ALL INDIA 2009

1.    All is true about trochlear nerve except:

A. Longest intracranial course

B. Arise from dorsal aspect

C. Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique

D. Arises from out side the common tendinous ring

Ans. (C)

2.    Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all except:

A. Sphincter urethra

B. Perineal body

C. Colles’ fascia

D. Perineal membrane

Ans. (C)

3.    All are the contents of depp perineal pouch except:

A. Bulb/Root of penis

B. Dorsal nerve of penis

C. Sphincter urethra

D. Bulbourethral glands

Ans. (A)

4.    Neural tube begin to close from which region

A. Cranial

B. Cervical

C. Thoracic

D. Lumbar

Ans. (B)

5.    All is true for Sternberg canal except:

A. Anterior and medial to foramen rotundum

B. Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum

C. Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele

D. Can carry infection to sphenoidal sinus

Ans. (B)

6.    Posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:

A. Mandibular

B. Facial

C. Lingual

D. Maxillary

Ans. (D)

7.    All of the following arteries supply medulla except:

A. Posterior inferior cerebellar

B. Basilar

C. Anterior spinal

D. Bulbar

Ans. (D)

8.    GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in:

A. Submucosa

B. Lamina propria

C. Muscularis mucosa

D. Adventitia/Serosa

Ans. (B)

9.    All are pain sensitive area of brain except:

A. Dural sinuses

B. Middle meningeal artery

C. Falx cerebri

D. Choroid plexus

Ans. (D)

10.  Superior gluteal nerve supplies all except:

A. Gluteus minimus

B. Gluteus medius

C. Tensor fascia lata

D. Gluteus maximus

Ans. (D)

11.  Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part:

A. 1st

B. 2nd

C. 3rd

D. Terminal

Ans. (A)

12.  All are branches of splenic artery except:

A. Short gastric

B. Hilar

C. Arteria pancreatica magna

D. Right gastroepiploic

Ans. (D)

13.  Artery in anatomical snuff box:

A. Radial

B. Brachial

C. Ulnar

D. Interosseous

Ans. (A)

14.  All are compoite muscles except:

A. Pectineus

B. Flexor carpi ulnaris

C. Biceps femoris

D. Flexor digitorum profundus

Ans. (B)

15.  Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes:

A. Superficial inguinal

B. External iliac

C. Deep inguinal

D. Aortic

Ans. (C)

16.  Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substance?

A. Uncus

B. Limen insulae

C. 3rd ventricle

D. Optic chiasma

Ans. (B)

17.  Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from all except:

A. Otic ganglion

B. Greater petrosal nerve

C. Auriculotemporal nerve

D. Tympanic plexus

Ans. (B)

18.  Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because:

A. It is not over prominent bone

B. Pulse is weak

C. It is deep seated

D. It is both seated and not over prominent bone

Ans. (C)

19.  Chief cells are found in:

A. Fundus

B. Pit

C. Neck

D. Body

Ans. (A)

20.  Not true about shunt vessel is:

A. It control temperature regulation

B. It is direct communication between artery and veins

C. It is under control of local mediators

D. It is not under autonomic control

Ans. (D)

21.  Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is:

A. Pectoralis major

B. Tares minor

C. Semimembranosus

D. Gastrocnemius

Ans. (A)

Physiology

22.  Diastolic pressure in aorta is maintained by:

A. Elastic recoil of aorta

B. Muscular artery

C. Resistance in arterioles

D. Capillaries

Ans. (A)

23.  Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:

A. Increase in CO2 tension

B. Decrease in CO2 tension

C. Low O2 tension

D. Increase in H+

Ans. (A)

24.  True for vasomotor center is:

A. Not influenced by cortical centers

B. Stimulated by baroreceptors from arterial organs

C. In sleep medulla stops sending signals which explains decrease in BP

D. Functional interaction with cardio-vagal center

Ans. (D)

25.  Intrinsic factor of castle is present in:

A. Chief cells

B. Fundus cells

C. Goblet cells

D. Parietal cells

Ans. (D)

26.  Faciliatated diffusion:

A. Requires carrier protein

B. Is a form of active transport

C. Along concentration gradient

D. Requires creatinine phosphate

Ans. (A)

27.  Action potential generated in axon hillock is due to:

A. It has least threshold

B. Neurotransmitters produced

C. Unmyelinated

D. Has more ion channels

Ans. (D)

28.  Cell-cell interaction occurs by all of the following mechanism except:

A. Hormones

B. Gap junctions

C. G-protein receptors

D. Neurotransmitters released at synapse

Ans. (C)

29.  In obstructive azoospermia:

A. FSH and LH both increase

B. FSH and LH both normal

C. FSH decrease but LH increases

D. FSH and LH both decrease

Ans. (B)

30.  Which is not involved in intrinsic pathway?

A. Factor XII

B. Factor XI

C. Factor IX

D. Factor VII

Ans. (D)

31.  Causes of sigmoid shape of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (O2) is:

A. Binding of one O2 molecule increase the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules

B. Binding of one O2 molecule decrease the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules

C. Bohr effect

D. Haldane effect

Ans. (A)

32.  Sertoli cells are associated with:

A. Spermiogenesis

B. Secretion of seminal fluid

C. Production of testosterones

D. Production of sperm

Ans. (A)

33.  Sleep is primarily regulated by:

A. Thalamus

B. Hypothalamus

C. Putamen

D. Limbic cortex

Ans. (B)

34.  Paneth cells are rich in:

A. Zinc

B. Lysozyme

C. Mucus

D. Intrinsic factor

Ans. (A or B)

35.  Muscle’s blood supply increases during exercise due to:

A. Increased blood pressure

B. Accumulation of active metabolites

C. Increase vasodilatation

D. Increase heart rate

Ans. (B)

36.  The status of fluid in distal convoluted tubule is all except:

A. Always hypotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Isotonic

D. Always hypertonic

Ans. (A)

37.  Energy expenditure in resting state depends upon:

A. Lean body mass

B. Adipose tissue

C. Heart rate

D. None of the above

Ans. (A)

38.  Rise in 2-3 bisphophoglycerate is seen in all of the following except:

A. Chronic anemia

B. Chronic hypoxia

C. Inosine

D. Hypoxanthine

Ans. (D)

39.  A person sits from standing position, change seen is:

A. Increase increase in venous return

B. Increase in heart rate

C. Increase epinephrine

D. Increased cerebral blood flow

Ans. (A)

40.  Angiotensin II causes all except:

A. Stimulates release of ADH

B. Increases thirst

C. Vasodilation

D. Stimulates aldosterone release

Ans. (C)

41.  About renal physiology all are true except:

A. DCT always receive hypo-osmotic solution

B. Afferent artery supplies glomerulus

C. GFR is controlled by afferent and efferent arteriole

D. 5% cardiac output is received by kidney

Ans. (D)

42.  After 48 hours of fasting insulin receptors are down regulated in:

A. Brain

B. Liver

C. RBC

D. Adipocytes

Ans. (D)

43.  True about deglutition persistalsis of esophagus:

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Quarternary

Ans. (A)

44.  Oxygen demand of heart:

A. Increases proportionately with heart rate

B. Depends upon duration of systole

C. Is negligible when heart is at rest

D. Is in constant relation with amount of work done

Ans. (A)

45.  Cyanosis doesn’t occur in anemia because:

A. Certain min. amount of reduced Hb should be present

B. In anemia, O2 saturation increaes

C. Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production

D. O2 hemoglobin curve shifts to right

Ans. (A)

Biochemistry

46.  After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes; segments are joined by:

A. Endonuclease

B. Ligase

C. Topoisomerase

D. Helicase

Ans. (B)

47.  Intestinal flora digests all except:

A. Cellulose

B. Lignin

C. Pectin

D. Starch

Ans. (D)

48.  Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except:

A. Fatty acid

B. Glucose

C. Ketone bodies

D. Cholesterol

Ans. (B)

49.  Splicing is associated with:

A. mRNA

B. Sn RNA

C. r RNA

D. t RNA

Ans. (B)

50.  LPL incorrect is:

A. Is found in adipose tissue

B. Is found in myocytes

C. Def leads to hyper TG

D. Does not require C-II as cofactor

Ans. (D)

51.  A male child presents with delayed development and biting of the lips and hands. His parent have restrained him because he obsessively chews on his lips and fingers which of the following is likely to occur in this child?

A. HGPRTase def

B. Adenosine deaminase def

C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase def

D. Sphingomyelinase def

E. None

Ans. (A)

52.  CAP in Lac Operon is an example of:

A. Positive regulator

B. Negative regulator

C. Constitutive expression

D. Attenuation

Ans. (A)

53.  Oxidation reduction reaction occurs with all except:

A. Hydroperoxidases

B. Peroxidases

C. Oxygenases

D. Dehydrogenases

Ans. (A)

54.  MICRO RNA function:

A. Gene regulation

B. DNA conformation

C. RNA Splicing

D. Translation

Ans. (A)

55.  Best marker for stratification of Carciovascular disease risk:

A. Homocystine

B. Lipoprotein (a)

C. Anti-chlamydial antibody

D. CRP

Ans. (B)

56.  Least polar among following groups:

A. Methyl

B. Amino

C. Carboxyl

D. Phosphate

Ans. (A)

57.  Following SDS-PAGE electrophoresis, protein with is found to be 100 KD. After Rx with merceptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 KD and 30 KD widely separated. True statement:

A. Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage

B. It’s a dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 KD

C. It’s a tetramer of 2 20 KD and 2 30 KD

D. Protein breakdown due to non-covalent linkage

Ans. (A)

58.  Basic defect in HbS is:

A. Altered function

B. Altered solubility

C. Altered stability

D. Altered O2 binding capacity

Ans. (B)

59.  Characteristic of HbS is all except:

A. Change of glutamine to Valine

B. Heterozygotes are protected against malaria

C. Increase in sticky patch due to substitution of nonpolar residue by polar residue.

D. Single base substitution lead to RFLP

Ans. (C)

Pathology

60.  Finnish type of nephritic syndrome is associated with:

A. Nephrin

B. Podocin

C. Alpha actinin

D. CD2

Ans. (A)

61.  A 7-year-old girl presents with bleeding in joints. She has prolonged aPTt, normal PT an platelet counts. What could be the deficiency?

A. IX

B. VIII

C. VII

D. von Willebrand

Ans. (D)

62.  Which of the following is not true about Neuroblastoma?

A. Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood

B. >50% present with metastasis at time of diagnosis

C. Lung mtatases are common

D. Involve aorta and its branches early

Ans. (D)

63.  Function of CD4 is all except:

A. Memory

B. Immunoglobin production

C. Activation of macrophages

D. Cytotoxicity

Ans. (B)

64.  What is specific for GIST?

A. CD 117

B. CD 34

C. CD 23

D. S-100

Ans. (A)

65.  True for hemochromatosis:

A. Complete penetrance

B. Autosomal recessive

C. Phlebotomy leads to cure

D. More common in females

Ans. (B)

66.  When one gene is inherited from one parent only, it is known as:

A. Genomic imprinting

B. Mosaicism

C. Alleles

D. Chimerism

Ans. (A)

67.  Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis is associated with:

A. Microscopic polyangitis

B. SLE

C. H S Purpura

Ans. (A)

68.  What is affected in HbS (Hemoglobin S)?

A. Stability

B. Function

C. Affinity

D. Solubility

Ans. (D)

69.  A 56-years-old male presented with sudden substernsal pain, impending doo m, died 4 days after. On autopsy, there was a large transmural anterior wall infarction. It would be associated with:

A. Presence of collegen and fibroblasts

B. Presence of neutophils

C. Granulomatous inflammation

D. Granulation tissue

Ans. (D)

70.  Characteristic of acute inflammation:

A. Vasodilation ad increased vascular permeability

B. Vasoconstriction

C. Platelet aggregation

D. Infiltration by neutrophil

Ans. (A)

71.  Coagulative necrosis is found in which infection?

A. TB

B. Sarcoidosis

C. Gangrene

D. Fungal infection

Ans. (A)

72.  Psammoma bodies are seen in all except:

A. Follicular carinoma thyroid

B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid

C. Serous cystadenoma

D. Meningioma

Ans. (A)

73.  Stain of mineralization of newly formed osteoid:

A. von Kossa stain

B. Alizarin red

C. Labeled tetracycline

D. Fluorescence

Ans. (C)

74.  Colon Ca is associated with all except:

A. Rb

B. Mismatch repair genes

C. APC

D. b catenin

Ans. (A)

75.  Hallmark feature of benign HTN is:

A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis

B. Cystic medial necrosis

C. Fibrinoid necrosis

D. Hyperplastic art

Ans. (A)

76.  Organelle which plays a pivotal role in apoptosis:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Golgi complex

C. Mitochondria

D. Nucleus

Ans. (C)

77.  Most bactericidal agent is:

A. Cationic basic protein

B. Lactoferrin

C. Lysozyme

D. Reactive O2 species

Ans. (D)

78.  Hypersensitive pneumonitis is classically a:

A. Allergic reaction

B. Type II hypersensitivity

C. Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity

D. Cell mediated hypersensitivity

Ans. (C)

79.  Karyotyping is done for:

A. Chromosomal disorders

B. AR disorders

C. AD disorders

D. Link disorders

Ans. (A)

80.  Aging is due to:

A. Accumulated mutations in somatic cells

B. Accumulation of free radicals

C. Decreased cross linking of collagen

D. Decreased antioxidant

Ans. (A)

81.  Ifosfamide is:

A. Alkylating agents

B. Antimetabolite

C. Folate antagonists

D. Palnt alkaloids

Ans. (A)

82.  Nitroglycerin causes all except:

A. Hypotension and bradycardia

B. Methemoglobinemia

C. Hypotension and tachycardia

D. Vasodilation

Ans. (A)

83.  Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct?

A. Major depression and associated lethargy

B. Narcolepsy

C. Obstructive sleep apnea

D. Shift work disorder

Ans. (B)

84.  Which cehalosporins can be used in ¯ GFR?

A. Cefuroxime

B. Ceftriaxone

C. Ceftazidime

D. Cefoperazone

Ans. (D)

85.  Use of tamoxifen in HRT does not lead to ­ in:

A. Thromboembolic episodes

B. Heart disease

C. Ca in contralateral breast

D. Endometrial hyperplasia

Ans. (C)

86.  Folate deficiency is associated with all except:

A. Phenytoin

B. Alcohol

C. Sulfasalazine

D. Chloraquine

Ans. (D)

87.  A patients is given tacrolimus, which antibiotic should not be given to him?

A. Gentamicin

B. Cisplatin

C. Rifampicin

D. Vancomycin

Ans. (C)

88.  Drug not given in acute angle glaucoma:

A. Pilocarpine

B. Clozapine

C. Fluphenazine

D. Duloxetine

Ans. (C)

89.  All are the side effects of tacrolimus except:

A. Hepatoxic

B. Nephrotoxic

C. Ototoxic

D. Neurotoxic

Ans. (C)

90.  Which of the following is cell cycle specific?

A. Ifosfamide

B. Bleomycin

C. Vinblastine

D. Cyclophosphamide

Ans. (C)

91.  Bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells:

A. Type-I pneumocyte

B. Type-II pneumocyte

C. Endothelial cell

D. Alveolar macrophages

Ans. (B)

92.  DOC in severe complicated falciparum malaria:

A. Chloroquine

B. Quinine

C. Artesunate

D. Artemether

Ans. (B)

93.  In treatment of osteosarcoma, all of the following are used except:

A. High dose methotrexate

B. Cyclphosphamide

C. Vincristine

D. Bleomycin, etoposide, doxorubicin

Ans. (C)

94.  ‘Hand Foot’ syndrome can be caused by:

A. Cisplatin

B. Vincristine

C. Capecitabine

D. Mitomycin-C

Ans. (A)

95.  All are true about estrogen except:

A. Decreases HDL

B. Increases triglycerides

C. Increases turnover of LDL receptors

D. Increase apolipoprotein

Ans. (A)

96.  Valproate causes all except:

A. Weight gain

B. Alopecia

C. Liver

D. Osteomalacia

Ans. (D)

97.  Topical mitomycin-C is used in:

A. Sturge-Weber syndrome

B. Laryngotracheal stenosis

C. Endoscopic angiofibroma

D. Skull base osteomyelitis

Ans. (C)

98.  Amifostine is protective to all except:

A. Salivary gland

B. Skin

C. CNS

D. GIT

Ans. (C)

99.  Appetite suppressors are all except:

A. Malanocyte stimulating hormone

B. Melanocyte corticotropic releasing hormone

C. Neuropeptide Y

Ans. (C)

Microbiology

100. Regarding angioneurotic edema, what is not true?

A. Edema is pitting in cheeks and lips

B. Due to deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor

C. Can be induced by sunlight or stress

D. Can be caused by ACE inhibitor

Ans. (A)

101.                                              Receptor of HIV:

A. CD4

B. CD8

C. Plasma cell

D. CD56

Ans. (A)

102.                       True for Chlamydia trachomatis:

A. Always symptomatic

B. Can be diagnosed by cervical smear culture

C. Susceptible to penicillin

D. Most common pathogen in OC pills user

Ans. (C)

103.       True for necrotizing fasciitis are all except:

A. Infection of fascia and subcutaneous tissue

B. Caused by group a beta hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes

C. Most comon in trunk, lower limbs and perineum

D. Surgical debridement is usually not needed

Ans. (D)

104.                          E.coli 0157 is cultured not on:

A. XLD

B. Mannitol sucrose agar

C. Hoenke media

D. Sorbitol MacConkey agar

Ans. (D)

105.                 Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs in:

A. Re-infection with same virus

B. Re-infection from other virus

C. Infection with wild virus

D. Infection with type 1 virus

Ans. (B)

106. Tickborne relapsing fever is caused by all except:

A. B. recurrentis

B. B. hermsii

C. B. turicatae

D. B. duttonii

Ans. (A)

107. What is not true about nontyphoidal Salmonella?

A. Can be transmitted due to eating of poultry

B. Causes severe infection in neonates

C. Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture

D. Quinolones are most effective Rx

Ans. (C)

108.       Non-invasive diarrhea caused by all except:

A. Shigella

B. EIEC

C. B. cereus

D. Y. enterocolitica

Ans. (C)

109.                           Enterovirus causes all except:

A. Aseptic meningitis

B. Pleurodynia

C. Herpangina

D. Hemorrhagic fever

Ans. (D)

110.            Pasturella multocida infection is due to:

A. Soil

B. Aerosol

C. Animal bite

D. Contaminated tissue

Ans. (C)

111.    Regarding Parvovirus B-19, false statement is:

A. Can cross placenta in <10% cases

B. DNA virus

C. Can cause anemia

D. None

Ans. (A)

112.                True about leptospirosis is all except:

A. Transmitted by rodent urine

B. Penicillin IV is treatment in severe cases

C. 5 to 15% mortality in severe cases

D. Antibody can be detected in a week

Ans. (D)

113.                                  Lambda phase all except:

A. In lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant

B. In lytic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormat

C. In lysogenic phase it causes cell lysis

D. Both phases are not together

Ans. (D)

114.                       Maltese cross is associated with:

A. Candida albicans

B. Penicillium marneffei

C. Babesia microti

D. Cryptococcus

Ans. (C)

Forensic medicine

115.                                      Casper’s dictum is for:

A. Identification of body

B. Time since death

C. Mode of injury

D. Depth of insertion of knife

Ans. (B)

116.                    All are traumatic asphyxia except:

A. Railway accident

B. Road traffic accident

C. Accidental strangulation

D. Stampede

Ans. (C)

117.  Disease, which permanently alters finger print:

A. Burns

B. TB

C. Psoriasis

D. Leprosy

Ans. (D)

118. Extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause?

A. Primary impact injury

B. Secondary imact injury

C. Secondary injury

D. Postmortem artefact

Ans. (B)

119.                                  Stellate wound is seenin:

A. Contact wound

B. From close range

C. W/I 2 meters range

D. Long range

Ans. (D)

120.                                 Abrasion marks resemble:

A. Eczema

B. Ant-bite marks

C. Artefact

D. Excoriations by excreta

Ans. (B)

121.                                    Motorcyclist fracture is:

A. Ring fracture

B. Comminuted fracture

C. Skull divided into two halves

D. Subdural hemorrhage

Ans. (C)

122.    Heat hematoma differs from blunt trauma by:

A. Margins are smooth

B. Margins are irregular

C. Blood vessels cut

D. Blood vessel intact

Ans. (B)

123.                   Privileged conversation is between:

A. Patient and doctor

B. Doctor and law

C. Doctor and relative

D. Doctor and notifying authority

Ans. (D)

124.                  Organ MC involved in blast injuries:

A. Lung

B. Liver

C. Intestines

D. Brain

Ans. (C)

psm

125.                  Incidence rate can be calculated by:

A. Case control study

B. Cohort study

C. Cross sectional study

D. Longitudinal study

Ans. (B)

126. In a program the end point of all activities which may not be operationally measurable is called?

A. Objective

B. Target

C. Mission

D. Goal

Ans. (A)

127. Continuous variable of grouped data, the frequency is represented by:

A. Histogram

B. Line diagram

C. Pictogram

D. Bar diagram

Ans. (A)

128.          Late expanding stagoe in demography is:

A. BR in low DR v. low

B. BR static DR ¯

C. BR less tahn DR

D. BR High DR High

Ans. (A)

129. Regarding purification of water all are true except:

A. Multiple tube method is used for sampling

B. E. coli can be tested by Indole test

C. Clostridial infection indicates recent infection

D. Level of residual chlorine should be 0.5 mg/L

Ans. (C)

130.                             In simple random sampling:

A. All have equal chance of getting selected

B. Selection is dependent on individuals characteristic

C. Only possible when complete sampling frame is not available

D. Suitable for large heterogeneous population

Ans. (A)

131.    Regarding crude birth rate all are true except:

A. Unaffected by Age-distribution

B. Indicator of fertility

C. Excludes the stillbirths

D. Is a better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate.

Ans. (D)

132.                 Cut off of Indian reference man (kg):

A. 60

B. 70

C. 50

D. 55

Ans. (A)

133. All of the following are correct about disinfectants excepts:

A. Glutaraldehyde-virus killing

B. Ethylene oxide is 3rd generation disinfecting agent

C. Phenols are ineffective against organic matter

D. Autoclaving is not suitable for sterilization of plastics and sharp instruments.

Ans. (C)

134. Most recent classification according to WHO for disability:

A. International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health’s

B. DALY

C. WHO DAIS

D. STEPS

Ans. (A)

135. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls, out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys that were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery?

A. 3/5

B. 2/6

C. 5/6

D. 1/2

Ans. (B)

136.                               True statement about RDA:

A. Average daily requirements of all nutrients

B. Average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories ± 2SD

C. Indicates adequacy of dietary intake

D. Applies to even sick people

Ans. (B)

137.                                               STEPS refers to:

A. Assessing incidence of risk factors of non-comunicable diseases

B. Assessing incidence of non-communicable diseases

C. Assessing Rx compliance of non-communicable diseases

D. Assessing rate of mortality of non-communicable diseases

Ans. (A)

138. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for the following except:

A. Meningitis meningococcal

B. Typhoid

C. Cholera

D. Plague

Ans. (B)

139.                                 Q fever is transmitted by:

A. Ticks

B. Mites

C. Louse

D. Aerosol

Ans. (A)

140.                 Toxin shock syndrome is caused by:

A. Infected DPT administration

B. IV DPT

C. Infected measles vaccine

D. Infected BCG vaccine

Ans. (C)

141.                            False about Aedes aegypti is:

A. Eggs can survive without water for > 7-8 days

B. Transmits dengue

C. Bites repeatedly

D. Incubation period in mosquito is 8-10 days

Ans. (A)

142. Which of the following is not part of targeted intervention in preventive strategy in spread of AIDS?

A. Providing ART

B. Treating STD

C. Providing Condoms

D. Behavior change communication

Ans. (A)

143.        Association of chronic diseae is all except:

A. Dose response relationship

B. Temporal association

C. Biological plausibility

D. Consistency

Ans. (None)

144.                       In a standard distribution curve:

A. Mean = 2 median

B. Median = Variance

C. Mean = Median

D. Standard deviation = 2 variance

Ans. (C)

145. Vitamin A prophylaxis program is an exmple of:

A. Primordial prevention

B. Health promotion

C. Specific protection

D. Disability limitation

Ans. (C)

146.      In HIV maximum risk of transmission is by:

A. Homosexual

B. Blood transfusion

C. Heterosexual

D. Needle pride

Ans. (B)

147.                                     Analytical studies A/E:

A. Case control

B. Ecological

C. Cohort

D. Field trials

Ans. (D)

148.        Baby friendly hospital initiative all except:

A. Breast feeding on demand

B. Initiate breastfeeding within 4 hours of (N) delivery

C. Allow mothers and infants to remain together 24 hr/day

D. Training of health care staff.

Ans. (B)

149. The modes of infection of the following diseases are all except:

A. Leptospirosis – rat urine

B. Tetanus – dust droplets

C. Listeria – refrigerated food

D. Legionella – aerosol

Ans. (B)

ent

150.                                       Trotters triad include

A. Deafness

B. Mandibular neuralgia

C. Palatal palsy

D. Seizures

Ans. (D)

151. A 38 years old man had labyrinthine fistula with positive fistula sign. Two weeks later fitula sign became negative without any treatment. Which of the following will be the Rinne’s test (tuning fork) finding:

A. True-positive Rinne’s test

B. False-positive Rinne’s test

C. True-negative Rinne’s test

D. False-negative Rinne’s test

Ans. (D)

152. A young man met with an accident leading to loss of hearing in the right ear. On otoscopy examination the tympanic membrane was intact. Pure tone audiometry showed AB gap of 55 dB on the right ear with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be probable tympanometry finding?

A. As type tympanogram

B. Ad type tympanogram

C. B type tympanogram

D. C type tympanogram

Ans. (B)

153. A 45 years old lady presented with a swelling in the parotid gland for the past 6 months. FNAC done from this area revealed lymphoepithelioma. All are true of lymphoepithelioma except:

A. Parotid gland is the most common site of lymphoepithelioma in the head and neck region

B. It is known to be caused by EBV

C. The epithelial cells are mainly malignant with lymphoid tissue

D. It is a highly radio sensitive tumor

Ans. (A)

154. Meningitis spread from CNS to Inner ear through:

A. Cochlear aqueduct

B. Endolymphatic sac

C. Vestibular aqueduct

D. Hyrti fissure

Ans. (A)

155.                         Laryngeal pseudosulcus true is:

A. Due to vocal abuse

B. Due to reflux induced laryngitis (pharyngoesophageal reflux)

C. Seen in TB

D. Due to high dose corticosteroids

Ans. (B)

156. True about Recurrent Laryngeal Papillomatosis (RLP):

A. Caused by Parvo virus

B. HPV 16 and HPV 18 are most commonly implicted

C. HPV 6 is most virulent

D. Transmission to the neonate occurs secondary to direct contact with mother

Ans. (D)

Eye

157. All are used in the treatment of diabetic retinopathy except:

A. Removal of epiretinal membrane

B. Vitrectomy

C. Retinal reattachment

D. Exo photocoagulation

Ans. (C)

158. Which of the following is best to differentiate CRVO from carotid artery occlusion?

A. Dilated retinal vein

B. Retinal artery pressure

C. Tortuous retinal vein

D. Ophthalmodynamometry

Ans. (D)

159.           Raised LHD levels in Aqueous is seen in:

A. Galactosemia

B. Glaucoma

C. Hemangioblastoma

D. Retinoblastoma

Ans. (D)

160.         ICG angiography is primarily indicated in:

A. Minimal classical CNV

B. Occult CNV

C. Angioid streaks with CNV

D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy

Ans. (B)

161. In fetus Angio genesis in eye involve all except:

A. TNF b

B. IL-8

C. BFGF

D. VEGF

Ans. (B)

162. True about Uveal effusion syndrome is all except:

A. Due to defect in sclera

B. Choroido-retinal detachment

C. Scleritis

D. Myopia

Ans. (D)

163. True about Juxta foveal Telangiectasia is all except:

A. Variant of Coat’s disease

B. Macular telangiectasia

C. Peripheral telangiectasia

D. Structural abnormality seen in vessels

Ans. (C)

164. All are true about Lambert Eaton syndrome except:

A. Spares ocular muscle

B. Tensilon test positive

C. Proximal muscle involvement

D. Repeat nerve stimulation improve muscle strengh

Ans. (A)

165.                All are true about visual cycle except:

A. Condensation of opsin with aldehyde of retinal NADP is reduced

B. NADP is reduced

C. NAD is reduced

D. Opsin combines with retinal to form visual purple

Ans. (C)

Medicine

166. Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by the following except:

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Acromegaly

C. Addison’s disease

D. Hypothyroidism

Ans. (C)

167.                     Hirsutism is caused by all except:

A. Cushing syndrome

B. Acromegaly

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Hyperprolactinemia

Ans. (c)

168. Systolic thrill in 2nd 3rd IC space. Causes all except:

A. Pink TOF

B. Sub-pulm VSD

C. Pulm stenosis

D. Ebstein anomaly

Ans. (B)

169. All of the following can be associated with PNH except:

A. Cerebral thrombosis

B. Budd Chiari

C. Pancytopenia

D. Massive splenomegaly

Ans. (D)

170.                        Aldosterone leads to all except:

A. Hypernatremia

B. Hypokalemia

C. HTN

D. Metabolic acidosis

Ans. (D)

171.                     Hypercalcemia is associated with:

A. Hyperparathyroidism

B. Sarcoidosis

C. Milk alkali syndrome

D. Celiac disease

Ans. (D)

172.               All lead to hyper coagulability except:

A. Burns

B. Hemorrhage

C. Infections

D. Surgery of 1 hour duration

Ans. (d)

173. Coombs positive hemolytic anemia associated with:

A. TTP

B. PAN

C. SLE

D. HUS

Ans. (C)

174.            True about temporal arteritis all except:

A. More common in females

B. Worsens on exposure to heat

C. Seen in elderly women

D. Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness

Ans. (B)

175.    Hepatomegaly with liver pulsations indicates:

A. TR

B. MR

C. Pulmonary hypertension

D. MS

Ans. (A)

176.                                   C wave in JVP indicates:

A. Atrial contraction

B. Bulging of tricuspid valve

C. Ventricle systole

D. Rapid ventricular filling

Ans. (B)

177. False-positive rheumatoid factor can be associated with all except:

A. Inflammatory bowel disease

B. HbsAg

C. VDRL

D. Coombs test

Ans. (A)

178. Patient with foreign body sensation in eye and swollen knee it after leisure trip:

A. Sarcoidosis

B. Reiter’s disease

C. Behcet’s disease

D. SLE

Ans. (B)

179.                      About Hepatitis C, which is true?

A. DNA virus

B. MC indication for liver transplant

C. Does not cause liver cancer

D. Does not cause coinfection with HBV

Ans. (B)

180. A 23 years old asymptomatic female pilot has MCV-70, ferritin – 100g/L, Hb – 10 gm%, what is the cause?

A. Thalassemia trait

B. B12 def

C. Folate def

D. Iron def

Ans. (A)

181.           Which of the following pair is incorrect?

A. Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy

B. Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis

C. Increased calcium ingestion causes iron deficiency

D. Vitamin A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vitamin A diet

Ans. (B)

182. Immediately after eating a man developed lump in throat, pruritis, dyspnea, cyanosis and not being able to breath after few hours. Most probable cause is:

A. Angioneurotic edema

B. Hypersensitivity reaction

C. MI

D. Food stuck in larynx

Ans. (B)

183. A girl-aged 8 years has been admitted for dialysis. She ahs serum K of 7.5 mEq/I, which is the fastest way to reduce the hyperkalemia?

A. Kayexalate enema

B. Infusion of insulin + glucose

C. IV calcium gluconate

D. IV NaCHO3

Ans. (B)

184.              Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is seenin:

A. Hypercalcemia

B. Hyperphosphatemia

C. Chronic renal failure

D. Hyperkalemia

Ans. (C)

185. Positive hepatojugular reflux is found in conditions except:

A. Tricuspid regurgitation

B. Right heart failure

C. Decreased after load

D. PS

Ans. (C)

186. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:

A. Autosomal recessive

B. Cutaneous fibromas

C. Cataract

D. Scoliosis

Ans. (A)

187. A 55 years old lady posted for hip replacement surgery. All of the following are known causes of DVT except:

A. PNH

B. OCP

C. Infections

D. Surgery for 1 hour

Ans. (C)

188.                                  SIRS includes all except:

A. Leukocytosis

B. Thrombocytopenia

C. Hypothermia

D. Oral temperature more than 38°C

Ans. (B)

189. Treatment for leukemia in a child with hyperleukocytosis is all except:

A. IV fluids

B. Allopurinol

C. Alkalinizations of urine

D. Immediately start chemotherapy

Ans. (D)

190.   Which of the following is not true about JRA?

A. Fever

B. Rheumatoid nodules

C. Uveitis

D. Raynaud’s phenomenon

Ans. (D)

191.              Positive urinary anion gap is found in:

A. RTA

B. Glue poisoning

C. Diabetic ketoacidosis

D. Diarrhea

Ans. (A)

192.                     Triad of tuberous sclerosis except:

A. Epilepsy

B. Adenoma sebaceum

C. Low intelligence

D. Hydrocephalus

Ans. (D)

193. Test for assessment of mucosal function of GIT:

A. D-Xylose test

B. Small bowel study

C. Biopsy

D. Schilling test

Ans. (A)

194. The following are the complications of the HIV infection except:

A. Cardiac temponade

B. Pericardial effusion

C. Aortic aneurysm

D. Cardiomyopathy

Ans. (C)

195. A young man with gout has synovial fluid removed. It would shows:

A. MSU crystals

B. CPPD crystals

C. PMN cells

D. Mono nuclear cells

Ans. (A)

196. In a lady with bilateral superior temporal quadrantopia, galactorrhea, the most probable cause is:

A. Pituitary macrodenoma

B. Craniopharyngioma

C. Sheehan’s syndrome

D. Pituitary hypophysitis

Ans. (A)

197.               Hepatomegaly is caused by all except:

A. Glycogen storage diseases

B. Niemann pick

C. Hepatic porphyria

D. Hurlers disease

Ans. (C)

198. Not seen in idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis:

A. Eosinopenia

B. Iron deficiency anemia

C. Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

D. Hemoptysis

Ans. (A)

199. A 29 years old person known diabetic on OHA since 3 years. He has lost weight. Never had DKA. His grand father is diabetic. His father is nondiabetic. Which is the likely diagnosis:

A. MODY

B. DM Type I

C. DM Type II

D. Pancreatic diabetes

Ans. (C)

200.                            About VHL which is not true:

A. Retinal and cerebellar hemangioblastoma

B. Gastric carcinoma

C. Pheochromocytoma

D. RCC

Ans. (B)

201.         Spastic paraplegia is caused by all except:

A. Vit B12 deficiency

B. Cervical spondylosis

C. Lead poisoning

D. Amyotropic lateral sclerosis

Ans. (C)

202. If a patient with severe hyperglycemia is given IV insulin, which of the following can occur?

A. Hypokalemia

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hypernatremia

Ans. (A)

203. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following except:

A. Polycythemia

B. Hypercalcemia

C. Malignant hypertension

D. Cushing syndrome

Ans. (D)

204. Which of the following won’t be present in right heart failure?

A. Increased PCWP

B. Pulsatile liver

C. Increased JVP

D. Positive hepatojugular reflex

Ans. (A)

205.                      Cystic fibrosis all are true except:

A. Defect in calcium channel

B. Pseudomonas infection seen

C. AR

D. Cirrhosis of liver can occur

Ans. (A)

Surgery

206. Which of the following is protective against carcinoma colon?

A. High fiber diet

B. High fat

C. High selenium diet

D. Low protein diet

Ans. (A)

207.      Which is high-risk for laparoscopic surgery?

A. Hiatus hemia

B. Obesity

C. Heart disease

D. Hb < 8 gm%

Ans. (B)

208. On USG of thyroid which is not sign of malignancy?

A. Hypoechogenicity

B. Hyperechogenicity

C. Microcalcification

D. Colloids

Ans. (D)

209. Patient with pancreatic transplant with urinary drainage. Monitoring will be done by:

A. Blood amylase

B. Urine amylase

C. Serum glucose levels

D. Serum lipase level

Ans. (B)

210.                                             SEPS is done for:

A. Arteries

B. Veins

C. Lymphatics

D. A-V fistula

Ans. (B)

211.        Thoracic outlet syndrome is diagnosed by:

A. Clinical examination

B. X-ray

C. Electromyography

D. CT scan

Ans. (A)

212.          MC cause of superficial thrombophlebitis:

A. IV injections

B. DVT

C. HT

D. Trauma

Ans. (A)

213.          Gold standard to diagnosis insulinoma is:

A. 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels

B. C-peptide < 50

C. Insulin levels > 5 mmol

D. Glucose < 3 mmol

Ans. (A)

214. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ruptures most commonly:

A. Ant

B. Post

C. Lat

D. Non

Ans. (C)

215. Pt. presents with punched out lesion on X-ray with Serum Na-144, K+, Ca-12, Globulin-8.4, alls 5.4, what will be next investigation to do?

A. Serum protein electrophoretic studies

B. Alk PO4– levels

C. Bone scan

D. ESR

Ans. (A)

216.    Best material for below inguinal arterial graft:

A. Saphenous upside down

B. PTFE

C. Dacron carmustine

D. Teflon

Ans. (A)

217. Most associated with moderate risk of breast carcinoma:

A. Atypical adenosis

B. Metaplasia

C. Atypical hypertrophy

D. Atypical hyperplasia

Ans. (D)

218. A 50-year-old male has thyroid nodule. FNAC is suggestive of papillary carcinoma. Best treatment is:

A. Hemithyroidectomy

B. Subtotal thyroidectomy with MR neck dissection

C. Total thyroidectomy MR neck dissection

D. Hemithyroidectomy with MR neck dissection

Ans. (A)

219. Most important prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma:

A. Site of lesion

B. Stage of lesion

C. Age of patient

D. LN status

Ans. (B)

220.                    What is intermittent claudication?

A. Pain on 1st step

B. Pain on exercise only

C. Pain on last step

D. Pain at rest

Ans. (B)

221. A gallbaldder with a polyp, what is not a risk factor for development of carcinomas:

A. Presence of gallstones

B. Age > 60 years

C. Polyp > 5 mm in length

D. Sudden ­ in the size of polyp

Ans. (C)

222. The patient has chronic arterial obstruction. He presents with:

A. Gangrene and claudication

B. Intermittent claudication

C. Rest pains

D. Gangrene

Ans. (B)

223.                                  Zenker’s diverticulum is:

A. Barium swallow in lateral position is best investigation

B. Outpouching in the anterior pharyngeal wall

C. True diverticula

D. Out pouching above cricopharyngeal sphincter

Ans. (D)

224.               Stress incontinence is best treated by:

A. Bladder training

B. Pelvic exercises

C. Drugs

D. Surgery

Ans. (D)

225. A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has BP of 100/80 mm Hg, pulse 120 bpm. Respiration stabilized through air-way. Next best step in the management is:

A. Immediate blood transfusion

B. Blood for cross-matcing + IV fluids

C. Ventilate the patient

D. Rush to the OT

Ans. (B)

226.                  Chemoradiotherapy is not given in:

A. II ca cervix

B. Anal carcinoma T2 N1 M0

C. T2 N0 M0 glottic Ca

D. Nasopharyngeal Ca

Ans. (C)

227. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection is:

A. Uric acid

B. Triple phosphate

C. Calcium oxalate

D. Xanthine

Ans. (B)

228. Entrapment neuropathies commonly affect the following nerves except:

A. Tibial

B. Femoral

C. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

D. Median N

Ans. (B)

229. Regarding pancreatic cancer, all are true except:

A. More than 75% have p53 mutations

B. More common in people with familial pancreatitis

C. 3-6 m survival in stage 3

D. 15-20% survival on 5 years

Ans. (D)

230.               Smoking doesn’t cause which cancer:

A. Larynx

B. Nasopharynx

C. Esophagus

D. Bladder

Ans. (B)

231.                     Triple assessment for Ca breast is:

A. History, clinical examination and mammogram

B. History, clinical examination and FNAC

C. History and mammogram and FNAC

D. Clinical examination, mammogram and FNAC/biopsy

Ans. (D)

232.                         Psedoclaudication seen due to:

A. Femoral artery

B. Popliteal artery

C. Lumbar canal stenosis

D. Radial artery

Ans. (C)

233. Prognostic factors for lymphoma are all except:

A. Stage of disease

B. Number of extralymphatic sites involved

C. LDH

D. Hemoglobin

Ans. (D)

234. Lumber sympathectomy is of value in the management of all except:

A. Arteriovenous fistula

B. Distal ischemia

C. Intermittent claudication

D. Anhidrosis

Ans. (D)

235.          Most common type of parastomal hernia:

A. Loop colostomy

B. End colostomy

C. Loop ileostomy

D. End ileostomy

Ans. (B)

236. Difference between follicular adenoma and carcinoma:

A. Hurthle cell

B. Increaed mitosis

C. Vascular invasion

D. None

Ans. (C)

Pediatrics

237.                                Vaccine with best efficacy:

A. TT

B. DPT

C. Measles

D. Typhoid

Ans. (C)

238. Integrated management of childhood illness includes except:

A. ARI

B. Malaria

C. Diarrhea

D. TB

Ans. (D)

239. Nutrition in community is assessed by all/except:

A. Hb <115 gm% in 3rd trimester pregnancy

B. ­ 1-4 yr mortality rate

C. Height and weight of children

D. BW < 2500 gm

Ans. (A)

240. Most common sign of acute hypoxia in neonates:

A. Tachycardia

B. Bradycardia

C. Cardiac arrest tachypnea

D. Ventricular arrhythmia

Ans. (B)

241.                            Staging for Wilms syndrome:

A. Chadwick

B. International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)

C. AJCC

D. TNM

Ans. (B)

242. A five-year-old boy has precocious puberty bp 130/80. Estimation of which of the following will help in diagnosis?

A. 17-Hydroxyprogesterone

B. 11-Deoxycortisol

C. Aldosterone

D. DOCA

Ans. (B)

243. A Down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is:

A. Echocardiography

B. CT brain

C. X-ray cervical spine

D. USG abdomen

Ans. (A)

244. A female child was brought with complaint of generalized swelling of her body. She was passing cast in her urine. No hematuria. The true treatment is:

A. No IgG or C3 deposition seenon renal biopsy

B. Her C3 levels could be low

C. IgA nephropathy is likely

D. Alport syndrome

Ans. (A)

245. True about infantile polycystic kidney disease include the following except:

A. Autosomal dominant

B. Hepatic cysts

C. Renal cysts present at birth

D. Periportal fibrosis

Ans. (A)

246.                            Marker of neural tube defect:

A. Phosphatidylesterase

B. Pseudocholinesterase

C. Acetylcholinesterase

D. Butyrycholinesterase

Ans. (C)

247. A child presents raised sweat cloride levels and suspicion of cystic fibrosis, which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?

A. Repeat sweat chloride measurements

B. Nasal electrode potential difference

C. Fat in stol for next 72 hours

D. DNA analysis for delta F-508 mutation

Ans. (B)

OBG

248.                      Creamy fishy odour is caused by:

A. Trichomonas

B. Gardnerella

C. Candida

D. Chlamydia

Ans. (B)

249. A pregnant female, just diagnosed to be HBS positive what is the Best Management?

A. Anti HB vaccine to neonate

B. Immunoglobulins to neonate

C. Both

D. Observation

Ans. (C)

250.           Best contraception for lactating mother:

A. Barrier

B. OCPs

C. POPs

D. Lactational amenorrhea

Ans. (C)

251.               Vaginal delivery allowed in all except:

A. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

B. First twin cephalic and second breech

C. Extended breech

D. Mento anterior

Ans. (A)

252. Minimum duration between onset of symptoms and death is seen in:

A. APH

B. PPH

C. Septicemia

D. Obstructed labor

Ans. (B)

253. Evidence-based treatments for menorrhagia are all except:

A. OCPs

B. Progesterone for three months cyclically

C. Tranexamic acid

D. Ethamsylate

Ans. (D)

254.                    Which is raised in dysgerminoma?

A. AFP

B. LDH

C. HCG

D. CA-A 19-9

Ans. (B)

255. A female 35 years para 3, liver 3 (P3, L3) with CIN III on colposcopic biopsy what would you do?

A. LEEP

B. Conization

C. Hysterectomy

D. Cryotherapy

Ans. (B)

256.             Mifepristone is used in management of:

A. Threatened abortion

B. Fibroid

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. Molar pregnancy

Ans. (C)

257. True regarding DMPA include the following except:

A. 0.3% failure rate

B. Does not have protective effect on C/A endometrium

C. Can be given in seizures

D. Useful in treatment of menohorrhegia

Ans. (B)

258.             All are true about pre-eclampsia except:

A. Cerebral hemorrhage

B. Pulmonary edema

C. ARF

D. DVT

Ans. (A)

259. Pregnant women in 1st trimester is given spiramycin that she did not take complete treatment and baby is born with hydrocephalus. From which infection she was suffering?

A. HSV

B. Treponema pallidum

C. Toxoplasma

D. CMV

Ans. (C)

260.                   Primary amenorrhea is not seen in:

A. Sheehan’s syndrome

B. Kallmann’s syndrome

C. Mayer Rokitsansky Kuster Hauser syndrome

D. Turner syndrome

Ans. (A)

261.   About Lupus anticoagulant all are true except:

A. Increase in aPTT only

B. Recurrent 2nd trimester abortion in pregnant females

C. Can occur without other symptoms of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

D. Thrombotic spells can be followed by severe life threatening hemorrhage

Ans. (D)

262. The following drug can be given safely in pregnancy:

A. Propylthiouracil

B. MTX

C. Warfarin

D. Tetricycline

Ans. (A)

263. All drugs can be given to a mother with lupus who is on 35th week of gestation except:

A. Chloroquine

B. Methotrexate

C. Sulphadiazine/sulphasalazine

D. Prenisolone

Ans. (B)

264. In surgical staging of ovarian Ca, all are done except:

A. Peritoneal washing

B. Liver biopsy

C. Omental biopsy

D. Palpation of organs

Ans. (B)

Orthopedics

265.                               Athletic pubalgia is due to:

A. Abdominal muscle strain

B. Quadriceps strain

C. Rectus femoris strain

D. Gluteus maximus strain

Ans. (A)

266.       All are involved in entrapment neuropathy:

A. Median nerve

B. Tibial nerve

C. Femoral nerve

D. Lat cutaneous of thigh

Ans. (C)

267.                  True about synovial fluid all except:

A. Secreted by Type A cells

B. Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics

C. Contains hyaluronic acid

D. Viscosity co efficient is variable

Ans. (A)

268.                        Recurrent dislocation is rare in:

A. Ankle

B. Hip

C. Shoulder

D. Patella

Ans. (A)

269. Which of the following is used in osteoporosis for decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone formation:

A. Teriparatide

B. Calcitonin

C. Strontium ranelate

D. Bisphosphate

Ans. (C)

270.               Not a treatment for chronic backache:

A. NSAID

B. Bed rest for 3 months

C. Exercises

D. Epidural steroid injection

Ans. (D)

271.                         Myodesis is contraindicated in:

A. Children

B. Tumor

C. Ischemia

D. Paralysis

Ans. (C)

272.                                            Milkman fracture:

A. Pseudofracture

B. Fracture of metatarsals

C. Fracture of distal end of radius

D. Fracture of 5th metacarpal

Ans. (A)

273.                High tibial osteotomy all true except:

A. Not > 30 degree correction can be achieved

B. Done though cancellous bone

C. High change of recurrence

D. It is done unicompartmental OA

Ans. (A)

274. What is the most common cause of death after total hip replacement in elderly lady?

A. Infection

B. Deep vein thrombus

C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Pneumonia

Ans. (B)

Radiology

275.   Most sensitive investigation for DCIS invasive:

A. Mammography

B. USG

C. MRI

D. PET

Ans. (C)

276. Potential for Reperfusion of the tissue, post-infarct can be assessed by:

A. MUGA scan

B. Thallium scan

C. Echo cardiography

D. MRI

Ans. (B)

277. On USG diffuse thickening of gallbaldder with hyperechoic shadow at neck and comet-tailing is seen in:

A. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis

B. Adenomyomatosis

C. Adenomyomatous polyps

D. Cholesterol crystals

Ans. (B)

278. Ca breast is not discovered in mammography in young woman due to:

A. Dense glandular tissue

B. Fat replaces glandular tissue

C. Loose tissue

D. Thick overlying skin in young

Ans. (A)

279.        Adrenal adenoma on CT which is not true:

A. Hypodense mass

B. Micro calcification can be present

C. Contrast appears early and washes out late

D. Regular border

Ans. (C)

280. Which of the following contain Fat on mammography?

A. Traumatic cyst

B. Fibroadenoma

C. Keratosis

D. Galactocele

Ans. (A, D)

281.                          Prunning of vessels is seen in:

A. Lung tumor

B. Primary Pulmonary hypertension

C. Chronic Bronchitis

D. Pulmonary infections

Ans. (B)

282. All of the following is feature of temporal lobe epilepsy except:

A. Atrophy of fornices

B. Atrophy of temporal lobe

C. Atrophy of hippocampus

D. Atrophy of mammillary body

Ans. (B)

283. Calcification of posterior spinal ligament is best diagnosed by:

A. MRI

B. CT

C. X-ray

D. USG

Ans. (B)

Psychiatry

284. Which diseases are given benefit under Disability Act except (AIIMS Nov.):

A. Mental retardation

B. Schizophrenia

C. Bipolar disorder

D. Dementia

Ans. (A)

285.                All are indications of lithium except:

A. Neutropenia

B. Major Depression

C. Vasculogenic Headache

D. Generalized anxiety disorder

Ans. (D)

286. Which of the following is recently included under ICD 10?

A. Lack of exercise

B. Alcoholism

C. Poisoning

D. Unhealthy food

Ans. (D)

Anesthesia

287.  Paravertebral black, can extend into all except:

A. Sub-arachnoids space

B. Epidural space

C. Sub and inferior paravertebral space

D. Inter costal space

Ans. (C)

288. Sodium Bicarbonate given as an adjunct to local anesthetics because

A. ­ onset faction and ­ duration

B. ¯ onset faction and ­ duration

C. ¯ onset faction and ¯ duration

D. ­ onset faction and ¯ duration

Ans. (A)

289. Signs of successful Stellate ganglion block all except:

A. Miosis

B. Guttaman sign

C. Bradycardia

D. Unilateral nasal stuffiness

Ans. (C)

Skin

290. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:

A. Autosomal recessive

B. Cutaneous fibromas

C. Cataract

D. Scoliosis

Ans. (A)

291.        Primary Skin lesion are seen in all except:

A. Bowen’s disease

B. Reiter’s

C. Psoriasis

D. Lichen planus

Ans. (A)

292.                  Scarring alopecia is associated with:

A. Alopecia areata

B. Tinea capitis

C. Androgenic alopecia

D. Lichen planus

Ans. (D)

293. A neonate with focal skin lesions and hypoplastic limbs causative agent:

A. Cytomegalovirus

B. Herpes Zoster

C. Toxoplasma

D. T. pallidum

Ans. (B)

294. Patient present with 5 days fever and raised erythematous lesions. Which on biopsy revealed neutrophilic infiltrate. What is a most probable diagnosis:

A. ENL

B. Sweet syndrome

C. Erythema nodosum diminuta

D. None

Ans. (B)

295. Involvement of sweat glands and hair follicies with granuloma around the hair follicles is seen in:

A. Lichen Scrofulosum

B. Papulonecrotic tuberculid

C. Lupus vulgaris

D. Military TB

Ans. (A)

296. Incontinentia pigmenti are associated with all except:

A. 100% ocular problems

B. x-linked dominant condition

C. Linear hyperpigmented skin lesions

D. Associated with eye problems

Ans. (A)