ALL INDIA 2008

ANATOMY

1.      Which of the following is not true about DIPLOIC VEINS?

1.     Are present in cranial bones

2.     Develop during the eighth week of intrauterine life

3.     They are devoid of valves

4.     They are thin walled with endothelial lining and elastic tissue only

Ans. 2

2.      All the following bones contribute to the formation of Nasal septum Except (PGI 2003)

1.     Sphenoid

2.     Lacrimal

3.     Palatine

4.     Ethmoid

Ans. 2

3.      Which of the following the type of joint between ear ossicles?

1.     Primary cartilagionous

2.     Secondary cartilagionous

3.     Synovial

4.     Fibrous

Ans. 3

4.      Which of the following is the FINAL COMMON PATHWAY for horizontal gaze?

1.     Oculomotor nulens

2.     Abducens nuleus

3.     Trochlear nuleus

4.     Vestibular nuleus

Ans. 2

5.      Which of the following cranial nerve nucleus is NOT general somatic efferent?

1.     Oculomotor

2.     Trochlear

3.     Facial

4.     Abducens

Ans. 3

6.      Which of the following is the nucleus of trigeminal nerve where the afferent arch (impulses) for massetor reflex are carried?

1.     Spinal nucleus

2.     Mesencephalic nucleus

3.     Sensory nucleus

4.     Motor nucleus

Ans. 2

7.      Which of the following is concerned with pain and temperature?

1.     Pyramidal tract

2.     Anterior spinothalamic tract

3.     Lateral spinothalamic tract

4.     Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

Ans. 3

8.      Which of the following is not carried by posterior column tract?

1.     Touch

2.     Pain

3.     Pressure

4.     Vibration

Ans. 2

9.      Facial colliculus located at in?

1.     Pons

2.     Medulla

3.     Mid brain

4.     Interpeduncular fossa

Ans. 1

10.    Which of the following is not a feature of lower radial nerve injury?

1.     Weakness of Brachioradialis

2.     Inadility of extend fingers

3.     Paralysis of extersor carpi radiolis bravis

4.     Loss of sensations over dorsum of hand

Ans. 1

11.    The “Physiological locking” of the KNEE joint occurs as a result of?

1.     Medial rotation of tibia over the fixed femur

2.     Lateral rotation of femur over teh tibia

3.     Lateral rotation of tibia over the femur

4.     Lateral rotation of femur over the fixed tibia

Ans. 4

12.    Coronary ligment is between?

1.     Menisci and synovium

2.     Posterior horns of two menisci

3.     Menisci and Tibia

4.     Mensici and Femur

Ans. 3

13.    Which of the following is the arterial supply to ACL?               (Anterior curciate ligament)?

1.     Fibular head artery

2.     Descending genicular artery

3.     Superior genicular artery

4.     Middle genicular artery

Ans. 4

14.    An altered sensation over the area of great sephanous vein in the leg may occur due to injury to which of the following nerve?

1.     Femoral nerve

2.     Tibial nerve

3.     Sural nerve

4.     Fibular nerve

Ans. 1

15.    Which of the following is present in the free edge of the peritoneal reflection that forms one of the borders of the paraduodenal fossa?

1.     Middle colic vein

2.     Left colic vein

3.     Splenic vein

4.     Inferior mesenteric vein

Ans. 4

16.    Which of the following is not a tributary of cavernous sinus?

1.     Superifcial middle cerebral vein

2.     Supeior peterosal sinus

3.     Inferior petrosal sinus

4.     Deep cerebral vein

Ans. 4

17.    Which of the following artery supplies ductus deferens?

1.     Cremastric artery

2.     Inferior epigastric artery

3.     Middle rectal artery

4.     Superior vesical artery

Ans. 4

18.    ‘Composite muscles’ include the following except?

1.     Pectinius

2.     Adductor magnus

3.     Rectus femoris

4.     Biceps femoris

Ans. 1

19.    Following are the ‘Digastric muscles’ except?

1.     Occipitofrontalis

2.     Sternocleidomastoid

3.     Omohyoid

4.     Ligament of Treitz

Ans. 4

20.    Lining cells of the air passages and alveoli include the following EXCEPT

1.     Kultisky cells

2.     Clara cells

3.     Bruch cells

4.     Langerhan cells

Ans. 4

21.    Bronchial artery supplies lungs up to?

1.     Tertiary bronchioles

2.     Terminal bronchioles

3.     Rspiratory bronchioles

4.     Alveolar ducts

Ans. 3

PHYSIOLOGY

1.      In Lewis triple response when the skin is firmly stroked, the initila reddening at that site is due to which of the following?

1.     Arteriolar dilatation.

2.     Rupture of capillaries.

3.     Capillary dilatation.

4.     Increased permeability of capillaries and post-capillary venules.

Ans. 3

2.      Which of the following helps in bridging the fibrin in a clot and stabilizes the clot?

1.     Factor III

2.     Factor V

3.     Factor VIII

4.     Factor XIII

Ans. 4

3.      Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid in clotting factors II, VII and protein C

1.     Vitamin K

2.     Vitamin C

3.     Vitamin A

4.     Vitamin E

Ans. 1

4.      Rh factor is

1.     IgM antibody

2.     Mucopolysaccharide

3.     IgG antibody

4.     Fatty acid

Ans. 2

5.      Correct sequence of the sperm movements:

1.     Rete testis - straight tubules-efferent tubules

2.     Straight tubules - Rete testis - efferent tubules

3.     Straight tubules - efferent tubules - epididymis

4.     Straight tubules - Rete testis - epididymis

Ans. 2

6.      Which of the following is true regarding rquirement of temperature for spermatogenesis?

1.     Requires temperature higher than core temperature

2.     Requieres temperature should be conducive

3.     Requires temperature lower than core temperature

4.     Requires temperature equal to core temperature

Ans. 3

7.      Which of the following is true regarding fertillzation and implantation?

1.     Morulla is covered by trophoblast

2.     Haploid cells formation in both

3.     Morula is actively motile in oviducts

4.     Beta HCG secretion is by Periembryonal stromal tissue

Ans. 4

8.      True regarding blood pressure measured by Sphygmonanometer includes which of the following?

1.     Same in a person when measured even at different time

2.     Is less than intra-arterial blood pressure

3.     Is equal to Blood pressure measured by Aneroid syphygmanometer

4.     Depends on velocity of blood flow

Ans. 4

9.      True about Secretin inculde the follwoing EXCEPT:

1.     It increases the alkalinity of biliary and pancreatic secretion.

2.     It decreases gastric acid secretion

3.     It decreases gastrin secretion and gastric emptying

4.     Increases flow and velocity of bile

Ans. 4

10.    Which of the following is helpful for folding of proteins?

1.     Chaperones

2.     Ribozymes

3.     Scaffold proteins

4.     Apoproteins

Ans. 1

11.    Basement membrane damage is mediated by            (AI 2007)

1.     Metalloproteases

2.     Myeloperoxidase

3.     superoxide dismutase

4.     Capsases

Ans. 1

12.    Sorting of protein occurs in which of the following?

1.     Golgi bodies

2.     Ribosomes

3.     Lysosomes

4.     Mitochondria

Ans. 1

13.    Which of the following is not true regarding p53?

1.     controls the production and encodes 53KD

2.     present on chromosome 17

3.     arrests cell cycle in G1 phase

4.     Wild type non-mutant p53 results in malignancies in childhood

Ans. 1

14.    Lymph flow from the foot is?

1.     Increased when an individual rises from the supine to standing position

2.     Increased by massaging the foot

3.     Increased when capillary permeability is decreased

4.     Decreased when the valves of the leg veins are incompetent

Ans. 2

15.    Which of the following is true regarding physiological changes in brain during exercise?

1.     Blood flow is decreased

2.     Blood flow is increased

3.     Blood flow remains unaltered

4.     Blood flow initially is increased and then decreases

Ans. 3

16.    Which of the following triggers muscle contraction?

1.     Binding of calcium to tropomyosin

2.     Binding of calcium to tropoinin C

3.     ATP breasdown

4.     Stability to troponin-tropomyosin complex

Ans. 2

17.    Which of the following is NOT a Sarcolemal protein?

1.     Perlecan

2.     Dystrophin

3.     Alpha dystroglycan

4.     Sarcoglycan

Ans. 1

18.    Transport of neutral substances across the cells occurs via?

1.     Porin

2.     Ionophore

3.     Lipopolyscahrides

4.     Cavolin

Ans. 1

19.    Which of the following is the active form of calcium in body?

1.     Ionised calcium

2.     Calcium phosphate

3.     Calcium carbonate

4.     Bound to albumin

Ans. 1

20.    True regarding human heart?

1.     Conduction of impulse form endocardium to inwards

2.     During exercise systole is reduced more in duration more than diastole

3.     Heart Rate increases with denervation

4.     Vagal stimulation, decreases force of contraction

Ans. 3

BIOCHEMISTRY

1.      High energy phosphates are produced in the following EXCEPT:

1.     HMP shunt

2.     Oxidative reaction

3.     TCA cycle

4.     Glycolysis

Ans. 1

2.      Gamma carboxylation involves:   

1.     Vitamin C

2.     Vitamin K

3.     Vitamin D

4.     Vitamin A

Ans. 2

3.      Phosphorylase B in the muscle is normally kept in inhibited stated by which one of the following?

1.     ATP

2.     AMP

3.     Calcium

4.     Glucose

Ans. 1

4.      Which of the following is water soluble?

1.     Vitamin K

2.     Folic acid

3.     Vitamin A

4.     Trpollin

Ans. 2

5.      Main function of Apoprotein C?

1.     Cholesterol synthesis

2.     TG transport

3.     Increases activity of Lipoprotein lipase

4.     Fatty acid synthesis

Ans. 3

6.      Thrombin activity is not inhibited by?

1.     Chymotrypsin

2.     Heparin cofactor II

3.     Alpha2 antitrypsin

4.     Alpha2 macroglobulin

Ans. 1

7.      Okazaki fragments are formed during?

1.     Transcription

2.     DSDNA replication

3.     Single stranded DNA replication

4.     Translation

Ans. 2

8.      Reactive oxygen intermediates in lysosomes are produced by ?

1.     NADPH oxidase

2.     Superoxide dismutase

3.     Castalase

4.     Glutathione peroxidase

Ans. 1

9.      Which of the following is not a component of inter photorecepor matrix?

1.     Matrix metalloprotienases

2.     TIMPs

3.     SPACR

4.     Mimecan

Ans. 4

PATHOLOGY

1.      Delayed continuous vascular permeability in infalammation is primarily due to which of the following?

1.     Endothelial contraction

2.     Retraction of endothelial venules and capillaries

3.     Direct endothelial injury

4.     Angiogenesis

Ans. 2

2.      Which of the following is TRUE regarding Bradykinin?

1.     Pain in inflammation

2.     Decreases vascular premeability

3.     Vasoconstriction

4.     Bronchodilatation

Ans. 1

3.      A patient has retinoblastoma. He is also likely to develop Mandibular ozteosarcoma if the pathogenetic causes are the following EXCEPT:

1.     P53 gene mutation

2.     Radiation induced

3.     Chemotherapy induced

4.     Mutation of Rb gene

Ans. 3

4.      Major protein component in Haemodialysis associated amyloidosis?

1.     Beta2-Microglobulin

2.     Transthyretin

3.     Calcitonin

4.     Prealbumin

Ans. 1

5.      HMB-45 is immunohistochemistry marker for

1.     Melanoma

2.     PNET

3.     Neurofibroma

4.     Rhabdomyosarcoma

Ans. 1

6.      Process under which the difference in expression of a gene occurs according to which parent has transmitted is known as

1.     Genomic imprinting

2.     Moscism

3.     Anticipation

4.     Penetrance

Ans. 1

7.      Which of the following is Not a malignancy?

1.     Plasmacytoma

2.     Askin tumor

3.     Fibromatosis

4.     Chloroma

Ans. 3

8.      Which of the following oncogene is a growth factor?

1.     fos

2.     jun

3.     myc

4.     sis

Ans. 4

9.      Which of the following is the most specific marker for hodgkins’s lymphoma?

1.     CD 15 and CD 68

2.     CD 15 and CD 30

3.     CD 15 and CD 45

4.     CD 30 and CD 68

Ans. 2

10.    The Cold agglutinins are?

1.     Anti-IgMab

2.     Anti-IgG ab

3.     Donnath landsteiner antibody

4.     Anti-IgA ab

Ans. 1

11.    Poor prognostic factor in AML:

1.     Inv 16

2.     T (8, 21)

3.     Normal karyotype

4.     Monosomy 7

Ans. 4

12.    Differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow inculde the following EXCEPT:    (AI 2007)

1.     Megaloblastic anemia.

2.     Myelodysplasia.

3.     Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria.

4.     Congenital dyseryhtropoietic anemia

Ans. 1

13.    Hisroathological finding in Wipple’s disease?

1.     Histiocytic infiltration in lamina propria

2.     Nonnecrotizing granulomatous lesions

3.     Proliferation

4.     Eosinophilic infiltration in mucosa

Ans. 1

14.    All of the following EXCEPT ONE are non-proliferative glomerulopathies?

1.     Amyloidosis

2.     Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis

3.     Membranous Glomerulonephritis

4.     Focal segmental Glomerulonephritis

Ans. 2

15.    Crescentic Glomerulopathies inculde the following EXCEPT:

1.     HSP

2.     Anti-basement membrane disease

3.     Alport’s syndrome

4.     PSGN

Ans. 3

16.    Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is characterized by the following EXCEPT:

1.     Recurrent abortions

2.     Arterial thrombosis

3.     Pancytopenia

4.     Pulmonary hypertension

Ans. 3

17.    Ferruginous bodies are seen in?

1.     Silicosis

2.     Asbestosis

3.     Bagasosis

4.     Bysinosis (lung)

Ans. 2

18.    Which of the following is not a pathological feature of malignant hypertension?

1.     Segmental dilation of vessels

2.     Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles

3.     Hyperplastic arteriolitis

4.     Hyaline arteriosclerosis

Ans. 4

19.    Specific marker for Synovial sarcoma is:

1.     T (X, 18)

2.     T (9, 22)

3.     T (17-9)

4.     T (11, 14)

Ans. 1

20.    Rossetes are characteristically seen in:

1.     Retinoblastoma

2.     Pulmonaryblastoma

3.     Hepatoblastoma

4.     Pancreatoblastoma

Ans. 1

21.    Pick bodies (in Pick’s disease)

1.     Hyperphosphorylated tau

2.     Ubicutin

3.     Alpha synclein

4.     Beta synclein

Ans. 1

22.    ‘Biondi ring’ tangles are seen in

1.     Amylodosis

2.     Cells of Cerebral cortex

3.     Lining of the choroid plexus

4.     Pigmentary cells of retina

Ans. 3

MICROBIOLOGY

1.      Which of the following streptococcal components cross reactos with Synovial fluid in joints?

1.     Carbohydrate C antigen

2.     Polysaccharide capsule

3.     Hyaluronic acid

4.     Cell wall antigen

Ans. 2

2.      Which one of the following is TRUE regarding Pneumocystis jirovecii?

1.     Occurs only in immunocompromised individuals

2.     Sputum examination is very helpful in diagnosis

3.     It causes pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis with formation of ari in intestinal wall

4.     Most commonly associated with CMV infection

Ans. 1

3.      H5N1 is

1.     Virulent Strain of H. infuenzae

2.     Bird flu virus

3.     Strain of plasmodium causing Malaria found especially in Andaman Nicobar Island

4.     Newer vaccine for HIV

Ans. 2

4.      Following are least susceptible to disinfectants and antiseptics?

1.     Spore

2.     Prions

3.     Protozoa

4.     Fungi

Ans. 2

5.      True regarding prions

1.     It contains nuclear mateial

2.     Infectious

3.     Immunogenic

4.     Nonpathogenic

Ans. 2

6.      True about enterococci inculde the following EXCEPT

1.     E. fecalis anf E. are pathogenic to humans

2.     They are penicillin sensitive

3.     They grow in bile

4.     Endocarditis is known pathogenicity

Ans. 2

7.      All the following statements are true about V.cholera o 139 execpt?

1.     Clinical manifestations are similar to O1 Eltor strain

2.     First discovered in Chennai

3.     Epidemiologically indistinguishable form O1 Eltor strain

4.     Produces O1 lipopolysaccharide

Ans. 4

8.      Contrast related reactions like edema, urticaria, rash are mediated by?

1.     IgE mediated reaction

2.     Anaphylactoid reaction

3.     Cell mediated immunity

4.     Ig A mediated reaction

Ans. 1

9.      Which of the following is NOT true regarding Superantigens?

1.     Produced due to bacterial and viral products

2.     Acticate vary large number of T-cells irrespective of their antigenic specidicity

3.     Bind to the cleft in the MHC II Molecules

4.     Binds directly to the lateral aspect of the TCR beta chain

Ans. 3

10.    All the following are true about ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS EXCEPT

1.     All leucocytes, endothelial and epithelial cells antigen- presenting cells

2.     MHCII molecules are present on the antigen-presenting cells

3.     They are abundant in the thymic medulla

4.     B-cells after activation do not present antigen

Ans. 4

11.    All EXCEPT one are true regarding Yaws:

1.     Caused by Treponema subspecies T.petenue

2.     It cross reacts with antibody titer of syphilis

3.     It is transmitted sexually

4.     The recommended treatment is benzathine penicillin

Ans. 3

12.    Meningitis in a 65-year-old elderly female can be caused by all the following EXCEPT?

1.     Streptococcus pneumonae

2.     HSV-2

3.     Listeria monocytogens

4.     Gram negative bacteria

Ans. 2

PHARMACOLOGY

1.      Therapeutic index is indicator of      (orrisa 2002)

1.     Safety

2.     Efficacy

3.     Potency

4.     Toxicity

Ans. 1

2.      Which one of the following is TRUE about Phase II clinical trial?

1.     Large number of patients are included

2.     Primary aim is to establish therapeutic efficacy

3.     Safety, and tolerability of a drug are assessed

4.     A ‘new drug application’ is submitted to authority

Ans. 2

3.      Xenobiotics involves all of the following enzymes except?

1.     Hydroxylation

2.     Cytochrome oxidase

3.     Cytochrome P450

4.     Methylation

Ans. 2

4.      Drugs causing Urine discoloration inculde the following EXCEPT:

1.     Quinine

2.     Pyridine

3.     Rifampicin

4.     Nitrofurantoin

Ans. 1

5.      Anit-malarial used resistant P. falciparum malaria in childhood?

1.     Doxycycline

2.     Chloroquine

3.     Clindamycin

4.     Tetracycline

Ans. 3

6.      Antifungal drugs are the following except one

1.     Ketoconazole

2.     Undecylic acid

3.     Ciclopirox

4.     Cyclofacimine

Ans. 4

7.      Drug of choice for Diphtheria chemoprophylaxis?

1.     Doxycyclin

2.     Erythromycin

3.     Tertracyclin

4.     Ampicillin

Ans. 2

8.      Drug that is most effective in pseudomonas infection?

1.     Ampicillin

2.     Piperacillin

3.     Amoxicillin

4.     Carbenicillin

Ans. 2

9.      Treatment of choice for Neurosyphilis?

1.     Procaine penicillin

2.     Benzathine penicillin

3.     Oral penicillin G

4.     Ampicillin

Ans. 1

10.    All the following are TRUE abour Penicillin G except?

1.     Can be given orally

2.     Main mechanism of action is tubular secretion

3.     Probenacid decreases its secretion

4.     Better than ceftriaxone for disseminated gonorrhea

Ans. 1

11.    True regarding Penicillins?

1.     Effecative against Garm positive as well as gram negative bacteria

2.     Penicillin G is not susceptible to inactivation by beta-lactamases.

3.     Penicillin V has smaller spectrum similar to penicillin G

4.     Penicillin G is more acid-stable than penicillin V.

Ans. 1

12.    Which of the following is nephrotoxic?

1.     Streptomycin

2.     Ciprofloxacin

3.     Piperacillin

4.     Cefotaxim

Ans. 4

13.    Which off the following antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis?

1.     Doxycyclin

2.     Nitrofurantoin

3.     Cephalosporin

4.     Penicillin

Ans. 1

14.    Drugs contradicated in G6PD deficiency include all except?

1.     Quinine

2.     Chloroquine

3.     Primaquine

4.     Pyrimethamine

Ans. 4

15.    Drugs not effective in treatment of typhoid?

1.     Amikacin

2.     Cotrimoxazole

3.     Ciprofloxacin

4.     Ceftriaxone

Ans. 1

16.    All the following are CORRECT regarding Methicillin resistance of Staph EXCEPT

1.     MRSA indicates resistance to all betalactamases

2.     MRSA resistance is Betalactamase independent

3.     It is Plasmid dependent

4.     At 37°C resistance is more expressed

Ans. 4

17.    True about the Side-effects of TETRACYLINE include the following EXCEPT

1.     Can cause Pseudotumor cerebri

2.     Teratogenicity

3.     Discoloration of teeth may occur

4.     Superinfection can occur

Ans. 2

18.    Ipratopium bromide is absolutely contraindicated in

1.     Asthma

2.     Hypertensiion

3.     Peptic ulcer

4.     Urinary retention

Ans. 3

19.    Heparin in pregneat female if given, should be supplemented with

1.     Zinc

2.     Calcium

3.     Copper

4.     Folic acid

Ans. 2

20.    Paclitaxel act by

1.     Topoismerase inhibitor

2.     Inhibition of Microtubule formation

3.     Mitotic cell ihibitor

4.     Inhibits mitosis and exaggerates polymerization and casues the stabilization of the microtubules

Ans. 4

21.    Which one of the following is anti-cancerous drug is  a Peptide?

1.     Doxorubicin

2.     Valinomycin

3.     Bleomycin

4.     Asphartame

Ans. 3

22.    Drug of choice for Chronic myeloid leukemia?

1.     Imatinib

2.     Cisplatin

3.     Hydroxyurea

4.     Methorexate

Ans. 1

23.    ATRA is useful in treatment of which of the following type of acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?

1.     Monocytic leukemia

2.     Myelonocytic leukemia

3.     Promyelocytic leukemia

4.     Erythroleukemic leukemia

Ans. 3

24.    Leucoverin is used as Rescue therapy for patients which of the following drug theraph?

1.     Asphargine

2.     Methotrexate

3.     6-mercaptopurine

4.     Cyclophosphamide

Ans. 2

25.    Adverse effects of Tacrolimus include the following EXCEPT?

1.     Nephrotoxicity

2.     Diabetes mellitus

3.     Neurotoxicity

4.     Hirsuitism

Ans. 4

26.    Drugs used in relieving post-operative bladder spasm include the following execpt?

1.     Oxybutynin

2.     Tiotrapium

3.     Tolterodine

4.     Darifenacin

Ans. 2

27.    Which one of the following is the correct mechanism of action of CLOMIPHENE citrate?

1.     Binds to estrogen receptors only

2.     Feedback inhibition of hypophyseal pituitary axis

3.     Antagonist of estrogen receptors

4.     Inhibitioon of ovulation

Ans. 2

28.    Flumazenil is

1.     Agonist of diazepam

2.     Diazepam Antagonist

3.     SSRI

4.     Anticonvulsant

Ans. 2

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

1.      Alkalinisation of urine may be useful in treatment of toxicities due to following EXCEPT?

1.     Amphetamine

2.     Morephine

3.     Phenobarbitone

4.     Phencyclidine

Ans. 3

2.      Diphrheria-like coilitis with thickening of ascending colon and transverse colon is feature of which of the following toxicity?

1.     Phenol

2.     Arsenic

3.     Mercury

4.     Lead.

Ans. 3

3.      ACUTE YELLOW FATTY LIVER is caused by which of the following poisoning?

1.     Arsenic

2.     Aconite

3.     Lead

4.     Oxalic acid

Ans. 1

4.      Epithelial cells of vagina on glans in Rape

1.     Phenolphthalein

2.     Lugol’s iodine

3.     Nitric acid

4.     Postassium iodide

Ans. 2

5.      Which of the following is not a cause of suffocation death?

1.     Smothering

2.     Choking

3.     Gagging

4.     Throttling

Ans. 4

6.      Bruising of soft tissues of anterior neck with fracture of thyroid cartilage and hyoid bone is seen in:

1.     Ligature Strangulation

2.     Throttling

3.     Tracumatic asphyxia.

4.     Hanging.

Ans. 2

7.      Corporo-basal index is used vfor determining?

1.     Race

2.     Sex

3.     Age

4.     Stature

Ans. 2

8.      Penetrating injury to NECK is defined as

1.     More 2 cm deep injury

2.     Injury to any internal neck organ

3.     Violation of platysma

4.     Sharp instrument

Ans. 3

9.      In a newborn Hydrostatic test may be false negative due to which one of the following?

1.     Artifical respiration

2.     Emphysema

3.     Inhalation of lidquor amnil

4.     Atelectasis

Ans. 4

COMMUNITY MEDICINE

1.      Most common cause of maternal mortality in india?

1.     Anemia in pregnancy

2.     PPH

3.     Heart disease

4.     PIH

Ans. 2

2.      In Chronic non-communicable diseases which of the following is least important?

1.     Specificity of the association

2.     Sensitivity of the association

3.     Temporal association

4.     Dose response relationship

Ans. 2

3.      By giving equal time for interveiving the control and the cases, which of the following bias is avoided?

1.     Selection bias

2.     Berkesonian bias

3.     Measurement bias

4.     Confounding bias

Ans. 1

4.      True regarding Measles include the following except?

1.     Prodromal stage is not infectious

2.     One attack of measles generally confers life long immunity

3.     High Secondary attack rate

4.     Subclinical infection not seen.

Ans. 3

5.      Maximum saturated fatty acids are present in?

1.     Palm oil

2.     Ground nut oil

3.     Corn oil

4.     Soysbean oil

Ans. 1

6.      All the following are Organophoshates EXCEPT

1.     Malathion

2.     Aldrine

3.     Abate

4.     Diazinon

Ans. 2

7.      Which of the following is not true about RECOMMENDED DIETARY ALLOWANCES (RDA)?

1.     It is the average daily intake level that meets the nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy persons.

2.     An Expert group is required to formulate it.

3.     It is defined statistically as 2 standard deviations above the estimated average requirement.

4.     Total nutrient consumptiom, including both food and supplements, should not exceed RDA levels.

Ans. 2

8.      True statements regarding Nutritional surveillance include the following EXCEPT

1.     Diagnostic approach

2.     Done by Para-clinical staff

3.     Requires Accurate weight measurement

4.     Accurate height measurement

Ans. 3

9.      Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding ‘Gomez classification’ of protein energy malnutrition?

1.     50% of Bostan standards

2.     Graded as percentage of Height for age

3.     It is based on hospital death rate

4.     72% of the standards falls in grade II protein energy malutrition

Ans. 2

10.    Sling psychrometer is used for assessing:     (Kar 2005, ESIS 2005)

1.     Air velocity

2.     Radiant heat

3.     Relative humidity

4.     Air temperature

Ans. 3

11.    Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India?    (SGPGI 99 and AI 2006)

1.     Refractive error

2.     Conjunctivitis

3.     Refractive error

4.     Trachoma

Ans. 1

12.    WHO defintion of ‘Low vision’?

1.     Vision more than 6/60 and less than 6/18 in better eye

2.     Vision more than 6/60 and less than 3/60 in better eye

3.     Vision more than 3/60 and less than 6/18 in better eye

4.     Vision more than 3/60 and less than 3/18 in better eye

Ans. 1

13.    According to the concept of the iceberg phenomenon of discease, the ‘waterline’ represents the demarcation between which of the following?

1.     Undiagnosed and undiagnosed

2.     Symptomatic and presymtomatic

3.     Carrier and sufferers

4.     Apparent and inapparent

Ans. 4

14.    The powerful concept of KAP is practiced in India for which of the following?

1.     HIV/ AIDS

2.     Family planning

3.     Cancer

4.     Malaria

Ans. 2

15.    Integrated management of childhood illness (IMCI) targets the following diseases EXCEPT

1.     Malaria

2.     Neonatal tetanus

3.     Otitis media

4.     HIV

Ans. 2

16.    Functions of concurrent list include the following EXCEPT

1.     Monitoring Medical professionals

2.     Stopping the spread of communicable disease

3.     Vital statistics

4.     Eduction

Ans. 1

17.    According to revised RCH programme, CHC is referred as

1.     First referral unit

2.     II FRU

3.     III FRU

4.     It is not included in according to new RCH programme

Ans. 4

18.    True regarding national and international laws according to Indian constitution are all the following EXCEPT?

1.     Health is central government responsibility

2.     Ratification from world congress to look back to control

3.     India is a Signatory to the Alma-Ata Declaration 1978

4.     Intellectual of India is Aligned to World trade Organization obligetions

Ans. 1

19.    Delphi method is used for

1.     Couple protection rate

2.     Qualitative analysis of data

3.     Qualitative analysis of data

4.     Managers conduct meeting and take common decision about health

Ans. 2

20.    True regarding standard deviation (SD)?

1.     It is measure of dispersion of variability from a mean

2.     It is measure of Magnitude variability

3.     It is measure of Chance variablity

4.     It is measure of numerical varibility

Ans. 1

21.    The following are drawbacks of Calender (safe) METHOD of contraception except one:

1.     If cycle is irregular, this method of contraception is difficult

2.     It has high failure rate up to 10 per 100 woman years

3.     It is applicable during the postnatal period

4.     Ectopic pregnancies and embryonic abnormalities have been reported to result form the use of safe period method.

Ans. 3

22.    Which of the following is indicator of COMPLETED FAMILTY SIZE?

1.     Total fertility rate

2.     Net reproduction rate

3.     Birth rate

4.     Gross reproduction rate

Ans. 1

23.    Most common occupational cancer is?

1.     Bladder cancer

2.     Skin cancer

3.     Ling cancer

4.     Oral cancer

Ans. 3

24.    Vaccine Contraindicated in pregnancy:

1.     MMR

2.     Polio

3.     Rabies

4.     Hepatitis B

Ans. 1

25.    All ececpt one is false regarding Live vaccines:

1.     Major and minor antigens are used

2.     Booster dose is not required because it gives lifelong immunity

3.     Low temperature should be maintained for storage

4.     Two live vaccines should not be given a one time

Ans. 4

26.    Grading of which of the following disease in done with the use of Bacterial index, Dharmendra’s scale, and Ridley’s scale?

1.     Leprosy

2.     Syphilis

3.     Tuberculosis

4.     Cholera

Ans. 1

27.    Following are ZOONOTIC diseases EXCEPT

1.     HIV

2.     TB

3.     Japanese encephlitis

4.     Plague

Ans. 1

28.    Soft tick TRANSMITS?

1.     Indian tick typus

2.     Relapsing fever

3.     KFD

4.     Tularemia

Ans. 2

29.    Disease Transmitted through soil include the following except:

1.     Anthrax

2.     Brucellosis

3.     Tetanus

4.     Coccidiomycosis

Ans. 2

30.    Isolation is least effective in all EXCEPT

1.     Mumps

2.     Measles

3.     Hepatitis A

4.     Pneumonic plague

Ans. 4

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1.      The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens?

1.     Glucose transport

2.     Regulation of water content

3.     Ionic balalnce

4.     Anerobic glycolysis

Ans. 2

2.      Which of the following is seen with Sarcodosis?

1.     Band keratopathy

2.     Angiod streak

3.     Choroid plaques

4.     Cataracta nigra

Ans. 1

3.      Which of the following is most characteristic feature of Von Recklinghausen disease?

1.     Deformed anterior chamber with reduced angle of AC

2.     Glaucoma

3.     Choroidal hemangioma

4.     Subretinal neovascularization

Ans. 2

4.      Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is associated with which of the following?

1.     Patau syndrome

2.     Down syndrome

3.     Tuberous sclerosis

4.     Sturge Weber sundrome

Ans. 1

5.      Interactable glaucoma characteristically occurs due which one of the following?

1.     Diffuse iris melanoma

2.     Anterior iris melanocyte proliferation

3.     Posterior uveal melanocyte proliferation

4.     Lens enlargement

Ans. 2

ENT

1.      ABBE-ESTLANDER FLAP is used for reconstruction of:

1.     Tongue

2.     Lip

3.     Cheek

4.     Nose

Ans. 2

2.      False about Allergic Fungal sinusitis?

1.     Type I hypersensitivity

2.     Orbital extension

3.     CT shows hyperdense sinus infiltrates

4.     Eosinophil rich mucin

Ans. 2

3.      The electrode of Cochlear implant is inserted at

1.     Round window

2.     Lateral semicircular canal

3.     Oval window

4.     Vestibular aquiduct

Ans. 1

4.      A 36 years old female singer has hoarseness of voice since 5-6 months. She gives history of voice abuse and complains of heart burn and dyspepsia. Indirect laryngoscopy regeals well defined nodules one each at the junction of mid and anterior one thirds of the true vocal cords on eigher side. She has no pain in the throat or no fever. Which of the following statements will be correct regarding her initial treatment?

1.     Microlaryngoscopic excision

2.     Microlaryngoscopy guided CO2 ablation of the nodes

3.     Speech therapy and voice rest with proton pump inhibitor

4.     Rule out laryngeal tuberculosis

Ans. 3

5.      A 70 years old male presented with conductive deafness in left ear. His left typanic membrane eppears dull. On examination he has 3 cm elarged cervical lymph node. On tympanometry, type B tympanogram is seen. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

1.     Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

2.     Tuberculosis

3.     CP angle tumor

4.     CSOM

Ans. 1

6.      Hypoesthesia over the area of posterosuperior aspect of the external auditory canal (Histelberger sign) is feature af:

1.     Glomus tumor

2.     Vestibular schwannoma

3.     Meneire’s disease

4.     Otosclerosis

Ans. 2

7.      A newborn with Bilateral microtia and atresia of external auditory canals should be operated at what age?

1.     Below 1 year

2.     5-7 year

3.     Puberty

4.     Adulthood

Ans. 2

8.      Which of the following is difficult to visualize or examine on Indirect laryngoscopy?

1.     True vocal cord

2.     Anterior commmisure

3.     Epiglottis

4.     False vocal cord

Ans. 2

MEDICINE

1.      Regarding PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS (PDA) False is?

1.     Males more commonly affected than female

2.     Associated with maternal rubella infection during early pregnancy

3.     Common in Premature infants where it occurs due to hypoxia

4.     Patent ductus should be surgically ligated and divided

Ans. 1

2.      Right sided aortic arch is most commonly associated with:

1.     Truncus arteriosus

2.     VSD with pulmonary atresia

3.     Tetrology of Fallot

4.     Corrected TGA

Ans. 3

3.      A 17-year-old athlete had atypical chest pain and collapsed suddenly on the ground while playing foot ball. He had no significant past history but he gave history that one of his sibiling had sudden death. On 2-D echo asymmetrical thickening of the ventricular septum was seen. Which of the following is likely diagnosis?

1.     Dilated cardiolyopathy

2.     Heterophic Obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

3.     Arrythmogenic Right Ventricular Dysplasia

4.     Coarctation of aorta

Ans. 2

4.      Coarctation of aorta is most commonly associated:

1.     Bicuspid aortic valve

2.     TOF

3.     PDA

4.     VSD

Ans. 1

5.      Which of the following causes Torsades de pontis?

1.     Digitalis

2.     Quinidine

3.     Lignocaine

4.     Flecainide

Ans. 2

6.      Drug of choice for Supraventricular Tachycardia?

1.     Verapamil

2.     Diltaizim

3.     Digoxin

4.     Phenytoin

Ans. 1

7.      Benefits of erythropoietin in CRF all except

1.     Improves anemia

2.     Decreased in reticulocyte count

3.     Increased hemotocrit

4.     Decreases the requirement for blood transfusion

Ans. 2

8.      Most common cause of Conn’s syndrome?

1.     Cortical adenoma

2.     Adrenal hyperplasia

3.     Carcinoma

4.     Pheochromocttyoma

Ans. 1

9.      Cushing’s disease is characterized by which of the following?

1.     Increased urinary catecholamines

2.     Increased ACTH and cortisol

3.     Increased ADH

4.     Increased HIAA and decreased cortisol

Ans. 2

10.    Hypertrighycerdemia, increased cholesterol and VLDL with chylomicron remnants accumlation is suggestive of:

1.     Hypercholetrolemia Type I

2.     Hypercholetrolemia Type IIA

3.     Hypercholetrolemia Type IIB

4.     Hypercholetrolemia Type III

Ans. 4

11.    All the following EXCEPT one help to differentiate acute Pyelonephritis from uncomplicated UTI

1.     WBC cast

2.     Organism count in excess of 108

3.     Tom Harshfal protein antibodies

4.     Decreased concentrating ability

Ans. 2

12.    Testicular feminization syndrome is characterized by the following EXCEPT

1.     Normal developed breasts

2.     Absent vagina

3.     Pubic hairs

4.     XY karyotype

Ans. 2

13.    Vitamin B12 and folic acid are given together because

1.     To have better correction of anemia

2.     If Folic acid is given alone neurological manifestations occur

3.     To improve the prognosis

4.     For dose convinience

Ans. 2

14.    Causes of Dying back neuropathy include the following EXCEPT:

1.     Lead poisoning

2.     Vasclitic neuropathy

3.     Diabetic neuropathy

4.     Gullian Barrie Syndrome

Ans. 4

15.    Conus syndrome is charachterized by the following EXCEPT

1.     Lower sacral and cocxygeal segement involvement

2.     Absent Knee and ankle reflexes

3.     Flexor plantar response

4.     Saddle anesthesia

Ans. 2

16.    Extramedullary Spinal cord tumor is charachterized by the following except?

1.     Descending sensory loss

2.     UMNL signs apper early in the course of disease

3.     Lateral spinothalmic tract involved

4.     Brown sequard syndrome occurs if lesion is located laterally

Ans. 4

17.    True about Hereditary Hemochromatosis include the following except?

1.     Gonadal atrophy

2.     Skin pigmentation occurs

3.     Diabetes mellitus

4.     Desferoxamine is the treatment of choice

Ans. 4

18.    True regarding Tertiary syphilis?

1.     It is the most infectious stage of syphilis

2.     All Patients with primary syphilis progress to tertiary stage if untreated

3.     Gumma are seen

4.     It contains high number of spirochete in the lesions

Ans. 3

19.    A 40-year-old female presents jaundice and anemia since one month. Her blood picture shows multiple spherocytes. Which of the following investigation should be advised?

1.     Coomb’s test

2.     Osmotic fragility

3.     Hb electrophoresis

4.     PCV

Ans. 1

20.    ‘Ring sideroblasts’ are seen in

1.     Anemia of chronic disease

2.     Thalassemia

3.     Lead poisoning

4.     Myelodysplastic syndrome

Ans. 4

21.    A 32 years old lab technician has HBsAg positive and HBeAg negative. AST, ALT and alkaline phosphate normal. What should be line of management?

1.     Lamivudine

2.     Interferon

3.     Lamivudine and interferon

4.     Serial follow up

Ans. 4

22.    Most early and common reaction associated with patients receiving Cellular blood component transfusion is?

1.     Febrile Non-hemolytic tranfusion reaction

2.     Hemolytic transfusion reaction

3.     Allergic reaction

4.     Transfusion related Infections

Ans. 1

23.    Which of then following is false about GVHD?

1.     Is the result of T cell interaction with antigens on the graft.

2.     It most often first becomes apparent 2 to 4 weeks posttransplant

3.     High grade require aggressive therapy

4.     The incidence of acute GVHD is higher in recipients of stem cells from mismatched of unrelated donors

Ans. 1

24.    Most common neuroendocrine pancreatic tumor associated with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1?           (AI 2007)

1.     Insulinoma

2.     Gastrinoma

3.     Glucagonoma

4.     Somatostatinoma

Ans. 2

PEADIATRICS

1.      Chorionic Villous Sampling is useful in the diagnosis of the following EXCEPT?

1.     Thalassemia

2.     Duchenne muscular dystrophy

3.     Neural tube defect

4.     Down syndrome

Ans. 2

2.      Most common type of seizure in neonates?

1.     Tonic

2.     Clonic

3.     Subtle

4.     Myoclonic

Ans. 3

3.      Newborn has respiratory distress at birth. He has scaphoid abdomen and absent breat sound on left side. After giving bag and mask ventilation, an endotracheal tube is inserted. His Pulse

         Impulse (PMI) is shifted to right. Which of the following would be most appropriate next step?

1.     Take the newborn immediately for surgery

2.     Put a nasogastric tube

3.     Take a chest x-ray to confirm the position of the endotracheal tube

4.     Assess end-tidal PCO2 to confirm intubation

Ans. 2

4.      A 71/2 year old girl presents with breathlessness and fever since 6-7 days. She has non-productive cough since 6 months. X-ray chest shows hyperlucency in the lungs and pulmonary function tests shows obstructive pattern. The most probable diagnosis will be :

1.     Lobar emphysema

2.     Bronchiolitis obliterans

3.     Follicular bronchiolitis

4.     Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis

Ans. 2

5.      A full-term newborn female weighing 3.5kg delivered by uncomplicated vaginal delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray groung glass haziness the lungs is seen. Baby is put on mechanical ventilation and surfactant is given. But there is no improvement with surfactant and higher intravenous antibiotics, and instead the conditon of baby deteriorated with increasing hypoxemia. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the similar complaints. ECHO study of the heart is normal. Usual bacterial cultures are negative. The most possible diagnosis is:

1.     Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection

2.     Meconium aspiration syndrome

3.     Neonatal alveolar proteiniosis

4.     Disseminated herpes infection

Ans. 3

6.      Most common cause of delayed puberty in males?

1.     Constifutional delay

2.     Klinefilter’s syndrome

3.     Turner syndrome

4.     Down syndrome

Ans. 1

7.      Which of the following is the first sign of puberty in females?

1.     Pubarche

2.     Thelarche

3.     Menarche

4.     Growth spurt

Ans. 2

8.      A 6-year-old boy has gross hematuria off and on since 2 years with dysmorphic RBCs in urine examination. There is no significant finding on per abdominal examination. The C3 complement levels normal and antinuclear antibodies are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1.     Willm’s tumor

2.     Renal calculi

3.     Acute glomerulonephritis

4.     IgA nephropathy

Ans. 4

9.      Which one of the following for management of Enuresis has least chances of relapse?

1.     Oxybutynin

2.     Desmopressin

3.     Bed Alarm

4.     Imipramine

Ans. 3

10.    Gene responsible for Congenital nephrotic syndrome?

1.     Podocin

2.     Alpha-actinin-4

3.     NPHS2

4.     Nephrin

Ans. 4

11.    True regarding KAWASAKI DISEASE includes which one of the following?

1.     It is most common cause of vasculitis in children

2.     Up to 25% patients generally develop coronary aneurysms

3.     LN biopsy is diagnostic

4.     Ig is used in treatment only in patients with aneurysm

Ans. 2

12.    Probiotics may be useful to prevent which one of the following disease?

1.     Necrotizing enterocolitis

2.     Antibiotic associated colitis

3.     Breast milk jaundice

4.     Neonatal sepsis

Ans. 2

13.    21-hydroxylase deficiency is characterized by the following EXCEPT

1.     Most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

2.     Females present with ambiguous genitalia at birth

3.     Associated with Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia

4.     Boys present with precocious puberty

Ans. 3

14.    A 12 years old patient has huge hepatomegaly with episodes of hypoglycemia in between meals and no change after glucagon and epinephrine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1.     Von Gerke’s disease

2.     Corl’s disease

3.     Pompe’s disease

4.     McArdle’s disease

Ans. 1

15.    In a pregnant female with the First baby sufering from in 21-hydroxylase deficieny, the Steriod therapy should be started at which of the following timing?

1.     Before pregnancy when conception is anticipated.

2.     As soon as diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed.

3.     After determining the sex of the baby.

4.     After Choroinic Villous Sampling has been done and the diagnosis has been confirmed.

Ans. 4

16.    True about Cerebellar astrocytoma include the following EXCEPT

1.     Common in first two decade of life

2.     More Common in females than males

3.     Low grade tumor

4.     Good prognosis

Ans. 2

SURGERY

25.    Which of the following is not an absorbable suture?

1.     Polypropylene

2.     Catgut

3.     Polyglactin

4.     Polyceprolate

Ans. 1

20.    In parotid surgeries, the anatomical markers for localization of the facial nerve include the following EXCEPT:

1.     Posterior belly of diagastric

2.     Tragar pointer

3.     Retrograde dissection by tracing its branches

4.     Inferior belly of omohyoid

Ans. 4

207. In the Diffuse axonal injury, the typical location of lesions in the brain include

1.     Para-saggital region

2.     Cerebral cortex

3.     Ventricles

4.     White matter of cerebral hemispheres, corpus callosum and the upper brain stem

Ans. 4

20.    Which of the following is CORRECT regarding puerperal mastitis?

1.     Infants GIT is the usual source for causative organism

2.     It should be treated with antibiotics only

3.     It may develop in abscess, when incision and drainage may be required

4.     E. coli is most common organism causing it

Ans. 3

20.    Migratory thrombophlebitis may seen with the malignancies involving following organs EXCEPT:

1.     Prostate

2.     Lung

3.     GIT

4.     Pancreas

Ans. 1

21.    A 23-year-old female complains on nipple discharge since few days. One examination the discharge appears blood-stained and coming out from a single duct. Ultrasound of the breast reveals a well-defined small mass lesion within a dilated duct. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for treatment of this patient?

1.     Excision of the lesion

2.     Simple mastectomy

3.     Microdochotomy

4.     Modified Radical mastectomy

Ans. 3

21.    Most common type of Thyroid carcinoma?

1.     Papillary

2.     Follicular

3.     Medullary

4.     Anaplastic

Ans. 1

212. Complications Hemithyroidectomy include the following EXCEPT:

1.     Wound hematoma

2.     Injury to External branch of Superior laryngeal nerve

3.     Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

4.     Hypocalcemia

Ans. 4

21.    A newborn has a posterior mediastinal cystic mass with several vertebral anomalies. The most likely diagnosis would be which of the following?        (AIIMS 2002 Nov)

1.     Neuroblastoma

2.     Bronchogenic cyst

3.     Neuroenteric cyst

4.     Myelocystocele

Ans. 3

24.    Most common posterior mediastinal tumor?                (Karnataka 2001, AIIMS 2002, PGI-2003 JUNE, Maharashtra 2005)

1.     Dermoid

2.     Lymphoma

3.     Neurofibroma

4.     Lipoma

Ans. 3

21.    Thymoma is most commonly associated with which of the following?

1.     Myasthenia gravis

2.     Guillain-Barre syndrome

3.     hypothyroidism

4.     Sarcoidosis

Ans. 1

21.    Which one of the following would be the most important indication for THORACOTOMY in a patient of thoracic trauma?

1.     Thoracostomy tube drain output

2.     Associated injuries

3.     Dyspnea

4.     Hemodyamic status

Ans. 1

217. A 42-year-old female complains of dysphagia to both liquids and solids since 2 years. The dysphagia is non-progressive. Barium examination reveals dilatation of entire esophagus with narrowing at the gastroesophageal junction level. Which of the following will be the most likely diagnosis?

1.     Esophageal stricture

2.     Achalasia cardia

3.     Cardiac tumor of stomach

4.     Esophageal malignancy

Ans. 2

21.    An 18 years old young male has presented to emergency department with history of road side accident and injury to left lower chest and upper abdomen. On examination he is having hypotension but the consciousness is good. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination. With resuscitation the patient is hemodynamically stabilized. A chest X-ray performed reveals fracture of left 8 and 9th ribs, however there is no evidence of pneumothorax or hemothorax. Which of the following will be the best approach for further management of this patient?

1.     Immediate laparotomy

2.     Abdominal imaging for assessment of injury to abdominal viscera

3.     Obsevation of the patient

4.     CT study of thorax

Ans. 2

21.    A Surgeon is to operate a 20-year-old male with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) for splenectomy. His platelet counts at present are 50,000/cumm. He decides to supplement the patient with platelet therapy. At which of the following timing should he ask the anesthetist to start giving platelet therapy?

1.     Just before taking incision

2.     While closing the abdominal suture

3.     Soon after ligation of the splenic srtery

4.     Two hours before the surgery

Ans. 3

220. A Surgeon has performed resection of a liver hemangioma area left to the fissure for ligamentum venosum (umbilical ligament and ligament). Which of the following segments of liver he might have resected.

1.     Segments 1 and 4a

2.     Segments 2 and 3

3.     Segments 2, 3, and 4

4.     Segments 1, 2, and 4

Ans. 2

22.    All the following can cause obstruction of hepatobillary system EXCEPT:

1.     Ankylostoma duodenale

2.     Ascaris lumbricoides

3.     Clonarcis sinensis

4.     Fasciola hepatica

Ans. 1

22.    A 45 years old female presented with dyspepsia and nausea since 4-5 days. She has no abdominal pain and there is no past history of any abdominal complaints. Ultrasound study of abdomen shows a 1.5 cm solitary calculus in gall bladder with no signs of cholecystitis and normal bile ducts. There is no family history of gall stones or malignancy. She is relieved of her symptoms in next few days. Which of the following will be best line of management for this patient?

1.     Immediate Laparoscopic cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic

2.     Manage conservatively and call her for Laparoscopic cholecystectomy after 2 months

3.     Manage conservatively and call her for open cholecystectomy afer 2 months

4.     Laparoscopic cholecystectomy only if she is symptomatic

Ans. 4

22.    A 42 years old female presented with acute abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting since 12-15 hours. She is febrile, Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in right hypochondrium and no other significant finding. Ultrasound study of abdomen shows a calculus in gall bladder with signs of acute calculus sholecystitis. Which of the following would not be correct regarding her management?

1.     She should not be immediately taken for laparoscopic Cholecystitis in acute phase

2.     Conservative management with IV fluids, analgesics, and antibiotics is recommended

3.     Acute calculus cholecystitis is usually due to impaction of stone at the neck of gall bladder

4.     On HIDA acute choecystitis is evident if gall bladder is not visualized

Ans. 1

22.    A chronic alcoholic patient complains of acute abdominal pain since 1-2 days which is radiating to back. The pain of the patient gets completely relieved with analagesics. He gives history of one episode of similar complaints 6 months back. Ultrasound study of the abdomen reveals changes of CHRONIC PANCREATITIS with pancreatic calcification and calculi in the dilated pancreatic duct in the tail region. Which of the following would be most suitable course of action in the treatment of his patient?

1.     Lateral pancreaticojejunostomy

2.     Perctaneous Ultrasound guided removal of the calculi

3.     Resection of distal portion of the pancreas

4.     Conservative management with analgesics and antibiotics

Ans. 4

22.    A 32-year-old adult had abdominal injury following a vehicular injury. Radiological investigations revealed severe injury to duodenum, the adjacent pancretic head and the terminal biliary tract injury. Which of the following shall be the correct surgical approach for management of this patient?

1.     Roux en Y surgery

2.     Primary Duodenodeuodenostomy

3.     Surgical Repair of bile duct and damaged part of duodenum

4.     Pancreaticodudenectomy (Whipple’s operation)

Ans. 4

6.      Which of the following would be the best line of manegement for maintenance of the nutrition of a patient who has undergone major pancreatic surgery?

1.     Feeding gastrostomy

2.     Total parenteral nutrition

3.     Feeding gastroduodenostomy

4.     Feeding jejunostomy

Ans. 4

22.    True about VOLVULUS OF COLON are the following statements EXECPT:

1.     Sigmoid volvulus is more common than cecal

2.     Common in Psychiatric ill patients

3.     Past history of acute abdominal pain with passage of large amount of gas by faltus tube insertion

4.     Sigmoidoscopy and insertion of flatus tube are contraindicated

Ans. 4

22.    Which of the following is implicated in pathogenesis of Chron’s disease?

1.     Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis

2.     Mycoplasma

3.     CMV

4.     Streptococci

Ans. 1

29.    A 42 years old male presents with chronic diarrhea since months. Colonoscpic biopsy of the colon revealed Cryptitis, Crypt branching, Crypt thickening, Crypt ulcers, and Crypt abscesses on microscopic examination. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis based on histological features?

1.     Ulcerative colitis

2.     Microscopic colitis

3.     Chron’s disease

4.     Amoebic colitis

Ans. 1

23.    Fissure in ano can be best diagnosed by:

1.     Clinical examination and visulization

2.     Digital Rectal Examination

3.     Anoscopy

4.     Endosonography

Ans. 1

23.    Which of the following is correct about the Nigro regimen for “epidermoid” carcinoma of anal canal?

1.     External beam radiotherapy and chemotherapy as a substitute for surgery

2.     Brachytherapy and chemotherapy

3.     Chemotherapy and surgery

4.     External beam reditherapy and chemotherapy with surgery

Ans. 1

23.    A newborn as admitted to intensice care unit for respiratory distress and is kept on ventilator support. The bady developed tense abdominal distension and poor general conditon over a period of time. They bady had tachycardia also. Evaluttion for necrotizing enterocolitis revealed bowel perforation. Which of the following would be correct regarding management?

1.     Immediate laparotomy

2.     Bilateral abdominal drains

3.     High flow oxygen therapy

4.     Extracrporal Membrane Oxygenation and surgery after stabilization of the patient.

Ans. 4

23.    A newborn has not passed meconium since birth. She has severe abdominal distension. Erect abdominal x-ray revelas massive gas under both domes of diaphragm. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

1.     Perforation of stomach

2.     Rectal atresia

3.     Colonic pouch

4.     Meconium ileus

Ans. 2

24.    A newborn baby with anal atresia has abdominal distension with meconuria since birth. Which of the following should be the possible treatment for this patient?

1.     Pull-through operation

2.     Anorectoplasty with fistula repair

3.     Transverse colostomy

4.     Sigmoid colostomy

Ans. 2

25.    Most common musculoskeletal abnormality associated with Epispadias?

1.     Osteoporosis

2.     Oteomalacia

3.     Separation of pubic bones

4.     Absent bilateral superior pubic rami

Ans. 3

26.    A 20 year old male presented with acute scrotal pain over night. The patient denied any history of sexually transmitted diseases and stated he was not having any urinary symptoms or urethral discharge. Urine analysis is normal. Which of the following would be wrong regarding management of this patient?

1.     An ultrasound Doppler study will be diagnostic if testicular torsion is suspected

2.     The patient should be taken for immediate surgery

3.     Patient should be managed with analgesics and antibiotics only

4.     If patient is not operated the testis will be lost

Ans. 3

37.    Which of the following would be the most sterile method for collection of urine sample?

1.     Sample taken via per urethral catheter

2.     Clean take form the urine bag

3.     Midstream clean catch urine

4.     Suprapubic puncture

Ans. 4

28.    In Ureteric colic due to calculus, pain occurs because of?

1.     Distension of the Renal capsule

2.     Intramural irritation of ureter

3.     Hyperperistalsis of the ureter

4.     Referred pain

Ans. 1

29.    A 30 years old male has erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should be the first line in-office investigation in evaluation of this patient?

1.     Arterial (Penile) Color Doppler study as inter-line investigation for evaluation of erectile dysfunction in a 30 year old male

2.     Cavernosometry

3.     Sildenafil test

4.     Intraterial DSA

Ans. 1

ORTHOPAEDICS

1.      Pollicisation is?

1.     Amputation of thumb

2.     Equalization of fingers

3.     Toe to thumb transplantion

4.     Reconstruction of thumb

Ans. 4

2.      An 8 years onld boy complains of restricted mobility and body ache since 4-5 months. On examination he has multiple nodules on the back, limbs and the nape of neck. His joints movements are reduced. X-ray shows areas of heterotopic ossification in the soft tissues at various sites. Which of the following would be wrong regarding this patient?

1.     Small Halux rigidus

2.     Over-expression of Bone Morphogenic Protein-4

3.     Life expectancy is normal

4.     Pneumonias can occur

Ans. 3

3.      A 70-year-old diabetic female has pain and swelling of left ankle since 5-6 months. She has difficulty in walking. X-ray reveals disorganized joint, sclerosis of articular margins, multiple osteophytes and new bone formation in adjacent soft tissue. Which of the following should not be the line management?

1.     Immbolization of the joint

2.     Aspiration and compression bandaging

3.     Arthrodesis of the ankle joint

4.     Total Ankle replacement

Ans. 4

4.      A 30-year-old HIV positive male who is on antiretroviral therapy has pain in right hip joint since 2 months. He has diffifulty in abduction and internal rotation. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

1.     Septic arthritis

2.     Osteoarthritis

3.     Avascular necrosis

4.     Tuberculous arthritis

Ans. 4

5.      Which of the following is ideal site for harvesting bone graft?

1.     Iliac crest

2.     Distal end of humerus

3.     Distal end of femur

4.     Fibula

Ans. 1

6.      It is wise to keep and repair the meniscus rather than removing it when the injury is to which of the following?

1.     Medial part of meniscus

2.     Mid part of meniscus

3.     Lateral part of meniscus

4.     Associated with collateral ligament injury

Ans. 3

7.      Which of the following the SAFE test to be performed in a patient with acutely injured knee joint?

1.     Lachman test

2.     Pivot shift test

3.     Mc Murray’s test

4.     Appley’s grinding test

Ans. 1

8.      Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding tubercular osteomyelitis?

1.     It is a Secondary TB

2.     Periosteal reaction is commonly seen

3.     Sequestration is uncommon

4.     Inflammation is minimum

Ans. 2

OBESTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY

1.      Best reversal after tubectomy is in which of the following type?

1.     Isthemo-isthemic

2.     Isthemo-ampullary

3.     Ampullo-ampullary

4.     Cornual implantation

Ans. 1

2.      Least failure rate is seen with?

1.     Yoon Ring

2.     Hulka’s clips

3.     Unipolar coagulation

4.     Bipolar coagulation

Ans. 3

3.      Best treatment for Premestrual syndrome?

1.     Anti-prostaglandins

2.     SSRI

3.     Progestin

4.     Anxiolytics

Ans. 2

4.      Which of the investigation is best for diagnosis of acute endosalpingitis?

1.     Hysterosalpingography

2.     Hysteroscopy

3.     Sonosalpingography

4.     Laparoscopy

Ans. 4

5.      Carcinoma cervix is caused by?

1.     HPV

2.     HIV

3.     Hepatitis B

4.     HSV

Ans. 1

6.      True regarding squamous carcinoma of cervix include all the following EXCEPT:

1.     Occurs at squamocolumnar junction

2.     Type 16 and 18 HPV

3.     Most common presenting feature is postcoital bleeding

4.     CT is recommended for staging

Ans. 4

7.      A 45 years old female is found to have Simple hyperplasia with atypia on endometrial biopsy. The best management would be:

1.     Progestogen therapy

2.     Hysterectomy

3.     MIRENA IUCD insertion

4.     Serial Follow up

Ans. 2

8.      Mullerian duct anomaly may include the following EXCEPT

1.     Absent uterus

2.     Absent vagina

3.     Absent ovary

4.     Absent cervix

Ans. 3

9.      A 52-year-old female has a 2cm soft swelling in the valva, just outside the vaginal introitus. While walking she has local pain and discomfort in walking. The treatment of choice for this patient would be?

1.     Antibiotics

2.     Incision and drainage

3.     Marsuplisation

4.     Surgical excision

Ans. 4

10.    Recurrent abortions are seen with the following EXCEPT

1.     Syphilis

2.     Rh incompatibility

3.     TORCH

4.     Genetic abnormalities

Ans. 2

11.    Which of the following is the most common predisposing factor for placenta accreta?

1.     Tubal surgeries

2.     Recent curettage

3.     Previous cesarean section

4.     Placenta previa

Ans. 3

12.    Contraindication Vaginal delivery in female with previous cesarean section includes which one of the following?

1.     Previous classical cesarean section

2.     Ovvipitotransverse position

3.     Anaemia in preganacny

4.     Diabetic mother

Ans. 1

13.    All the following are the part of active management of third stage of labour except one:

1.     Early clamping of cord

2.     Uterine massage

3.     Giving uterine tonic drug within one minute after the birth of bady

4.     Controlled cord traction

Ans. 1

14.    Drug not used in management of PPH?         (AI 2003)

1.     Mesoprostal

2.     Syntocinon

3.     Synergometrine

4.     Mefipristone

Ans. 4

15.    Induction of labour is contraindicated in       (CUPGEE 2000)

1.     Postdated pregnancy

2.     Heart disease

3.     Diabetes

4.     Preeclampsia

Ans. 2

16.    IV ergometrine should not used in management of which of the following?   (Kerala 97)

1.     Heart dsease with preganancy

2.     Anaemia in pregnancy

3.     PPH

4.     Diabetic mother

Ans. 1

17.    Anti-hypertensive of choice in severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)?

1.     Alpha methyldopa

2.     Labetalol

3.     Hydralazine

4.     Nifedepine

Ans. 2

18.    Mode of action of aboration sticks in “criminal aboration”:   (AIIMS 2006 Nov)

1.     Separation of placenta

2.     Uterine contractions

3.     Nerve stimulation of uterus

4.     Necrosis & infection of uterine wall linings

Ans. 2

DERMATOLOGY

1.      A pregnant female complains of sudden onset of multiple generalized vesiculobullous lesions almost all over the body assosicated with pain wihtout any redness or swelling of joints. On examination the lesions are found to have pustular tips with surrounding red hue. She is diagnosed having pustular psoriasis. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to be used in management of this patinet?

1.     Dapsone

2.     Isotretinoin

3.     Prednisolone

4.     Methoterxate

Ans. 3

2.      A 30-year-old man with history of multiple exposures presents with painful indurated ulcer on the glans penis since 5 days. The undermined sloudhed edges of margins were noted. The most porobable diagnosis is?

1.     Chancroid

2.     Primary Chancre

3.     Herpes genitalis

4.     LGV

Ans. 1

3.      Immunomodulator used in treatment of genital warts?

1.     ATRA

2.     Podophylline

3.     Imiquimod

4.     Prednisolone

Ans. 3

4.      Treatment of choice for Type II lepra reaction?

1.     Steroids

2.     Thaladmiode

3.     Colfazamine

4.     Chloroquine

Ans. 1

5.      A 50 year old female presents with extensive flaccid bullous oral and skin lesions in suprabasal layer of epidermis. The likely diagnosis is?

1.     Pemphigus vulgaris

2.     Dermatitis herpitiformis

3.     Epidermolysis bullosa

4.     Bullous pemphigoid

Ans. 1

6.      A 42 years female has palpable purpura with rash over but rocks and thghs, Pain in abdomen, and arthropathy. Likely diagnosis is?

1.     Sweet syndrome

2.     HSP

3.     Purpura fulminans

4.     Meningococcemia

Ans. 2

7.      A 38-year-old Bengali man presents with complains of multiple pappular lesions over the body especially involving the palms and soles. The lesions are not painful. He has pigmentation of skin over the abdomen. He also has vertical white ridges over the nails. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1.     Xeroderma pigmentosa

2.     Chronic arsenic poisoning

3.     Lichen planus

4.     Erythrodemoplasia verruciformis

Ans. 2

8.      A middle aged chronic alcoholic man complains of buring sensation in the mouth. On examination he has thickened, dry, smooth tongue with absence of the filliform papillae. MCV is 100. Which of the following should be first line of approach in the management of this patient?

1.     Estimation of Vitamin B12 levels

2.     Brush biopsy

3.     Start Antifungal therapy

4.     Send patient to surgeon for incisional biopsy

Ans. 1

9.      A 30 year old male complins of sudden loss of hair of head, beard, and of the eyebrows. On examination garying of hair is seen with multiple patchy areas of hair loss withour scarring are seen involving the head, beard, as well as the eyebrows. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1.     Androgenetic alopecia

2.     Telogen effluvium

3.     Anagen effluvium

4.     Alopecia areata

Ans. 4

RADIOLOGY

1.      Photoelectric effect is

1.     Interaction between high energy incident photon and teh innershell electron of an atom

2.     Interaction between incident photon and the outershell electron of an atom

3.     Interaction of the incident photon with the nucleus of an atom

4.     Interaction between a photon and electric current

Ans. 2

81.    Rib notching is a characteristic feature of which one of the following?

1.     Coarctation of aorta

2.     Rickets

3.     VSD

4.     Myopathies

Ans. 1

22.    Flaring of anterior ends of ribs is characterictically seen in?

1.     Neurofibromatosis

2.     Scurvy

3.     Rickets

4.     Hypothyroidism

Ans. 3

83.    Best radigraphic view for fracture of C1, C2 vertebrae?

1.     AP view

2.     Odontoid view

3.     Lateral view

4.     Oblique view

Ans. 2

24.    Investigation of choice in diffuse esophageal spasm?

1.     Manomatory

2.     Esophagoscopy

3.     Barium examination showing tertiary contractions

4.     CT thorax

Ans. 1

85.    All the following are diagnostic barium follow through features of Ileocecal tuberculosis EXCEPT:

1.     Pulled up contracted caecum

2.     Widening of ileocecal angle

3.     ‘Apple-core’ appearance of Caecum

4.     Strictures involving terminal ileum

Ans. 3

86.    Which of the following is virtually diagnostic of aortitis on chest x-ray?

1.     Calcification in descending aorta

2.     Calcification of ascending aorta

3.     Calcification of pulmonary artery

4.     Focal oligemia

Ans. 2

87.    Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypertension

1.     Kerley B lines

2.     Upper (Cephalic) lobar diversion of vessels

3.     Left atrial enlargement

4.     Pleural effusion

Ans. 2

88.    Earliest sign of left atrial enlargement?

1.     Elevation of the left main bronchus

2.     Double cardiac shadow

3.     Widening of carina

4.     Medistinal shift

Ans. 1

89.    Which one of the following regarding Antenatal assessment of umbilical arteries by Color Doppler study is true?

1.     The assessment of the flow velocities and the S/D ratio is useful to evaluate the outcome in high risk pregnancies.

2.     In otherwise normal pregnancies the increased S/D ratio is normal in smoker and nicotine abusing females.

3.     There is decreased S/D ratio in smoker and nicotine abusing pregnant females.

4.     The reduced diastolic flow at term indicates good prognosis.

Ans. 1

90.    A newborn baby has not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth. She has vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be?

1.     Anrectal manometry

2.     Rectal biopsy

3.     Lower GI contrast study

4.     Fecal Trypsin estimation

Ans. 3

91.    Transrectal ultrasonographoy (TRUS) in carcinoma prostate is most useful for?

1.     Seminal vesicle involvement

2.     Measurement of prostatic volume

3.     Guiding the Diagnostic biopsies

4.     To detect focal area hypoechoic of malignancy

Ans. 3

29.    GFR is measured with which of the following?

1.     Iodohippurate

2.     Tc99m-DTPA

3.     Tc99m-MAG3

4.     Tc99m-DMSA

Ans. 3

29.    Most radiosensitive phase of cell cycle?

1.     G1

2.     G2

3.     S

4.     G2M

Ans. 4

29.    Investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease:

1.     Chest X-ray

2.     HRCT

3.     CECT

4.     MRI

Ans. 2

95.    Which of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive to detect early renal TB?               (AIIMS May 2003; AIIMS 2002 NOV)

1.     IVU

2.     USG

3.     CT

4.     MRI

Ans. 1

PSYCHIATRY

1.      The term “Dementia precox” was coined by:

1.     Bleuler

2.     Kraeplin

3.     Hippocrates

4.     Sigmund Freud

Ans. 2

2.      A 19 year-old-male came to emergency department with complains of chest pain, sweating, and palpitations. He was extremely worried of his symptoms. His systemic examination was normal except for tachycardia. Chest x-ray, ECG, other work-ups for heart were normal. Which of the following would be the most likely cause for this patient’s symptoms?

1.     Phobia

2.     Acute myocardial infarction

3.     Anxiety neurosis

4.     Panic attack

Ans. 4

3.      Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of post-trau-matic stress disorder (PTSD)?

1.     Flashbacks

2.     Hyperarousal

3.     Hallucinations

4.     Emotional numbing

Ans. 3

4.      A 45-year-old man with complaints of mild chest pain since 4-5 wk. He has lost interest in general and his favorite leisure activities and nothing seems to cheer him up. He has difficulty falling asleep at night and his appetite is decreased, although goes to his office, works, and socializes well. On deep probing he tells that his son has been diagnosed having leukemia and is on treatment for the same. Now he is worried whether his son will be in sustained remissions or not. The most likely diagnosis is?

1.     Depression

2.     Somatoform disorder

3.     Post-traumatic Stress Disorder

4.     Adjustment disorder

Ans. 4

5.      All the following can be useful in the treatment of Anxiety except?

1.     Risperidone

2.     Clonazepam

3.     Sertaline

4.     Buspirone

Ans. 1