1. Germ
cells develop from
A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm D. Ectodermal cleft
Ans is D (Ectodermal cleft)
2. In
adults haematopoiesis mainly occurs in which of the following
A. Long bones B. Liver
C. Spleen D. Flat bones
Ans is D (Flat bones)
3. Supination
pronation does not Occur at
A. Radiocarpal joint B. Superior radioulnar jOint
C. Middle radioun/ar
joint D. Inferior radioulnar joint
Ans is A (Radiocarpal joint)
4. The
wrist joints are grouped transversely into the radiocarpal and intercarpal
joints. The radiocarpal joint is composed of the distal articular surface of
the radius and the proximal carpal row: scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum. The
intercarpal joint consists of the proximal row and its articulation with the
distal carpal row, composed of the scaphoid trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and
hamate. Supination pronation does not,occur at radiocarpal joint. Claw hand is
seen in palsy of
A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve D. Post interosseous nerve
Ans is B (Ulnar nerve)
5. True
about posterior cruciate ligament
A. Intrasynovial
ligament
B. Attached to
lateral epicondyle of tibia
C. Prevents
posterior displacement of tibia
D. Buckling of the
posterior cruciate ligament is an indirect sign of meniscal tear.
Ans is C (Prevents posterior displacement of tibia)
6. Structure
passing from thorax to abdomen behind the attachment of diaphragm are all
EXCEPT
A. Thoracic duct B. Aorta
C. Azygous vein D. Greater splanchnic nerve
Ans is D (Greater splanchnic nerve)
7. Not
true regarding trigone of bladder
A. Lined by
transitional epithelium
B. Mucosa is loosely
attached to muscular coat
C. It develops by
investing of mesonephric duct and urogenital sinus.
D. The mucosa is
smooth.
Ans is B (Mucosa is loosely attached to muscular coat.)
8. All
of the following structure CROSS from right to left EXCEPT
A. Left renal vein B. Left brachiocephalic vein
C. Left gonadal vein D. Hemiazygous vein
Ans is C (Left gonadal vein)
9. Posterior
communicating artery is a branch of
A. Internal carotid
artery B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Basilar artery D. Posterior cerebral artery
Ans is A (Internal carotid artery)
10. Cervical vertebral can be easily differentiated vertebral
by
A. Large vertebral
body 2}
Presence of foramen transversorium
C. Presence of
superior articular facet D. Wide vertebral canal from thoracic
Ans is B (Presence of foramen transversorium)
11. During chewing the major burden is over
A. Maxillozygomatic
arch B. Pterygozygomatic arch
C. Maxillopterygoid
arch D. Zygomaticotemporal arch
Ans is C (Maxillopterygoid arch)
12. Branches of supraclinoid segment of internal carotid artery
A. Ophthalmic artery B. Medullary branches
C. Branches to
pituitary D. Anterior cerebral artery
Ans is A (Ophthalmk artery)
13. Classically the Papez circuit of recent memory is related
to
A. Subpulvinar
nucleus B. Anterior thalamic nucleus
C. Venteromedial
nucleus D. Pulvinar nucleus
Ans is B (Anterior thalamic nucleus)
14. Meralgia paresthetica affects
A. Lateral cutaneous
nerve of thigh B. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
C. Genitofemoral
nerve D. Common femoral nerve
Ans is A (Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh)
15. Morgagni hernia is common through
A. Left anterior
aspect of the diaphragm B. Right anterior aspect of the diaphragm
C. Right posterior aspect
of the diaphragm D. Left posterior aspect of the diaphragm
Ans is B (Right anterior aspect of the diaphragm)
PHYSIOLOGY
16. True regarding changes in heart at high altitude
A. Wbrkload and ¯ Duration
B. ¯ Workload and ¯ Duration
C. Workload and Duration
D. ¯ Workload and Duration
Ans is A
Wbrkload and ¯ Duration
17. Regarding 4th heart sound true is
A. Heard during late
ventricular filling
B. Correlates with
aortic and pulmonary valve closure
C. They are never
audible in normal subjects
D. Is a feature of
right ventricular hypertrophy
Ans is A (Heard during late ventricular filling)
18. Coagulation factor present in serum as well as plasma
A. Factor II B. Factor V
C. Factor VII D. Factor VIII
Ans is C (Factor VII)
19. Short memory to long-term memory conversion is the function of
A. Hippocampus B. Amygdala
C. Fornices D. Cerebellum
Ans is A (Hippocampus)
20. Changes that occur in brain during learning and behaviour are
all EXCEPT
A. Neuron
multiplication
B. Greater volume of
capillaries per nerve cell
C. Increased weight
and thickness of the cerebral cortex
D. Higher amounts of
astrocyte per neuron
Ans is 1 (Neuron multiplication)
21. Delta-waves on EEG are seen in
A. NREM - I B. NREM - II
C. NREM - III D. Deep Sleep
Ans is D (Deep Sleep)
22. Not a steroid hormone receptor
A. Insulin receptor B. Thyroid hormone receptor
C. Retinoic acid
receptor D. Vitamin D receptor
Ans is A (Insulin receptor)
23. True regarding small intestinal motility is all EXCEPT
A. Intestinal
motility is increased by Ach. B. Intestinal motility is increased by CCK
C. Intestinal
motility depends on its distention D. Intestinal motility is independent of
nerve supply
Ans is D (Intestinal motility is independent of nerve
supply)
24. Not secreted by kidneys
A. Angiotensin I B. Angiotensin II
C. Renin D. Erythropoietin
Ans is B (Angiotensin II)
25. Acid resistant enzyme in pancreatic juice
A. CCK B. Pepsin
C. Chitin D. Trypsin
Ans is B (Pepsin)
26. Marker for bone formation all except
A. Alkaline
phosphatase B. Acid phosphatase
C. Osteocalcin D. Procollagen Type I
Ans is B (Acid phosphatase)
BIOCHEMISTRY
27. Not true regarding protoglycans
A. Contains small
amount of water in them.
B. Present in
cartilage, blood vessels and skin.
C. Can affect the
activity and stability of proteins and signalling molecules within the matrix. .
D. Are also involved
in binding cations (such as sodium, potassium, and calcium) and water, and
also regulating the movem ent of molecules through the matrix.
Ans is A (Contains small amount of water in them)
28. Action of 2,4-dinitrophenol
A. Inhibition of
cytochrome b
B. Blockade of both
electron transport and ATP synthesis
C. Uncoupler of
oxidative phosphorylation
D. Inhibition of
electron transport but not ATP synthesis
Ans is C (Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation)
29. Biotin is used in treatment of
A. PKU B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Propionic
acidamia D. Maple syrup urine disease
Ans is B (Multiple carboxylase deficiency).
30. Lac operon is example of which type of gene regulation?
A. Positive
regulation B. Negative regulation
C. Both D. Activator
Ans is B (Negative regulation)
31. A two - year - old child with fair skin, blue eyes, hyperactivity,
and occasional seizures, with urine turning green on ferric chloride test, the
diagnosis is
A. Phenylketonuria B. Alkaptonuria
C. Multiple
carboxylase deficiency D. Glutaric aciduria
Ans is A (Phenylketonuria)
32. Urine turns black on exposure to air in which of the following disease?
A. Cytinosis B. Alkaptonuria
C. Homocystinuria D. Maple syrup diseases
Ans is A (Alkaptonuria)
33. Protein separation can be done by
A. Centrifugation B. Electrophoresis
C. Chromatography D. Spectrometry
Ans is B (Electrophoresis)
34. The study of protein, particularly their structures and functions
is known as
A. Genomics B. Proteomics
C. Mass spectroscopy D. Bioinformatics
Ans is B (Proteomics)
35. In hypoxia glycolysis increases because
A. 2, 3 - DPG
activity decreases B. 2, 3 - DPG activity increases
C. ATP formation
decreases D. Glucose demand is less
Ans is B (2, 3 - DPG activity increases)
36. Incorrect regarding pentose phosphate pathway
A. Glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase is the committed step of the pentose phosphate pathway and it is regulated
by availability of the substrate NADP+.
B. Pentose phosphate
pathway serves as an entry into glycolysis for both 5-carbon and 6-carbon
sugars.
C. NADPH, a product
of the pentose phosphate pathway, functions as a reductant in various
synthetic (anabolic) pathways, including fatty acid synthesis.
D. It is active in
non-lactating mammary glands and its activity is high in skeleton muscles.
Ans is D (It is active in non-lactating mammary glands and
its activity is high in skeleton muscles.)
37. True regarding oxygenase in ETC
A. Helps to
breakdown ATP using energy contained in high energy electrons
B. Inhibits redox
reaction
C. Breaks double
bond at one time
D. Breaks single
bond at one time
Ans is C (Breaks double bond at one time) (Ref: Harper’s
Biochemistry)
38. Insulin increases glucose uptake in
A. Liver B. Brain
C. Muscles D. RBC
Ans is C (Muscles)
39. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum takes part in synthesis of
A. Lipids B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins
Ans is A (Lipids)
PATHOLOGY
40. Mediator of Type I hypersensitivity reaction
A. IgG B. IgA
C. IgE D. IgM
Ans is C (lgE)
41. Arthus reaction is hypersensitivity reaction
A. Type I B. Type II
C. Type III D. Type IV
Ans is C (Type III)
42. A 50 -year - old man has 80% lymphocytes and 20% neutrophils on
peripheral smear, likely diagnosis is
A. AML B. ALL
C. CML D. CLL
Ans is D (CLL)
43. Which of the following does not predispose to AML?
A. Fanconi’s
syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Turner’s syndrome D. Bloom’s syndrome
Ans is C (Turner’s syndrome)
44. Which is following is associated with autoimmune heamolytic
anaemia?
A. T-cell chronic
lymphatic leukaemia B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Pre B cell
chronic lymphatic leukaemia D. B-cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia
Ans is D (B-cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia)
45. Nonspecific esterase is positive in all the following varieties of
AML EXCEPT
A. M3 B. M4
C. M5 D. M6
Ans is D (M6)
46. Poor prognosis of ALL is associated with the following EXCEPT:
A. Female sex B. Age < 2 years
C. t (8, 21) D. Hyperploidy
Ans is A (Hyperploidy)
47. Glomerular pathology in patient with hepatitis C infection?
A. Mesangioproliferative
GN B. FSGN
C. RPGN D. Cryoglobulinaemia
Ans is D (Cryoglobulinaemia)
48. Bone marrow examination is absolutely necessary in diagnosis of
A. Hairy cell
leukaemia B. Acute leukaemic leukaemia
C. Myelodysplastic
syndrome D. CML
Ans is C (Myelodysplastic syndrome)
49. Protein which coagulates on heating at 40-50°C and the coagulation
resolves on heating at SO°C?
A. Amyloid precursor
protein B. Bence-jones protein
C. Conjugated
protein D. Heat shock protein
Ans is B (Bence-Jones protein)
50. Marker of dialysis associated amyloidosis
A. Transthyretin B. Beta2 microglobulin
C. Amyloid
associated protein D. Beta amyloid protein
Ans is B (Beta2 microglobulin)
51. Investigation for diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis
A. Rectal biopsy B. Bone marrow study
C. Urine examination D. Electrophoresis
Ans is A (Rectal biopsy)
52. Damage to basement membrane is mediated by
A. Metalloproteinase B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Superoxide
dismutase D. Capsases
Ans is A (Metalloproteinase)
53. Not a type of thyroid carcinoma
A. Medullary cell
carcinoma B. Merkel cell carcinoma
C. Insular carcinoma D. Follicular carcinoma
Ans is B (Merkel cell carcinoma)
54. Immune complex deposition in various organs. Diagnosis is
A. Systemic lupus
erythematosus B. PAN
C. Wegener’s
granulomatosis D. Chrug strauss disease
Ans is A (Systemic lupus erythematosus)
55. True statements regarding DIC are the following EXCEPT
A. Platelet count is
decreased in DIC B. Protamine paracoagulation test is
positive in DIC
C. Euglobin clot
lysis test is abnormal in DIC. D. D-dimer assay is diagnostic of DIC
Ans is C (Euglobin clot lysis test is abnormal in DIC)
56. Which of the following is immediate transient response of in flammation?
A. lymphocytosis B. Monocytosis
C. Transient
neutropenia D. Neutrophil infiltration
Ans is C (Transient neutropenia)
59. In ALL, L3 means
A. B cell All C. Pre BALL
B. T cell All D. T cell Cll
Ans is A (8 cell ALL)
PHARMACOLOGY
60. Which of the following is a prod rug?
A. Dipyridamole B. Aspirin
C. Disopyramide D. Ticlopidine
Ans is A (Dipyridamole)
61. Drugs used to treat obesity include all the following EXCEPT
A. Neuropeptide Y B. Orlistat
C. Butramine D. Acarbose
Ans is A (Neuropeptide Y)
62. Against MRSA drugs useful are all the following EXCEPT
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Vancomycin D. Cefaclor
Ans is A (Ciprofloxacin)
63. Drug which causes hypercoagulability?
A. Vinblastin B. Busulfan
C. Dacarbazin D. L-asparaginase
Ans is B (L-asparaginase)
64. Orange coloured urine is produced by
A. INH B. Streptomycin
C. Ethionamide D. Rifampicin
Ans is D (Rifampicin)
65. Leukotriene inhibitor used as anti-asthmatic drug is
A. Zoluton B. Montelukast
C. Budesonide D. Nedocromil
Ans is A (Montelukast)
66. Best for of treatment for bronchial asthma in infants
A. Zafirlukast B. Inhalational Beta2 agonists
C. Oral theophylline D. Budesonide
Ans is D (Inhalational Beta2 agonists)
67. True about heparin include all EXCEPT
A. Secreted by mast
cells B. Hypokalaemia is aproved side-effect
C. Thrombocytopenia
can occur D. Alopecia is known side-effect
Ans is B (Hypokalaemia is aproved side effect)
68. Antiepileptic that can be used in pregnancy
A. Phenytion B. Sodium valproate
C. Phenobarbitone D. Carbmazepine
Ans is C (Phenobarbitone)
69. All of the following act through Na+ channels except
A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine
C. Vigabatrin D. lomotrigine
Ans is C (Vigabatrin)
70. Fastest and longest acting insulin
A. Lisproinsulin B. Asphest
C. Girgine D. Glargine
Ans is D (Glargine)
71. A patient on ventilatory support is given atracurium, he develops
convulsions and coma after some days. The likely cause is
A. Cerebral oedema B. Allergic reaction
C. Ventilatory
failure D. Laudanosine induced toxicity
Ans is D (Laudanosine induced toxicity)
72. Non-selective beta-blocker having alpha blocking action in
addition to action on beta-l & beta-2 blocking action are all EXCEPT
A. Labetolol B. Carvedilol
C. Betaxolol D. Esmolol
Ans is C (Betaxolol)
73. A known side effect of beta2 agonist is
A. Hypokalaemia B. Alopecia
C. Impotency D. Hypercalcaemia
Ans is A (Hypokalaemia)
74. Which of the following is wrong match?
A. Sacrolimus -+ T
cell proliferation B. Tacrolimus -+ IL2-Calcineurin inhibitor
C. Mycophenolate -+
cGMP D. Cyclosporine -+ IL2 inhibitor.
Ans is A (Sacrolimus -+ T cell proliferation)
75. Which of the following is not correct regarding clonidine?
A. Acts as
parasympathomimetic drug B. Prazosin can block its all action
C. Is
centrally-acting alpha-2 agonist D. Acts on presynaptic receptors
Ans is B (Prazosin can block its all action)
76. Nevirapine is
A. Protease and
fusion inhibitor
B. Nucleoside
reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C. Nucleotide
inhibitors reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D. Non-nucleoside
reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
Ans is D (Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)
77. Peripheral neuropathy in common side effect of
A. Zidovudine B. Didanosine
C. Seqvinavir D. Lamivudine
Ans is B (Didanosine)
78. Glycoprotein lib-Ilia inhibitors include the following EXCEPT
A. Abciximab B. Eptifibatide
C. Tirofiban D. Clopidogrel
Ans is D (Clopidogrel)
79. High dose methotrexate therapy is used for treatment of
A. Liposarcoma B. Osteosarcoma
C. Rhabdomy D. Lung carcinohla osarcoma
Ans is B (Osteosarcoma)
80. The appropriate effect of corticosteroids on fetus when given to
mother include
A. Prevents
respiratory distress syndrome B. Involutes thalamus
C. Promotes growth D. Stimulates erythropoetin secretion
Ans is A (Prevents respiratory distress syndrome)
81. Prostaglandin used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease
A. Pg El B. Pg Ez
C. Pg E3 D. Pg E4
Ans is A (Pg E1)
82. Drug used for ovulation induction
A. Clomiphene
citrate B. Danazol
C. Tamoxifen D. OC pills
Ans is A (Clomiphene citrate)
83. Which of the following is not used to reduce blood pressure during
intraoperative period?
A. Esmolol B. Procainamide
C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil
Ans is D (Procainamide)
84. All the following can be used to treat erectile dysfunction EXCEPT
A. Phenylephrine B. Papaverine
C. Tildenafil D. Apomorphine
Ans is A (Phenylephrine)
85. Octreotide is known to cause which of the following side effects
A. Diarrhoea B. Rectal bleeding
C. Fever D. Blindness
Ans is A (Diarrhoea)
86. Drugs used for H. pylori EXCEPT
A. Bismuth B. Amoxicillin
C. Oxytetracycline D. Omeprazole
Ans is C (Oxytetracycline)
87. Naltrexone is used in treatment of
A. Opioid withdrawal B. Opioid overdose
C. Opioid dependence D. Ethanol toxicity
Ans is C (Opioid dependence)
88. Which is not an alkylating agent?
A. Busulfan B. Chlorombucil
C. Cyclophosphamide D. Gemcitabine
Ans is D (Gemcitabine)
89. SIADH is side effect of
A. Vincristine B. 5 - FU
C. Methotrexate D. Bleomycin
Ans is A (Vincristine)
90. Finasteride is
A. GnRH analogue B. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
C. Selective
estrogen receptor modulator D. Non-steroidal anti-androgenic drug
Ans is B (5-alpha reductase inhibitor)
91. Hypomethylating agent is
A. Azacitidine B. Cytosine arabinoside
C. Homoharringtonine D. Anguidine
Ans is A (Azacitidine)
92. Filgrastim is used in treatment of
A. Neutropenia B. Filaria
C. Malaria D. SIRS
Ans is A (Neutropenia)
93. Nesiritide is
A. Brain natriuretic
peptide B. GH secretion stimulant
C. Atrial
natriuretic peptide D. Aldosterone inhibitor
Ans is A (Brain natriuretic peptide)
MICROBIOLOGY
94. Chlamydia psittacosis causes all, except
A. Urethritis B. Cervicitis
C. Pneumonia D. Inclusion conjunctivitis
Ans is D (Inclusion conjunctivitis)
95. Northern blot test is used to detect
A. mRNA B. DNA
C. Proteins D. Antibody
Ans is A (mRNA)
96. Which of the following statements about Lepromin test is not true?
1) It is negative in most
children in first 6 months of life.
2) It is a diagnostic test.
3) It is an important aid
to classify type of leprosy disease.
4) BCG vaccination may
convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.
Ans is B (It is a diagnostic test)
97. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by
A. Peptostreptococci B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Anaerobic
streptococci D. Microaeroplic streptococci
Ans is C (Anaerobic streptococci)
98. An infant had high-grade fever and respiratory distress at the
time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood
culture was subsequently positive showing growth alpha-haemolytic colonies. On
Gram staining these were gram-positive cocci. In the screening test for
identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the
following agent
A. Bacitracin C. Optochin
B. Novobiocin D. Oxacillin
Ans is C (Optochin)
99. Most common organism causing meningitis in 1 year old child
A. Haemophilus
influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Listeria
monocytogenes D. Neisseria meningitidis
Ans is A (Haemophilus influenzae)
100. A patient admitted to an leu is on central venous line for the last
one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics, he
develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram-positive
cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was
started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after two
weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Staphylococcus
aureus B. Viridans streptococci
C. Enterococcus
faecalis D. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus
Ans is C (Enterococcus faecalis)
101. A worker developed pustule on back of hand, it ulcerated and
discharge was started from it. Which of the following would be the best
staining material for this necrotic ulcer?
A. Polychrome
methylene blue B. Modified Kinyoun stain
C. Cakafher white D. Carbolfuchsin
Ans is A (Polychrome methylene blue)
102. Diagnostic test for
a patient on treatment for H. pylori infection
A. Urea-breath test B. Rapid urease test
C. Gastric biopsy
and Warthin-starry stain D. Stool antigen test
Ans is A (Urea-breath test)
103. Botulinum
toxin acts on all the following EXCEPT
A. NMJ B. Peripheral nerves
C. CNS D. Ganglions
Ans is C (CNS)
104. A 37-year-old male presented with chest pain, high-grade fever, and
dry cough. The gram-negative organism responsible for causing it which can be
grown on BCYE agar is (AIIMS
2001)
A. Legionella
pneumophila B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Borrelia
burgdorferri D. Burkholderia cepacia
Ans is A (Legionella pneumophila)
105. Brucella
is transmitted by all the following routes except
A. Transplacental B. Milk borne
C. Person to person D. Inhalation
Ans is C (Person to person)
106. Which toxin act through adenylate cyclase activity? (AIIMS
2005)
A. Diphtheria
pertusis B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Campylobacter
jejuni D. Salmonella typhi
Ans is B (Vibrio cholerae)
107. Not
true regarding V. cho/erae
A. Grows in simple
medium
B. Nonhuman host are
not known (environmental hosts not known)
C. Requires human
intestine to grow
D. Nonhalophilic
Ans is D (Nonhalophilic)
108. Regarding
Vibro 0139 strain, untrue is
A. Are pathogenic
B. Vibrio 0137 can
cause disease in distinguishable from Vibrio
01
C. Was first found
in Chennai
D. Has
polysaccharide capsule
Ans is C (Was first found in Chennai)
109. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following
statements are true, EXCEPT (AIIMS-2006
May and Nov)
A. B. fragilis is
the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples.
B. B. fragilis is
not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole.
C. The
lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally
different from the conventional endotoxin.
D. Shock and
disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteraemia.
Ans is D (Shock and dissemina,ted intravascular coagulation
are common in Bacteroides bacteraemia)
110. All
true about Chlamydia trachomatis EXCEPT
A. Reticulate body
divide by binary fission
B. Elementary body
is metabolically active
C. Characterized by
biphasic cycle
D. Presents fusion
with phagolysosome after being intracellular.
Ans is B (Elementary body is metabolically active)
111. Which of the
following attacks on (destroys) virus infected cell?
A. Plasma cells B. NK cells
C. T cells D. Macrophages
Ans is B (NK cells)
112. Incineration
is used for all the following EXCEPT
A. Body fluids B. Sharp instrument
C. Cotton dressing D. Solid wastes
Ans is B (Sharp instrument)
113. Negri
bodies are seen in
A. Prion disease B. Cerebral malaria
C. Rabies D. Cysticercosis
Ans is C (Rabies)
FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY
114. Acrodynia
is seen in
A. Phenol B. Load
C. Mercury D. Arsenic
Ans is C (Mercury)
115. Burtonian
line seen in poisoning with
A. Arsenic B. Lead
C. Mercury D. Copper
Ans is B (Lead)
116. Antidote
for lead poisoning
A. SAC B. Penicillamine
C. Dimercaptosuccinic
acid D. Ca EDTA
Ans is D (Ca EDTA)
117. Spalding’s
sign seen in
A. Drowning B. Maceration
C. Hanging D. Poisoning
Ans is B (Maceration)
118. Site
of action of mercury
A. Loop of Henle B. PCT
C. DCT D. Collecting ducts
Ans is B (PCT)
119. Antidote
for muscarine type of mushroom poisoning
A. Steroids B. Amyl nitrate
C. Atropine D. Physostigmine
Ans is C (Atropine)
120. Most
commonly abused agent in India:
A. Cannabis indica B. Tobacco
C. Heroine D. Amphetamine
Ans is B (Tobacco)
COMMUNITY MEDICINE
121. Physical
quality of life index (PQLI) consists of all EXCEPT (AI 2000;
Maharashtra 2006, AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Infant mortality B. Life expectancy
C. Literacy D. Maternal mortality
Ans is D (Maternal mortality)
122. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates
between two countries. This is done because of the differences in:
A. Causes of death B. Numerators
C. Age distributions D. Denominators
Ans is C (Age distributions)
123. Sampling method used in assessing immunization status of children
under immunization programme
A. Systematic
sampling B. Stratified sampling
C. Group sampling D. Cluster sampling
Ans is D (Cluster sampling)
124. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer are due
to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of (AIIMS
2005 Nov)
A. Incidence rate B. Relative risk
C. Attributable risk D. Absolute risk
Ans is C (Attributable risk)
125. The major
purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to (AI 2006)
A. Facilitates
double blinding
B. Help ensure the
study objects are representative of general population
C. Ensure the groups
are comparable on baseline characteristics
D. Reduce selection
bias in allpcation to treatment
Ans is D (Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment)
126. A study of groups was done which included checking blood pressure
before and after treatment. This is which of the following studies? (AI
2000)
A. Fisher ‘F’ test B. Student
C. ANOVA D. Paired ‘t’ test
Ans is D (Paired ‘t’ test)
127. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6
tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine
the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know (AIIMS
2006 May &. Nov)
A. Prior probability
of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test
B. Incidence of SLE
and predictive value of each test
C. Incidence and
prevalence of SLE
D. Relative risk of
SLE in this patient.
Ans is A (Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and
specificity of each . test.)
128. True about the
herd immunity for infectious diseases (AI 2005)
A. It refers to protection
afforded by protection immunization.
B. It is likely to
be more for infectious that do not have subclini cal phase.
C. It is never
constant.
D. It is not
affected by the presence and distribution of alterative animal hosts.
Ans is C (It is never constant.)
129. To agree the result of new test and the gold standard test
(Statistical analysis can be best correlated between the two), best among the
following would be
A. Test of
significance B. Regression
C. Correlation D. Chi square test
Ans is A (Test of significance)
130. A physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain
disease, classifies the condition of each one as ‘normal’, ‘mild’, ‘moderate’
or ‘severe’. Which one of the following is the scale of measurement that is
being adopted for classification of the disease
condition? (AIIMS
98)
A. Nominal B. Interval
C. Ordinal D. Ratio
Ans is C (Ordinal)
131. A
patient is called obese if BMI is
A. 20-30 B. >25
C. >30 D. >40
Ans is C (> 30)
132. Best
indicator of chronic malnutrition
A. Weight for age B. Linear growth for age
C. Weight for height D. Arm circumference
Ans is B (Linear growth for age)
132. PUFA
are maximum in
A. Corn oil B. Soya bean oil
C. Fish oil D. Coconut oil
Ans is B (Soya bean oil)
133. The most sensitive indicator for monitoring the impact of iodine
deficiency disorders control programme is (AP
2004)
A. Goiter in age
group of 12 to 18 years B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant
women
C. Neonatal
hypothyroidism D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans is C (Neonatal hypothyroidism)
134. SAFE
strategy include all the following EXCEPT
A. Screening B. Antibiotics
C. Face washing D. Environmental improvement
Ans is A (Screening)
135. All the following are
done to prevent tetanus neonatorum EXCEPT:
A. Two TT doses to
all pregnant women B. TT to all females in reproductive age
group
C. TT to all
newborns D. Injection penicillin to all neonate
Ans is D (Injection penicillin to all neonate)
136. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except: (AIIMS
2006 Nov)
A. Measles B. Typhoid
C. Hepatitis B D. Cholera
Ans is A (Measles)
137. All
vaccines are included in EPI except
A. TT B. BCG
C. DT D. MMR
Ans is D (MMR)
138. Rubella
vaccine should be given to
A. All adolescent
girls
B. All non-pregnant
women
C. All pregnant
women between the age of 15-45 years
D. All non-pregnant
women between the age of 15-45 years
Ans is B (All adolescent girls)
139. Strain
used for BCG vaccine (ICS 2006)
A. Edmonston Zagreb
strain B. Oka strain
C. ‘Danish’ 131 D. RA27/3strain
Ans is B (‘Danish’ 131)
140. It is true regarding endemic typhus that (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Man is the only
reservoir of infection.
B. Flea is a vector
of the disease.
C. The rash
developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation.
D. Culture of the
aetiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality.
Ans is B (Flea is a vector of the disease)
141. Lice are not the vectors of: (AIIMS
2006 May)
A. Relapsing fever B. Q fever
C. Trench fever D. Epidemic typhus
Ans is B (Q fever)
142. According to RNTCP diagnosis of a suspected case of pulmonary
tuberculosis should be done by
A. Sputum microscopy B. Sputum culture
C. X-ray D. Antigen detection by PCR
Ans is A (Sputum microscopy)
143. Aryl group containing phosphorous
compounds are the followings EXCEPT
A. Tik 20 B. Propoxur
C. Metformin D. Phenformin
Ans is A (Tik 20)
MEDICINE
144. Most common
inheritance pattern of Mitochondrial diseases:
A. AD B. AR
C. XLR D. XLD
Ans is B (AR)
145. If mother is carrier of autosomal recessive disease and father is
normal, but the child is affected by disease, what is the pathology?
A. Uniparental
disomy B. Mosaicism
C. Anticipation D. Genomic imprinting
Ans is B (Mosaicism)
146. Differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with bone cellularity
will include all the following EXCEPT
A. G6-PD deficiency B. Myelodysplasia
C. Paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Megaloblastic anaemia marrow
Ans is A (G-6 PD deficiency)
147. Ham’s
test is useful for detection of
A. Mannose binding
protein B. Spectrin
C. Reduced
complement D. GPI anchor
Ans is C (Reduced complement)
148. All
are the features of raised ICT except
A. Blurring of
vision B. Headache
C. Vagus involvement D. Bradycardia
Ans is C (Vagus involvement)
149. Which of the
following defects is not present in spherocytosis?
A. Ankyrin B. Glycophorin A
C. Palladin D. Anionic protein
Ans is C (Palladin)
150. Benedict’s
syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT
A. Oculomotor nerve
palsy B. Contralateral tremors
C. Contralateral
hemiplegia D. Red nucleus involvement
Ans is C (Contralateral hemiplegia)
151. Millard-Gubler
syndrome consists of the following EXCEPT
A. Ipsilateral 5th
cranial nerve palsy B. Ipsilateral 6th cranial nerve palsy
C. Ipsilateral 7th
cranial nerve palsy D. Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans is A (Ipsilateral 5th cranial nerve palsy)
152. Antibody
helpful in diagnosing drug induced Lupus
A. Anti-histone
antibody B. Antf-ds DNA antibody
C. Anti-smooth
muscle antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody
Ans is A (Anti-histone antibody)
153. Which of the following is least
useful in diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
A. ESR B. Skeletal x-rays
C. Bone scan D. Serum electrophoresis
Ans is C (Bone scan)
154. Iron
deficiency anaemia is characterized by
A. TBC & - Ferritin B.
TBC & ¯ Ferritin
C. ¯ TBC & - Ferritin D. ¯
TBC & ¯ Ferritin
Ans is B ( TBC
& ¯ Ferritin)
155. CSF
findings suggestive of Tubercular meningitis include?
A. Proteins Sugar ¯
Lymphocytes B. Proteins
¯ Sugar ¯
Lymphocytes
C. Proteins Sugar
Lymphocytes D. Proteins
Sugar ¡
Lymphocytes
Ans is A (Proteins
Sugar ¯ Lymphocytes )
156. A 48-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habits and 12 kg
weight loss despite preservation of appetite. Antiendomysia I antibodies are
positive and she later on responds well to gluten-free diet. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. Agammaglobulinaemiaa B. Celiac sprue
C. Lactose
intolerance D. Whipple’s disease
Ans is B (Celiac sprue)
157. What will be the preferred treatment in a patient of acute anterior
wall infarction with cardiogenic shock?
A. Angioplasty B. Thrombolysis
C. DC shock D. Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation
Ans is D (Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation)
158. A female presents with atrial fibrillation with mitral regurgitation
present with syncope, the likeliest cause is
A. Cerebral infarct B. Cerebral edema
C. Vagal shock D. Cardiac overload
Ans is A (Cerebral infarct)
159. All
are seen in protein haemolysis EXCEPT
A. Reduced
hepatoglobin B. Reduced hematoerit
C. Normal serum
ferrition D. Reduced Myoglobin
Ans is D (Reduced Myoglobin)
160. All
are causes of polycythaemia EXCEPT
A. Ca lung B. Ca pancreas
C. Ca stomach D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
Ans is A (Ca lung)
161. Following
is not autosomal dominant diseases
A. Huntington’s
disease B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Fabry’s disease D. Neurofibromatosis
Ans is C (Fabry’s disease)
162. Residual
volume & TLC are decreased in
A. Bronchiolitis B. Asthma
C. Cystic
bronchiectasis D. Sarcoidosis
Ans is D (Sarcoidosis)
163. Most
common complication of measles?
A. Cranial nerve
palsy B. Otitis media
C. Pneumonia D. SSPE
Ans is B (Otitis media)
164. PT of patient is 26 and that of control is 13. Which of the following
is correct method to calculates INR
A. B. (26/13) 1.4
C. (26–13) 1.4 D. (26×13)
1.4
Ans is A
165. Aspirin
therapy increases
A. BT B. CT
C. PTT D. PT
Ans is A (BT)
166. Which of the following
is a minor criterion for rheumatic disease?
A. Subcutaneous
nodules B. Murmur
C. History of
rheumatic fever D. Fever
Ans is D (Fever)
167. Drug of
choice for treatment of shock in septicaemic shock
A. Phenylephrine B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine D. Isoprenaline
Ans is C (Epinephrine)
168. Fallot’s
pentology in addition to triad of tetralogy include
A. ASD B. VSD
C. PDA D. TGA
Ans is A (ASD)
169. Fourth
heart sound occurs due to
A. Atrial relaxation B. Atrial filling
C. Ventricular
systole D. Ventricular filling
Ans is D (Ventricular filling)
170. Which
does not occur in CCF?
A. Hypernatraemia B. Hypokalaemia
C. Tachycardia D. Hypomagnesaemia
Ans is A (Hypernatraemia)
171. Characteristic
ECG feature of hypokalaemia?
A. Tenting of T
waves B. Short ST segment
C. Short QTc
interval D. Prolonged PR interval with T inversion
Ans is C (Short QTc interval)
172. Most
common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
A. Minimal change
disease B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Collagen vascular
diseases D. Drug induced
Ans is B (Diabetes mellitus)
173. Wegener’s
granulomatosis involves all the following EXCEPT
A. Oral mucosa B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Respiratory tract D. Ocular structures
Ans is B (Intestinal mucosa)
174. Hypophosphatemia
occuse in all the following EXCEPT
A. Chronic
alcoholism B. Diabetes ketoacidosis
C. Acute- Renal
Failure D. Total Parenteral Nutrition
Ans is C (Acute Renal Failure)
175. Function
of Broca’s area
A. Word formation B. Communication
C. Grammatical
corrections D. Effortless speech
Ans is A (Word formation)
176. Features
of Brown-Sequared syndrome are all EXCEPT
A. Contralateral
dorsal column involvement B. Loss of temperature and pain on opposite
side
C. Loss of touch on
opposite side D. Loss of motor power on opposite side
Ans is A (Contralateral dorsal column involvement)
PAEDIATRICS
177. How will you monitor a 2 day-old neonate in NICU who
is not on ventilatory support?
A. Impedance
measurement B. Infrared CO2 measurement
C. Intranasal
temperature measurement D. Chest movement observation
Ans is D (Chest movement observation)
178. Moro’s
reflex is considered abnormal if it persists even after
A. 3 months B. 4 months
C. 5 months D. 6 months
Ans is D (6 months)
179. Which
is the earliest milestone amongst the following?
A. Pincer grasp B. Creeping
C. Mirror gazing D. Crawling
Ans is C (Mirror gazing)
180. Neonatal
reflex present at birth
A. Crossed extensor
reflex B. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Symmetric tonic
neck reflex D. Rooting reflex
Ans is B (Asymmetric tonic neck reflex)
181. A child has developed mouthing but no stranger anxiety or no
development of expressions or likes and dislikes. What is the likely age of the
child?
A. 4 months B. 5 months
C. 6 months D. 7 months
Ans is B (5 months)
182. A
6 years old child with 50% IQ is able to
A. Ride bicycle B. Draw triangle
C. Read simple
sentence D. Identify colour
Ans is D (Identify colour)
183. ‘Cat
eye’ syndrome -is
A. Partial trisomy
13 B. Partial trisomy 18
C. Partial trisomy
21 D. Partial trisomy 22
Ans is D (Partial trisomy 22)
184. Differential
growth in boys and girls is due to
A. Activin B. Inhibin
C. Foliculotoxin D. FSH
Ans is D (FSH)
185. If
TGA found in fetus, mother should be screened for
A. Gestational
hypertension B. Gestational diabetes
C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperemesis gravida rum
Ans is B (Gestational diabetes)
186. Heart
is not involved in
A. Lowe’s disease B. Type II Glycogen disorder
C. Duchene’s Muscular
dystrophy D. Frederick’s ataxia
Ans is A (Lowe’s disease)
187. A 3 years old child is poor in language development has poor
concentration, no friends, plays only with himself, and has some delay in
milestones. The likely diagnosis is
A. ADHD B. Autism
C. Specific learning
disorder D. Normal for age
Ans is B (Autism)
188. Kawasaki
disease is characterised by all EXCEPT
A. Pitting oedema B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Rash D. Fever
Ans is A (Pitting oedema)
189. Jitteriness and seizers are differentiated from each
other by the following EXCEPT?
A. Autonomic
disturbance B. Sensitivity to stimulus
C. Frequency of
movements D. Abnormal gaze
Ans is B (Sensitivity to stimulus)
190. Which of the following enzymes is increased markedly
in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
A. Alkaline
phosphatase B. ALT & AST
C. Glutamate
dehydrogenase D. y-Glutamyl transpeptidase
Ans is C (Glutamate dehydrogenase)
191. Most
common malignancy in children?
A. Leukaemia B. Lymphoma
C. Neuroblastoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Ans is A (Leukaemia)
DERMATOLOGY
192. Which of the following tests should be done for evaluation of a
neonate with bullous skin lesion and X-ray showing periostitis at long bones?
A. VORL B. PCR for tubercular DNA
C. Evaluation of
mother D. ELISA
Ans is D (VORL)
193. A child has presented with eczematous dermatitis on extensor
aspects of extremities with severe itching. His mother has history of bronchial
asthma. The likely diagnosis is
A. Acute eczematous
reaction B. Scabies
C. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
Ans is C (Atopic dermatitis)
194. Regarding
Pityriasis rosea true is
A. Self-limiting
condition B. Chronic relapsing condition
C. Dermatophytic
infection D. Common in neonates
Ans is A (Self-limiting condition)
195. Which of the
following is not true about Mycosis fungoides?
A. It is the most
common cutaneous lymphoma B. Pautrier abscess can occur
C. Diffuse
erythroderma is common D. It often curable by therapy and has
indolent course.
Ans is D (Often curable by therapy and has indolent course)
196. Leprosy
affects all the following organs
A. Bone B. Liver
C. Ovary D. Nails
Ans is C (Ovary)
197. Best treatment for borderline tuberculoid
leprosy with severe ulnar neuritis?
A. Multi drug
therapy with chloroquine B. Multi drug therapy with steroids
C. Single drug therapy
with thalidomide D. Single drug therapy only
Ans is B (Multi drug therapy with steroids)
198. Which
of the following is TUBERCULIDE?
A. Lupus vulgaris B. Lupus scrofulaceum
C. Scrofuloderma D. Tuberculosis verruca cutis
Ans is B (Lupus scrofulaceum)
PSYCHIATRY
199. Delusion is disorder of (Maharashtra
2003)
A. Thought B. Insight
C. Perception D. Behaviour
Ans is A (Thought)
200. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia,
EXCEPT (DNB
2000)
A. Late onset B. Married
C. Negative symptoms D. Acute onset
Ans is C (Negative symptoms)
201. Drug
of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol D. Clozapine
Ans is B (Fluoxetine)
202. Commonest
feature of alcohol withdrawal
A. Tremors B. Diarrhoea
C. Lacrimation D. Insomnia
Ans is A (Tremors)
203. Loosening
of associations is an example of
A. Formal thought
disorder B. Schneinderian first rank symptoms
C. Perseveration D. Concrete thinking
Ans is C (Perseveration)
SURGERY
204. Regarding congenital Torticollis all the
following statements are true except
A. In 2/3rd cases a
sternomastoid mass is palpable
B. If untreated can
lead to plagiocephaly
C. About 80% undergo
spontaneous resolution
D. Always associated
with breech presentation
Ans is D (Always associated with breech presentation)
205. Regarding
thyroid Iympho.ma, true is all EXCEPT
A. More common in
female than in males.
B. It compresses,
displaces, and involves trachea and oesophagus.
C. Is a slow growing
tumour.
D. Histological differentiation
from anaplastic carcinoma can be difficult.
Ans is B (It compresses, displaces, and involves trachea
and oesophagus)
206. True
regarding gynecomastia is all EXCEPT
A. Surgery is
primary treatment
B. Can occur in
liver disorders
C. Is reversible
after stopping the responsible drug
D. Drug induced
gynecomastia need surgical excision.
Ans is D (Drug induced gynecomastia need surgical excision)
207. Most
important prognostic factor in head injury
A. Glasgow coma
scale B. CT scan head
C. Age of the
patient D. Skull fracture
Ans is A (Glasgow coma scale)
208. Best
abdominal incision for blunt trauma abdomen
A. Midline incision B. Paramedian incision
C. Transverse
incision D. Incision according to organ involved
Ans is A (Midline incision)
209. Best approach for surgical repair of the injury to abdominal aorta
above the level of renal artery involving superior mesenteric artery, coeliac
trunk, and the suprarenal branch
A. Right medial
visceral rotation B. Left medial visceral rotation
C. Right lateral
visceral rotation D. Left lateral visceral rotation
Ans is A (Right medial visceral rotation)
210. About stomach
injury all the following statements are EXCEPT
A. Gastric injuries
often result form penetrating trauma
B. During
evaluation, nasogastric aspirate positive for blood always indicate an injury
to the stomach.
C. Role of
extravasation of gastric contents in genesis of post operative complications is
closely related to the dynamics of the gastric flora.
D. Most penetrating
injuries to stomachi are treated by means of debridement of the wound edges
& primary Closure in layers.
Ans is B (During evaluation, nasogastric aspirate positive
for blood always indicate an injury to the stomach)
211. Treatment
of ZES?
A. Proton pump
Inhibitor B. H2 receptor blocker
C. Antaacid therapy D. Partial gesterctomy
Ans is A (Proton pump Inhibitor)
212. Sites
of portosystemic shunting are all EXCEPT
A. Liver B. Spleen
C. Rectum D. Oesophagus.
Ans is B (Spleen)
213. Which
of the following is not premalignant?
A. Juvenile polyp
B. Hamartomatous
polyps of Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
C. Juvenile
polyposis
D. Villous adenomas
Ans is A (Juvenile polyp)
214. Which of the
following is not correct regarding pilonidal sinus?
A. Lining epithelium
is stratified sqnamous
B. Recurrence is
common, even though adequate excision is carried out.
C. Operation should
be performed only when inflammation is controlled
D. Surgery is
treatment of choice
Ans is None (All four options are true)
215. Most common
neuroendocrine tumour of panaceas in MEN 11
A. Ins,ulinoma B. Somatostatinoma
C. Gastrinoma D. Vipoma
Ans is C (Gastrinoma)
216. In a 50-year-old male with history of carcinoma prostate, Best
investigation for screening will be:
A. ORE B. PSA
C. ORE & PSA D. T 1 T2 weighted MRI
Ans is C (ORE & PSA)
217. lnvestigations useful in patient with carcinoma of bladder
include the following EXCEPT
A. IVP B. Ultrasonography
C. Urine PSA D. Urine cytology
Ans is C (Urine PSA)
218. A 60-year-old smoker presented with painless haematuria. Which of
the following would be most useful step for evaluation
A. USG KUB B. Urine RIM
C. Plain x-ray KUB D. Urine microscopy for malignant cells
Ans is A (USG KUB)
219. In urethral rupture above the level of
perineal membrane, the urine collects in
A. Retropubic space B. Scrotum
C. Superficial
pereneal pouch D. Anterior abdominal wall
Ans is A (Retropubic space)
ORTHOPAEDICS
220. Entrapment
neuropathy occur in all EXCEPT
A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Femoral nerve D. Anterior tibial nerve
Ans is D (Anterior tibial nerve)
221. In patients with osteoarthritis of knee joint, pain due to stress occurs
mainly in which muscle?
A. Quadriceps B. Gastrocnemius
C. Quadriceps and
Hamstring D. Hamstrings
Ans is A (Quadriceps)
222. Tubular
cast used at
A. Shoulder B. Knee
C. Hip D. Spine
Ans is B (Knee)
223. In physiotherapy we use heat, deep or superficial. Which of the
following is not deep heating modality?
A. Short wake
diathermy B. Long wave diathermy
C. High frequency
ultrasound D. Microwave
Ans is B (Long wave diathermy)
224. Which of
the following is not to be done in osteosarcoma?
A. Bone marrow
biopsy B. Bone scan
C. Chest X-ray D. X-ray of bones
Ans is A (Bone marrow biopsy)
225. The most
common mechanism of injury to cervical spine?
A. Flexion injury B. Extension injury
C. Rotational injury D. Compression injury
Ans is A (Flexion injury)
226. ‘Burst
fracture’ of vertebra is most commonly caused by
A. Compression
fracture B. Vertebral hemangioma
C. Tuberculosis D. Metastasis
Ans is A (Compression fracture)
OPHTHALMOLOGY
227. Which of the
following helps in uptake of vitamin C in lens?
A. Sodium B. Taurine
C. Choline D. Protein
Ans is A (Sodium)
228. Lamina
cribrosa is absent in
A. Optic nerve
dysplasia B. Morning glory syndrome
C. Nanopthamia D. Retinal degeneration
Ans is B (Morning glory syndrome)
229. Antioxidants
in eye include following EXCEPT
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C D. Catalase
Ans is B (Vitamin B)
230. Cherry
red spots on retina are all the following EXCEPT
A. GM1
gangliosidosis B. Krabe’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick’s
disease D. Sandhoff’s disease
Ans is B (Krabe’s disease)
231. Chronic papilloedema is
characterized by all the following EXCEPT
A. Axonal swelling B. Loss of axoplasm
C. Axonal death D. Atrophy of the retinal nerve fiber layer
Ans is A (Axonal swelling)
232. Least
common cause of childhood blindness in India
A. Congenital
dacrocystitis B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Malnutrition D. Glaucoma
Ans is A (Congenital dacrocystitis)
233. A young male patient complained of orbital mass with proptosis which
increases on forward bending. The swelling was compressible. There is no bruit
or thrill. On USG, the lesion was retro-orbital and hypoechoic. The likely
diagnosis is
A. Orbital varix B. Orbital encephalocele
C. Neurofibroma D. AV malformation
Ans is A (Orbital varix)
234. Which of the following is
an autosomal dominant disorder of retina?
A. Bardet-Bied
syndrome
B. Best disease
C. Gyrate atrophy
(defective arentihine ketoacid amina transferse activity)
D. Bassen-Kornweg
syndrome
Ans is B (Best disease)
EAR, NOSE AND THROAT
235. Brown’s
sign seen in
A. Otosclerosis B. Glomus tumour
C. Cholesteatoma D. Serous otitis media
Ans is B (Glomus tumour)
236. CSF
rhinorrhoea most commonly occurs with the fracture of
A. Frontal sinus B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Sphenoid sinus D. Maxillary sinus
Ans is B (Ethmoid sinus)
237. True
regarding traumatic facial nerve palsy is all EXCEPT
A. Usually occurs
with transverse petrous temporal bone fracture.
B. Usually occurs
with longitudinal petrous temporal bone fractture.
C. Post traumatic
facial nerve palsy is always complete at the time of presentation.
D. Decompression of
the canal can be useful treatment
Ans is B (Usually occurs. with longitudinal petrous
temporal bone fracture.)
238. Which of the following is earliest involved
or affected by Acoustic neuroma?
A. 5th Cranial nerve B. 6th Cranial nerve
C. 7th Cranial nerve D. 10th Cranial nerve
Ans is A (5th Cranial nerve)
239. Rhinophyma
is (AP 96)
A. Congenital
deformity of nose B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland of nose
C. Hypertrophy of
sweat gland of nose D. Infection of hair follicles of nose
Ans is B (Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland of nose)
240. A child has dyspnoea and stridor which decreases in lying down
position, likely diagnosis is
A. Acute
epiglottitis B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Retropharyngeal
abscess D. Foreign body
Ans is B (Acute laryngotracheobronchitis)
241. Rhinolalia
clausa is a feature of following EXCEPT
A. Nasal polyp B. Palatal palsy
C. Adenoid
hypertrophy D. Nasopharyngeal mass
Ans is B (Palatal palsy)
ANAESTHESIA
242. Which one of the
local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
A. Procaine B. Bupivacaine
C. Lignocaine D. Mepivacaine
Ans is A (Procaine)
243. A 10-year-old boy undergoing an ocular surgery is induced on
thiopentone and suscamethonium. Ambulation 6 hours. postopertively developed
pain in legs. What is reason?
A. Ocular condition B. Thiopentone toxicity
C. Suxamethonium D. Earlyambulation
Ans is C (Suxamethonium)
244. Epidural block can be carried
out in patients with the following EXCEPT
A. Aspirin B. Heparin
C. Warfarin D. EACA
Ans is D (Epilson Aminocaproic acid)
245. Which of the following is contraindicated in infants as preoperative
anaesthetic agent?
A. Morphine B. Atropine
C. Paracetamol D. Metoclopramide
Ans is A (Morphine)
246. True
about acute oxygen toxicity is the following EXCEPT
A. Reduced cerebral
blood flow can occur with oxygen toxicity
B. It can cause
convulsions and coma.
C. It can be life
threatening.
D. Blindness is
known complication.
Ans is D (Blindness is known complication)
RADIOLOGY
247. Best
investigation for detection of temporal bone fracture
A. Clinical
examination B. X-ray
C. CT scan D. MRI
Ans is C (CT scan)
248. On
TVS, normal cervix is
A. T-shaped B. V-shaped
C. U-shaped D. a-shaped
Ans is B (Y-shaped)
249. Secondary
curve of spine with concavity posteriorly is
A. Cervical B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar D. Sacral
Ans is A (Cervical)
250. Radioctive
iodine used in radioimmunoassay
A. 1-123 B. 1-125
C. 1-131 D. 1-133
Ans is B (1-125)
251. Bohler’s
angle is lost in fracture of
A. Talus B. Femoral neck
C. Calcaneum D. Tibial plateau
Ans is A (Talus)
252. Epiphyseal
bone tumour:
A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma D. Enchondroma
Ans is C (Osteoclastoma)
253. Pulsatile
bone tumour
A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour D. Ewing sarcoma
Ans is C (Giant cell tumour)
254. Aneuploidy
in first trimester can be best diagnosed by
A. Nuchal
translucency at 14 weeks B. CRL
C. Amniotic fluid
volume D. B-HCG
Ans is A (Nuchal translucency)
255. Colour doppler finding
suggestive of impending fetal death in IUGR
1) Reduced systolic flow in
umbilical artery
2) Reduced diastolic flow
in umbilical artery
3) Diastolic notch in
uterine artery
4) Reversal of flow in
umbilical artery
Ans is D (Reversal of flow in umbilical artery)
256. A child has pain in the right thigh since 1-2’months. X - ray of his
thigh reveals a osteolytic metadiaphyseallesion of femur with ‘sunray’
appearance and Codman’s triangle. This is diagnostic of
A. Ewing’s sarcoma B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma D. Giant cell tumour
Ans is B (Osteosarcoma)
257. A neonate developed CCF at birth. He had bruit on auscultation at
AF. Through the open AF cranIal ultrasonography was done which revealed a
well-defined round to oval midline hypoechoic lesion in between the lateral
ventricles. The CCF was not responding to treatment. Likely diagnosis is
A. Arachnoid cyst B. Teratoma
C. Vein of Galen
malformation D. Choroid plexus tumour
Ans is C (Vein of Galen malformation)
258. A young male was brought to emergency department in unconscious
state with historY of head injury. CT scan head revealed small multiple
haemorrhages in both cerebral hemispheres with compressed basilar cisterns. No
midline shift. The likely diagnosis is
A. Diffuse axonal
injury B. Cerebral contusion
C. Cerebral
laceration D. Multiple infarcts
Ans is A (Diffuse axonal injury)
259. A middle aged female had progressive paraplegia and urinary
retention. CEMRI revealed an enhancing iso to hyperintense extramedullary
intradural mass. The spinal cord was displaced and compressed. The likely
diagnosis is
A. Teratoma B. Ependymoma
C. Meningioma D. Dermoid
Ans is C (Meningioma)
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
260. An
ovarian cyst detected, postmortem should be operated
A. Immediately B. After 2 wks
C. After 6 wks D. After 8 wks
Ans is A (Immediately)
261. Most common type
of HPV associated with carcinoma of cervix
A. 16 C. 31
B. 18 D. 33
Ans is A (16)
262. Most common persistent
form of gestational trophoblastic disease:
A. Hydatidiform mole B. Partial mole
C. Invasive mole D. Choriocarcinoma
Ans is C (Invasive Mole)
263. GTD
metastases occur most commonly to
A. Brain B. Lungs
C. Bone D. Liver
Ans is B (Lungs)
264. Hypothyroidism is
pregnancy can result in all the following EXCEPT
A. Recurrent
abortion B. PIH
C. Polyhydramnios D. Prematurity
Ans is C (Polyhydramnios)
265. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all the following EXCEPT (AIIMS
92)
A. Broad ligament of
uterus B. Levator ani muscle
C. Uterosacral
ligament D. Transcervical ligament
Ans is A (Broad ligament of uterus)
266. Nulliparous
cervix is
A. Round B. Tubular
C. Transverse D. Longitudinal
Ans is B (Tubular)
267. Maximum cardiac overload is in which of
the following periods of pregnancy?
A. First trimester B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester D. Immediate postpartum period
Ans is B (Second trimester)
268. Common symptoms associated with uterine myomas include all
the following EXCEPT (Delhi 93)
A. Amenorrhoea B. Menorrhagia
C. Pelvic mass D. Infertility
Ans is B (Menorrhagia)
269. Contraindication
to extend cephalic version
A. PIH B. Flexed breech
C. Primigravida D. Oligohydramnios
Ans is A (PIH)
270. 0C pills have
protective effect against all the following except
A. Ca breast B. Benign breast disorders
C. Ca endometrium D. Endometriosis
Ans is A (Carcinoma breast)
271. Most commonly
removed/rejected part of loop in limbecolmy includes
A. Intramural part B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla D. Fimbrial end
Ans is B (Isthmus)
272. Most
common anomaly in infant of diabetic mother
A. Sacral agenesis B. TGA
C. Anencephaly D. PUJ obstruction
Ans is A (Sacral agenesis)
273. Most
common ovarian tumour to undergo torsion
A. Dermoid B. Cystadenocarcinoma
C. Fibroma D. Brenner’s tumour
Ans is A (Dermoid)
274. Most
common ovarian tumour amongst the following?
A. Dermoid cyst B. Cu 380
C. Dysgerminoma D. Germ Cell tumour
Ans is B (Cu 380)
275. Which
of the following has half life of 10 years?
A. Cu T 200 B. Cu 380 A
C. Lippes loop D. LNG - IUD
Ans is B (Cu 380 A)
276. Which
of the following is not correct regarding IUCD?
A. Failure rate of
lipes loop & Cu is same
B. They act by
causing non-specific inflammatory reaction and lysosomal disintegration
C. Cu T 380 A is not
3rd generation IUCD.
D. Cu T 380 A has
half life of 10 years
Ans is C (Cu T 380 A is not 3rd generation IUCD)
277. Haemorrhage
in most common in
A. Carcinoma cervix B. Carcinoma endometrium
C. Vaginal carcinoma D. Ovarian cancer
Ans is A (Carcinoma cervix)
278. Maximum
chances of HBV transmission to fetus is during?
A. 1st trimester
pregnancy B. 2nd trimester pregnancy
C. 3rd trimester
pregnancy D. During delivery
Ans is A (1st trimester pregnancy)
279. Which of the following is a procedure used for extracting sperm
for fertilization in artificial insemination of donor?
A. MESA B. TESA
C. GIFT D. ZIFT
Ans is B (TESA)
280. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the heighest if Dilatation and
Curettage is doen for the following condition:
A. Medical
termiantion pregnancy. B. Missed abortion.
C. Dysfunctionl
uterine bleeding. D. Post partum haemorrhage.
Ans is A (Medical termiantion pregnancy)
No comments:
Post a Comment