
department (OPD) complaining that her nose was longer than usual. She felt that
her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed
relationship with the neighboring girl. Further she complained that people made
fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity.
Her symptoms include:
A. Delusion.
B. Depersonalization.
C. Depression.
D. Hallucination.
Ans. A
Q 217. A 40-year old man presents to casualty with history of regular and
heavy use of alcohol for ten years and morning drinking for one year. The last
alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury or
seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy
or focal neurological sign. The patient had coarse tremors, visual
hallucinations and had disorientation to time. Which of the following is the
best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient?
A. Diazepam.
B. Haloperidol.
C. Imipramine.
D. Naltrexone.
Ans A
Q 218. A 30-year old unmarried woman from a low socio-economic status
family believes that a rich boy staying in her neighborhood is in deep love
with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady
insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She
makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family.
She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not
materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She, however, remains
preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering from:
A. Delusional disorder.
B. Depression.
C. Mania.
D. Schizophrenia.
Ans. A
Q 219. The non-REM (NREM) sleep is associated with:
A. Frequent dreaming.
B. Frequent penile erections.
C. Increased blood pressure.
D. Night terrors.
Ans. D
Q 220. A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of
being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk
about him. He is even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely
suffering from:
A. Anxiety neurosis.
B. Manic Depressive Psychosis.
C. Adjustment reaction.
D. Schizophrenia.
Ans. D
Q 221. A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced
that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about
her competence and have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to
convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and requests for
security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household.
She is suffering from:
A. Paranoid schizophrenia.
B. Late onset psychosis.
C. Persistent delusional disorder.
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.
Ans. A
Surgery
Q 222. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
A. Tongue.
B. Floor of mouth.
C. Alveobuccal complex.
D. Lip.
Ans. C
Q 223. A 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50
years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating, soft papaillary
lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph
nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign
appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the
subjacent tissues. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Squamous cell papilloma.
B. Squamous cell carcinoma.
C. Verrucous carcinoma.
D. Malignant mixed tumour.
Ans. C
Q 224. Which of the following is not an indication of RT in pleomorphic
adenoma of parotid:
A. Involvement of deep lobe.
B. 2nd histologically benign recurrence.
C. Microscopically positive margins.
D. Malignant transformation.
Ans. A
Q 225. A 55-year-old male presented with painless terminal hematuria.
Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary papillary tumor. Histopathological
examination of completety resected tumor is suggestive of grade III
transitional cell carcinoma with no muscle invasion. Further management of this
patient is best done by:
A. Just follow up.
B. Intravesical chemotherapy.
C. Intravesical BCG.
D. Cystectomy.
Ans. C
Q 226. A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT
chest there was a tumour of 5 × 5 cm in upper lobe and another 2 × 2 cm size
tumour nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is:
A. Radiotherapy.
B. Chemotherapy.
C. Surgery.
D. Supportive treatment.
Ans. C
Q 227. All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast
cancer, except:
A. Letrazole.
B. Exemestane.
C. Taxol.
D. Tamoxifen.
Ans. C
Q 228. Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around:
A. 2 months of age.
B. 6 months of age.
C. 12 months of age.
D. 24 months of age.
Ans. C
Q 229. The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:
A. Diarrhea.
B. Hypogastrinemia.
C. Weight loss.
D. Steatorrhoea.
Ans. B
Q 230. All of the following are significant risk factors for colonic
carcinoma in an adenomatous polyp, except:
A. Pedunculated polyp.
B. Villous histology.
C. Size >2 cm.
D. Atypia.
Ans. A
Q 231. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing
catgut suture?
A. Isopropyl alcohol.
B. Colloidal iodine.
C. Glutaraldehyde.
D. Hydrogen peroxide.
Ans. A
Q 232. Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatraemia?
A. Gastric fistula.
B. Excessive vomiting.
C. Excessive sweating.
D. Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration.
Ans. C
Q 233. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best
prognosis?
A. Alcoholic pancreatitis.
B. Gall stone pancreatitis.
C. Postoperative pancreatitis.
D. Idiopathic pancreatitis.
Ans. B
Q 234. Chronically Iymphoedematous limb is predisposed to all of the
following, except:
A. Thickening of the skin.
B. Recurrent soft tissue infections.
C. Marjolin’s ulcer.
D. Sarcoma.
Ans. C
Q 235. The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus
is:
A. Jejunum.
B. Ileum.
C. Transverse colon.
D. Sigmoid colon.
Ans. B
Q 236. Injection sclerotherapy is ideal for the following:
A. External haemorrhoids.
B. Internal haemorrhoids.
C. Prolapsed haemorrhoids.
D. Strangulated haemorrhoids.
Ans. B
Q 237. For a rectal carcinoma at 5 cm from the anal verge the best
acceptable operation is:
A. Anterior resection.
B. Abdomino-perineal resection.
C. Posterior resection.
D. Local resection.
Ans. B
Q 238. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated
with:
A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid.
D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid.
Ans. A
Q 239. Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached
through:
A. Neck.
B. Chest.
C. Combined cervico-thoracic route.
D. Thoracoscopic.
Ans. A
Q 240. First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle should
be:
A. Rest in prone position of patient.
B. Application of a tourniquet proximally.
C. Application of a tourniquet distally.
D. Direct pressure and elevation.
Ans. D
Orthopaedics
Q 241. In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the
fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This
condition is called as:
A. Delayed union.
B. Slow union.
C. Non union.
D. Pseudarthrosis.
Ans. D
Q 242. All of the following can be the complications of a malunited
Colles’ fracture, except:
A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon.
B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD).
C. Carpal
tunnel syndrome.
D. Carpal instability.
Ans. A
Q 243. In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the proximal fragment is
indicated in all of the following situations, except:
A. Old ununited fractures.
B. Non-articular fracture.
C. Fracture extending to coronoid process.
D. Elderly patient.
Ans. C
Q 244. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a
result of hypersensitivity response to:
A. Titaneum debris.
B. High density polythene debris.
C. N, N- Dimethyltryptamine (DMT).
D. Free radicals.
Ans. B
Q 245. Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following
parts of the vertebra, except:
A. Body.
B. Lamina.
C. Spinous process.
D. Pedicle.
Ans. C
Q 246. An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started
complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both legs. There was acute
point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Burger’s disease.
B. Gout.
C. Lumbar canal stenosis.
D. Stress fracture.
Ans. D
Q 247. Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower end of femur
must include:
A. Radiotherapy - amputation - chemotherapy.
B. Surgery alone.
C. Chemotherapy - limb salvage surgery - chemotherapy.
D. Chemotherapy + radiotherapy.
Ans. C
Q 248. The management of fat embolism includes all the following, except:
A. Oxygen.
B. Heparinization.
C. Low Molecular weight dextran.
D. Pulmonary embolectomy.
Ans. D
Q 249. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and
reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the
second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and
paresthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this
neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:
A. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves.
B. A tight cast or dressing.
C. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
D. Tourniquet pressure.
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 250. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an
intravenous induction agent?
A. Neurosurgery.
B. Day care surgery.
C. Patients with coronary artery disease.
D. In neonates.
Ans. B
Q 251. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be
preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children?
A. Enflurane.
B. Isoflurane.
C. Sevoflurane.
D. Desflurane.
Ans. C
Q 252. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with
hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be
instituted except:
A. Carotid sinus massage.
B. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV.
C. Direct current cardioversion.
D. Verapamil 5 mg IV.
Ans A
Q 253. A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour
under subarachnoid has developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was used as
anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis
A. Amniotic fluid embolism.
B. Lignocaine toxicity.
C. Hypocalcemia.
D. Hypokalemia.
Ans. C
Gynaecology and Obstetrics
Q 254. A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labor.
Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be
given in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours.
B. Pregnancy induced hypertension.
C. Diabetes mellitus.
D. Chorioamnionitis.
Ans. D
Q 255. The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not
serious during first pregnancy because:
A. Antibodies are not able to cross placenta.
B. Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response.
C. IgG generated is ineffective against foetal red cells.
D. Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoiesis.
Ans. B
Q 256. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA,
grade I is:
A. Radiotherapy.
B. Chemotherapy.
C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy.
D. No treatment.
Ans. D
Q 257. A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea.
Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has
no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome.
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome.
C. Premature ovarian failure.
D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Ans. D
Q 258. A 28-year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3
years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrohoea for 8 months. The
blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most
appropriate investigation?
A. Serum electrolytes.
B. Plasma cortisol.
C. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis.
D. T3, T4 and TSH.
Ans. B
Q 259. All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract
infections in pregnancy, except:
A. Diabetes mellitus.
B. Hypertension.
C. Sickle cell disease.
D. Vesicoureteral reflux.
Ans. B
Q 260. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest
risk of fetal infection in the first trimester?
A. Hepatitis B virus.
B. Syphilis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Rubella.
Ans. D
Q 261. All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening
during pregnancy, except:
A. Prostaglandin E2.
B. Oxytocin.
C. Progesterone.
D. Misoprostol.
Ans. C
Q 262. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters, except:
A. Biparietal diameter.
B. Head cirumference.
C. Transcerebellar diameter.
D. Femur length.
Ans. C
Q 263. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over
estrogens in post menopausal women, except:
A. Reduces fracture rates.
B. Avoids endometrial hyperplasia.
C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis.
D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma.
Ans. C
Q 264. Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion
if the duration of pregnancy is:
A. 63 days.
B. 72 days.
C. 88 days.
D. 120 days.
Ans. A
Q 265. Anti-D prophylaxis should be ‘given in all of the following
conditions, except:
A. Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy.
B. Amniocentesis
at 16 weeks.
C. Intrauterine transfusion
at 28 weeks.
D. Manual removal of placenta.
Ans. C
Q 266. A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by cesarean section
complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most
likely site of fistula?
A. Urethro-vaginal.
B. Vesico-vaginal.
C. Vesico-uterine.
D. Uretero-uterine.
Ans. C
Q 267. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant
lady at 18 week of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down’s
syndrome?
A. Triple screen test.
B. Amniocentesis.
C. Chorionic villous biopsy.
D. Ultrasonography.
Ans. B
Q 268. A case of 35 week pregnancy with hydramnios and marked respiratory
distress is best treated by:
A. Intravenous frusemide.
B. Saline infusion.
C. Amniocentesis.
D. Artificial rupture of membranes.
Ans. C
Q 269. The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in
case of vesicovaginal fistula is:
A. Suprapubic needle aspiration.
B. Midstream clean catch.
C. Foley’s catheter.
D. Sterile speculum.
Ans. C
Q 270. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year
old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism?
A. Polycystic ovaries.
B. Endometriosis.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Turner’s syndrome.
Ans. A
Q 271. A fifty year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian
tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals a ulcerative
growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Malignant ovarian tumor.
B. Carcinoma in the small intestine.
C. Carcinoma body uterus.
D. Carcinoma stomach with Krukenberg’s tumor.
Ans. D
Q 272. Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in
distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a
fetus?
A. Carcinoembryo antigen.
B. Sphingomyelin.
C. Alpha-fetoprotein.
D. Pseudocholinesterase.
Ans. D
Q 273. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of
iron depletion in pregnancy?
A. Serum iron.
B. Serum ferritin.
C. Serum transferrin.
D. Serum iron binding capacity.
Ans. B
Q 274. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated
with a vaginal pH of 4?
A. Atrophic vaginitis.
B. Candidal vaginitis.
B. Trichomonas vaginitis.
D. Gardnerella vaginitis.
Ans. B
Q 275. Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the
treatment of Leiomyosarcoma?
A. Adriamycin.
B. Doxorubicin.
C. Methotrexate.
D. Cisplatin.
Ans. B
Ophthalmology
Q 276. Polychromatic luster is seen in:
A. Complicated cataract.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Post radiation cataract.
D. Congenital cataract.
Ans. A
Q 277. In which of the following conditions, severe itching of the eye
with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy with symptoms aggravating in summer
season is most likely present?
A. Trachoma.
B. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis.
C. Acute conjunctivitis.
D. Blepharitis.
Ans. B
Q 278. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by:
A. Decreasing aqueous humour formation.
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow.
C. Releasing pupillary block.
D. Increasing trabecular outflow.
Ans. B
Q 279. Maximum densiy of goblet cells is seen in:
A. Superior conjunctiva.
B. Inferior conjunctiva.
C. Nasal conjunctiva.
D. Temporal conjunctiva.
Ans. C
Q 280. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to
mitochondria1 chromosomal anomaly is:
A. Retinopathy of prematurity.
B. Leber’s Hereditary Optic neuropathy.
C. Retinitis pigmentosa.
D. Retinal detachment.
Ans. B
Q 281. A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of
the following statement represents the best management advice:
A. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is
four weeks.
B. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is
four months.
C. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is
four years.
D. The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required.
Ans. A
Q 282. Photodynamic therapy is used in the eye for the following disease:
A. Cataract.
B. Glaucoma.
C. Uveitis.
D. Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration).
Ans. D
Q 283. All are ocular emergencies, except:
A. Angle closure glaucoma.
B. Central serous retinopathy.
C. Retinal detachment.
D. Central retinal arterial occlusion.
Ans. B
Q 284. A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation.
The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.
B. Buphthalmos.
C. Congenital dacryocystitis.
D. Encysted mucocele.
Ans. C
Q 285. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan’s
syndrome:
A. Microcornea.
B. Microspherophakia.
C. Megalocornea.
D. Ectopia lentis.
Ans. D
Q 286. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy
in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Atropine sulphate eye ointment.
B. Dexamethasone eye drops.
C. Pilocarpine eye drops.
D. Lignocaine eye drops.
Ans. A
Q 287. Arlt’s line is seen in:
A. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis.
B. Pterygium.
C. Ocular pemphigoid.
D. Trachoma.
Ans. D
Otorhinolaryngology
Q 288. In which of the following locations there is collection of pus in
the quinsy?
A. Peritonsillar space.
B. Parapharyngeal space.
C. Retropharyngeal space.
D. Within the tonsil.
Ans. A
Q 289. Which of the following statements best represents Bell’s paralysis?
A. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis.
B. Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal and abducens
nerves.
C. Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve.
D. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye.
Ans. C
Q 290. Meniere’s disease is characterized by:
A. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus.
B. Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache.
C. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache.
D. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss.
Ans. D
Q 291. In right middle ear pathology Weber’s test will be:
A. Normal.
B. Centralised
C. Lateralised to right side.
D. Lateralised to left side.
Ans. C
Radiology
Q 292. A patient is suspected to have vestibular Schwanomma. The
investigation of choice for its diagnosis is:
A. Contrast enhanced CT scan.
B. Gadolinium enhanced MRI.
C. SPECT.
D. PET scan.
Ans. B
Q 293. In scurvy all the following radiological signs are seen, except:
A. Pelican spur.
B. Soap bubble appearance.
C. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis.
D. Frenkel’s line.
Ans. B
Q 294. On radiography widened duodenal ‘C’ loop with irregular mucosal
pattern on upper gastrointestinal barium series is most likely due to:
A. Chronic pancreatitis.
B. Carcinoma head of pancreas.
C. Duodenal ulcer.
D. Duodenal ileus.
Ans. B
Q 295. Which of the following is the most penetration beam?
A. Electron beam. B. 8
MV photons.
C. 18 MV photons. D. Proton
beam.
Ans. C
Q 296. The radiation tolerance of whole liver is :
A. 15 Gy. B. 30
Gy.
C. 40 Gy. D. 45
Gy.
Ans. B
Q 297. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?
A. Head and neck.
B. Stomach.
C. Colon.
D. Soft tissue sarcomas.
Ans. B
Q 298. The Couinaud’s segmental nomenclature is based on the position of
the:
A. Hepatic veins and portal vein
B. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts.
C. Portal vein and biliary ducts.
D. Portal vein and hepatic artery.
Ans. A
Q 299. Which of the following is not a CT scan feature of acute pancreatitis?
A. Ill defined outline of the pancreas.
B. Enlargement of the pancreas.
C. Poor contrast enhancement.
D. Dilated main
pancreatic duct.
Ans. D
Q 300. Which of the following is classic CT appearance of an acute
subdural hematoma:
A. Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion.
B. Crescent-shaped hypodense lesion.
C. Crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion.
D. Lentiform-shaped hypodense lesion.
Ans. C
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