ANATOMY
AND EMBRYOLOGY
1. Which is the most superior strcture at
hilum of left lung?
A. Pulmonary
vein
B. Pulmonary
artery
C. Bronchus
D. Bronchial
artery
Ans. B
2. Intrinsic muscles of tongue develop from?
A. Cervical
somite
B. Mesoderm
of pharyngeal pouch
C. Occipital
somite
Ans. C
3. Gall bladder epithelium is:
A. Simple
squamous
B. Simple
cuboidal with stereocilia
C. Simple
columnar
D. Simple
columnar with brush border
Ans. D
4. Which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury
in the arm?
A. Claw
hand
B. Atrophy
of hypothenar eminence
C. Loss
of sensation of medial one third of hand
D. Adduction
of thumb
Ans. D
5. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta,
blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through :
A. Inferior
Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
B. Intercostal
and Superior epigastric
C. Subcostal
and Ubmilical
D. Intercostal
and Inferior epigastric vessels
Ans. B
6. Urothelium lines all except :
A. Minor
calyces
B. Ureter
C. Urinary
bladder
D. Collecting
duct
Ans. D
7. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to
avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attached to the tuberosity of the
5th metatarsal :
A. Peroneus
brevis
B. Peroneus
longus
C. Peroneus
tertius
D. Extensor
digitorum brevis
Ans. A
8. Primitive streak initiation and
maintenance is due to :
A. Barchyury
gene
B. BMPR-4
C. Nodal
gene
D. FGR-8
Ans. C
9. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta :
A. Anteriorly,
above the superior mesenteric artery
B. Anteriorly,
below the superior mesenteric artery
C. Posteriorly,
at the level of superior mesenteric artery
D. Anteriorly,
below the inferior mesenteric artery
Ans. B
10. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary
artery, blood flow is maintained by anasomosis between :
A. Anterior
and posterior circumflex humeral artery
B.
Suprascapular and posterior curcumflex artery
C. Deep
branch of the tranverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
D. Anterior
circumflex artery and subscapular artery
Ans. C
11. If the circumflex artery gives off the
posterior interventricular artery, them the arterial supply is called :
A. Right
dominance
B. Left
domisance
C. Balanced
dominance
Ans. B
12. Regarding genital development, true is :
A. Y
Chromosome is associated with ovary development
B. Genital
ridge starts developing at 5th week
C. Male
genitals develop earlier than female genitals
D. Genital
development is complete by 10th week
Ans. B
13. Meiosis occurs at which of the following
trasforamtion :
A. Primary
spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
B. Primary
spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
C. Secondary
spermatocyte to round spermatid
D. Round
spermatid to elongated spermatid
Ans. B
14. The ureter develops from :
A. Metanephros
B. Mesonephros
C. Mesonephric
duct
D. Paramesonephric
duct
Ans. B
15. Perforators are not present at the :
A. Ankle
B. Distal
calf
C. Mid
thigh
D. Below
the inguinal ligament
Ans. D
16. A female come with complaints of chest pain.
One examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion.
The pain is mediated by :
A. Deep
cardiac plexus
B. Superficial
cardiac plexus
C. Phrenic
nerve
D. Subcostal
nerve
Ans. C
17. Which muscle is not punctured while doin a
thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line :
A. Innermost
intercostals
B. Transverses
thoracis
C. External
intercostals
D. Internal
intercostals
Ans. B
18. According to Couinaud’s classification the
4th segment of the liver is :
A. Caudate
lobe
B. Quadrate
lobe
C. Left
lobe
D. Right
lobe
Ans. B
19. After fracture of the penis (injury to the
tunica albuinea) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at :
A. The
penis and acrotum
B. At
the perineum in a butterfly shape
C. Penis,
scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
D. Shaft
of the penis only
Ans. D
PHYSIOLOGY
20. About myocardial O2 demand, true is :
A. Inverse
relation with heart rate
B. Inverse
relation to systemic hypertansion
C. Constant
relation to external work done
D. Negligible
in quiescent heart
Ans. C
21. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are
inhibited by :
A. Increase
in anaerobic glycolysis
B. Activation
of anaerobic glycolysis
C. Activation
of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
D. Interference
with electron chain transport
Ans. B
22. Regarding nitric oxide, false is :
A. Seen
in the lung of smokers
B. Increases
cAMP levels
C. Used
to treat hypertension
Ans. B
23. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors
for :
A. FSH
B. LH
C. Inhibin
Ans. A
24. Bicarbonate is maximally abosrbed from :
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Collecting
duct
D. Thich
ascending loop of Henle
Ans. A
25. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute
rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency, She is likely to have :
A. Increased
peak expiratory flow
B. Increased
total lung capacity
C. Increased
residual volume
D. Decreased
functional residual capacity
Ans. D
26. The mechanism af action of surfactant is :
A. Breaks
the structure of water in the alveoli
B. Lubricates
the flow of CO2 diffusion
C. Makes
the capillary surface hydrophilic
Ans. A
27. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to :
A. Atrial
contraction
B. Bulging
of the reicuspid valve into the right atrium
C. Ventricular
systole when the tricuspid valve is closed
Ans. B
28. Fast axonal transport is by all except :
A. Dynenin
B. Kinesin
C. Microfilaments
D. Neurofilaments
Ans. D
29. Ureteric peristalsis is due to :
A. Symparhetic
innervation
B. Parasympathetic
innervation
C. Both
sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
D. Pacemaker
activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis
Ans. D
30. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in :
A. Mineralocorticoid
excess
B. Increased
excretion of base
C. Decreased
secretion of H+ion
D. Deficiency
of mineralocorticoids
Ans. A
31. When a person changes position from standing
to lying down position, following occurs :
A. Heart
rate increases and settles at a higher level
B. Venous
return to the heart rises immediately
C. Cerebral
blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher
level
D. Decrease
in blood flow to th lung apex
Ans. B
32. All of the following occur when the blood
flows through systemic capillaries except :
A. Increase
in hematocrit
B. Hb
curve shifts to the left
C. Increased
protein content
D. Decrease
in Ph
Ans. B
33. Effect of Exercise does not include :
A. Increased
blood flow to the muscles after half minute of exercise
B. Increase
in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
C. Body
temperature rise
Ans. B
34. Which of the following is correctly matched
:
A. B
cells - Somatostain
B. D
cells - Insulin
C. G
cells - Gastrin
Ans. C
35. 18 year old male presents with pectus
excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination
there is mild pectus exacavtum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery
in this patient is indicated if he has :
A. FEVI
/ FVC less than 0.60
B. Limitation
of maximum inspiration during exercise
C. Peak
work capacity 60% of expected
D. Functional
work capacity 80% of expected
Ans. B
BIOCHEMISTRY
36. Peroxidase is used to detect :
A. Glucose
B. Ammonia
C. Hemoglobin
D. Creatinine
Ans. A
37. For biochemical analysis vitreous in sent in
:
A. Hydrochloric
acid
B. Phenol
/ xylol
C. Formalin
D. Fluoride
Ans. D
38. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by :
A. Sodium
hypochlorite
B. Iodine
C. A
bsolute alcohol
D. Quarternary
ammonium compounds
Ans. A
39. PCR requires :
A. Li++
B. Ca++
C. Na++
D. Mg++
Ans. D
40. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is :
A. The
lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
B. There
is a defect in the fusion of lysosomes and phagosomes
C. There
is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
Ans. A
41. Vitamin K is required for :
A. Carboxylation
B. Hydroxylation
Ans. A
42. Proteins which are different in peptide
sequence but have a similar structure in the process of evolution are said to
be :
A. Convergent
B. Divergent
C. Opportunistic
D. Incidental
Ans. A
43. Hemoglobin estiamtion is not done by :
A. Drabkin’s
method
B. Sahil’s
method
C. Spectrometry
D. Wintrobe’s
method
Ans. D
44. Nephelometry is :
A. Lambert-beer
law
B. Scattering
of light by particulate solution
C. Defraction
of light
D. Decreased
intensity of light
Ans. B
PATHOLOGY
45. Stem cell transforms to form other tissues
the process is called as :
A. Dedifferentiation
B. Redifferentiation
C. Transdifferentiation
D. Subdifferentiation
Ans. C
46. A 2-year old child presents with scattered
lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly
associated is :
A. CDla
B. CD57
C. CD3
D. DC68
Ans. A
47. Caspases are involved in :
A. Apoptosis
Ans. A
48. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological
finding is :
A.
Hyalinization of the valve
B. Fibrinoid
necrosis
C. Myzomatous
degeneratin of the valve
Ans. C
49. Acridine orange is used as a stain for :
A. DNA
and RNA
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrate
D. Lipids
Ans. A
50. PAs does not stain :
A. Fungal
cell wall
B. Basement
membrane of bacteria
C. Glycogen
D. Lipids
Ans. D
51. Not used to stain facts :
A. Oil
red O
B. Congo
red
C. Sudan
III
D. Sudan
black
Ans. B
52. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the
following execpt :
A. Factor
VIII
B. Factor
IX
C. Von
Willebrand factor
D. Fibrinogen
Ans. B
53. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen
present is :
A. Type
1
B. Type
2
C. Type
3
D. Type
4
Ans. B
54. FNAC needly gauge size is :
A. 26
- 28
B. 22
- 26
C. 18
- 22
D. 16
- 18
Ans. B
55. Basement membrane consists of all except :
A. Laminin
B. Nidogen
C. Entactin
D. Rhodopsin
Ans. D
56. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect
in :
A. a2
_ microglobulin
B. Transthyretin
C. AANE
D. Pyrin
Ans. B
57. Shock lung is characterized histologically
by :
A. Diffuse
alveolar oedema
B. Hemosiderosis
C. Interstitial
pneumonia
D. Pulmonary
oedema
Ans. A
58. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is :
A. Amorphous
deposit in the mitochondria
B. Swelling
of endoplasmic reticulum
C. Detachment
of ribosome
Ans. A
59. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except
:
A. Chronic
hepatitis B
B. Alcoholic
hepatitis
C. Chronic
cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
D. Hemochromatosis
Ans. A
60. Councilman bodies are seen in :
A. Alcoholic
cirrhosis
B. Wilson’s
disease
C. Acute
viral hepatitis
Ans. C
61. What is true linkage analysis in familial
gene disorders :
A. Characteristic
DNA ploymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
B. Characteristic
DNA polymorphism with a clinical phenotype
C. Useful
to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
D. Used
to make a pedigree chart to show non-paremity
Ans. C
PHARMACOLOGY
62. OC pills are contraindicated in parients
reveiving :
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Streptomycin
D. Pyrainamide
Ans. A
63. True about fibrates is all except :
A. activate
PPARa
B. Absorped
better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
C. Side
effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
D. They
are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
Ans. B
64. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to
other bypnotics is :
A. They
alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
B. More
sedative than other hypnotics
C. Overdose
is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
Ans. C
65. Thiazides cause all except :
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased
calcium excretion
C. Increased
uric acid excretion
D. Useful
in congestive heart failure
Ans. B
66. Regarding Furosemide true is :
A. Given
by parenteral route only
B. Used
in pulmonary edema
C. Acts
at the PCT
D. Causes
hypercalcemia
Ans. B
67. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect
:
A. Ritogrine
B. MgSO4
C. Nifedipine
D. Progesterone
Ans. C
68. Bisphosphonates are not used in :
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Cancer
D. Vitamin
D intoxication
Ans. D
69. True about protease inhibitor are all except
:
A. Acts
as a substrate for P-glycoprotein and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene
B. Undergo
hepatic oxidative metabolism
C. All
protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
D. Saquinavir
causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
Ans. D
70. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of
the following except :
A. Tacrolimus
B. Metformin
C. Cyclosporine
D. Phenytoin
Ans. B
71. Antiemetic with most “affinity” for “5Ht3”
is :
A. Ondansetron
B. Granisetron
C. Dolasetron
D. Palonosetron
Ans. D
72. Regarding Phenytoin false is :
A. Induces
microsomal enzymes
B. At
very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
C. Higher
the dose, higher is the half life
D. Highly
protein bound
Ans. B
73. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except :
A. Beta
blockers
B. Glucocorticoids
C. NSAID
D. Indinetgacin
Ans. D
74. Which of the following is not used as a
sedative, but causes sedation as a side effect :
A. Digitalis,
anit-arrhythmics
B. Antihistaminics,
antidepressants
C. Mactolides
Ans. B
75. All but one acts via GABA A except :
A. Thiopentone
B. Midazolam
C. Zolpidem
/ zopiclone
D. Promethazine
Ans. D
76. A patient is posted for elective surgery.
Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery :
A. Atenolol
B. Amlodepine
C. Statins
D. Metformin
Ans. D
77. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except :
A. Loop
diuretics
B. Lithium
C. Vitamin
D intoxication
Ans. A
78. All of the following can be used for
thromboprophylaxis except :
A. Heparin
B. Aspirin
C. Warfarin
D. Antithrombin-III
Ans. D
79. Used for the treatment of migraine, the
triptans act through :
A. 5HT-1A
B. 5HT-1B
C. 5HT-1F
D. 5HT-3
Ans. B
80. Good clinical practices required in all
except :
A. Preclinical
phase
B. Phase
1
C. Phase
2
D. Phase
4
Ans. A
FORENSIC
MEDICINE
81. Telefona is :
A. Beating
on the feet (soles)
B. Pulling
of hair
C. Beating
on both the ears
Ans. C
82. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened
is :
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Thorax
D. Abodomen
Ans. B
83. All of the following are included in
grievous hurt except :
A. Loss
of testis
B. Loss
of eye
C. Loss
of kidney
D. Abrasion
of the face
Ans. D
84. Not a part of informed consent is :
A. All
information should be given about treatment options
B. All
iformation about expected complications should be told
C. Any
treatment option better than the treatment being provided should be told
D. Concealed
information
Ans. D
85. In tandem number of bullets fired :
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans. B
MICROBIOLOGY
86. HACEK group includes all except :
A. Hemophilus
aprophillus
B. Acinetrobacter
baumanni
C. Eikenella
corrodens
D. Cardobacterium
bominis
Ans. B
87. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis.
Examination reveals only pus cell but no organisms Lesions are caused mostly by
:
A. Chalmydia
trachomatis
B. H.ducreyi
C. Treponema
pallidum
Ans. A
88. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done
by using :
A. M
protein
B. Group
C peptidoglycan cell wall
C. Groups
C carbohydrate antigen
Ans. C
89. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is :
A. Thayer-martin
B. TCBS
medium
C. Scirrow’s
medium
D. Loeffer’s
Ans. B
90. Prions consist of :
A. DNA
and RNA
B. DNA,
RNA and proteins
C. RNA
and proteins
D. Only
proteins
Ans. D
91. Regarding mumps all are true except :
A. SSPe
B. Mumps
causes aseptic meningitis in adults
Ans. A
92. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen
except :
A. HbsAg
B. IgM
anti-HbcAg
C. Anti-HbsAg
Ans. B
93. True about polioviruses is :
A. Most
cases are symptomatic
B. Inactivated
vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
C. Inactivated
polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
Ans. D
94. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the
person is :
A. Immune
to diphtheria
B. Hypersensitive
to diphtheria
C. Susceptible
to diphtheria
D. Susceptible
& hypersensitive to diphtheria
Ans. D
95. True about Corynebacterium diphrheria is :
A/E
A. Deep
invasion is not seen
B. Elek’s
test is done for toxigenicity
C. Metachromatic
granules are seen
D. Toxigenicity
is mediated by chromosomal change
Ans. D
PSM
96. Which of the following will cause an icrease
in the prevalence of the disease :
A. Immigration
of healthy perosons
B. Increased
cure rate of the disease
C. Longer
duration of the disease
Ans. C
97. Which vaccine should not be given to a child
suffering from convulsions?
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. OPV
Ans. C
98. Under the National Programme for control of
blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students ?
A. School
teachers
B. Medical
officers of health centers
C. Ophthalmologists
D. Health
assistants
Ans. A
99. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in
apparently helthy persons is :
A. Screening
B. Surveillance
C. Case
finding
D. Notification
Ans. A
100. A 18 month old child come to you with history
of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give
now?
A. Re-srart
the immunization according to age
B. Give
BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
C. Give
Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
D. Give
BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT
Ans. B
101. Regarding National Polio surveillance all are
true except :
A. Mopping
up is done in areas with active cases found
B. Better
routine immunization
C. Acute
Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) Surveillance is not done in childern < 5years of
age.
Ans. D
102. Epidemic Dropsy is due to :
A. BOAA
B. Sanguinarine
C. Aflatioxin
Ans. B
103. In an epidemic the first case of come to the
notice of the investigator is :
A. Index
case
B. Primary
case
C. Secondary
case
D. Tertiary
cse
Ans. A
104. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by :
A. Maternal
deaths/live birth
B. Maternal
deaths/1000 live births
C. Maternal
deaths/100000 live births
D. Maternal
deaths/100000 live births
Ans. D
105. Comparison of the value obtained and a
predetermined objective is done by:
A. Ealuation
B. Monitoring
C. Input
- output analysis
D. Network
analysis
Ans. A
106. Not included in the National Immunisation
Programme is :
A. Tetanus
toxoid
B. Hepatitis
B
C. BCG
D. Measles
Ans. B
107. Kala-azar, vector is:
A. lea
B. Tsetse
fly
C. Sand
fly
D. Mite
Ans. C
108. Scrub typhus is transmitted by :
A. Reduvid
bug
B. Trombiculid
mite
C. Enteric
pathogens
D. Cyclops
Ans. B
109. Mirena is :
A. Used
in abortion
B. Anti-progesterone
C. Progesterone
IUCD
D. Hormonal
implant
Ans. C
110. True about dietary allowance are all except :
A. Adequate
intake
B. RDA
C. Dietary
intake according to food compose
Ans. A
111. Which of the following person is present in a
lab-centre :
A. Multipurpose
worker
B. Laboratory
technician
C. Health
educator
D. Medical
officer
Ans. A
112. SAFE strategy is recommended for :
A. Trachoma
B. Glaucoma
C. Diabetic
retinopathy
D. Cataract
Ans. A
113. Regarding flourosis all are true except :
A. Flourosis
is the most common cause of dental caries in children
B. Deposition
of fluorides in the skeletal system and muscles
C. Defluoridation
is done by Nalgonda technique
D. Genu
valgum
Ans. A
114. All of the following are sources of U-3 PUFA
except :
A. Mustard
oil
B. Groundnut
oil
C. Corn
oil
D. Fish
oil
Ans. B
115. All are measure of dispersion around central
value except :
A. Mode
B. Range
C. Variable
D. Standard
deviation
Ans. A
116. Primary Health Care is :
A. Health
for all
Ans. A
ENT
117. In emergency tracheostomy the following
structures are damaged except:
A. Isthmus
of the thyroid
B. Inferior
thyroid artery
C. Thyroidea
ima
D. Inferior
thyroid vein
Ans. B
118. After laparoscopic appendicectomy a female
patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the
nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What
would you do next?
A. Intravenous
antibiotics for 7-10 days
B. Observation
in hospital
C. Surgical
drainage
D. Discharge
after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks
Ans. C
119. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx
involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic
folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is :
A. Vertical
hemilaryngectomy
B. Horizontal
hemilaryngectomy
C. Radiotherapy
followed by chemotherapy
D. Total
laryngectomy
Ans. B
120. A child presents with ear infection with foul
smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the
pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the
management would be :
A. Topical
antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
B. IV
antibiotics and follow up after a month
C. Tympanoplasty
D. Tympano-mastoid
exploration
Ans. D
121. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history
of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever
subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the
middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous.
Next best investigation would be :
A. MRI
of the brain
B. NCCT
of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
C. Plain
x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
D. Inferior
meatus puncture
Ans. B
OPTHALMOLOGY
122. Dangerous area of the eye is :
A. Ciliary
body
B. Sclera
C. Optic
nerve
D. Retina
Ans. A
123. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all
except :
A. Mitotic
figures in the central cornea
B. Wide
separated collagen bands
C. Hydration
of the corneal epithelium
D. Unmyelinated
nerve fibers
Ans. B
MEDICINE
124. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks.
He is most likely to have :
A. Raised
parathyroid hormone levels
B. Raised
calcitonin levels
C. Increased
phosphate levels
D. Increase
in levels of 24, 2a Hydroxylase in liver
Ans. A
125. Not seen in SIADH is:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypopuricemia
C. Volume
depletion causing hypotension
Ans. C
126. A 40-year-old man, heavy smoker, complains of
epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found
to have ST elevations in inferior leads. What is the immediate therapy :
A. Aspirin
B. Thrombolytics
C. Pantoprazole
D. Beta-blockers
Ans. B
127. Most common site of subependymal giant cell
astrocytomas is :
A. Foramen
of Monro
B. Temporal
horn of the lateral ventricle
C. Trigone
of the lateral ventricle
D. Fourth
ventricle
Ans. A
128. In HIV window period indicates :
A. Time
period between infection and onset of first symptoms
B. Time
period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
Ans. B
129. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is
seen :
A. Hypertrophy
and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
B. Proliferation
of the parietal epithelium
C. Tuft
necrosis
D. Mesangiolysis
Ans. A
130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is
due to :
A. Congenital
renal defect
B. Obstructive
uropathy
C. Intrauterine
infections and scar
D. Is
a normal variant
Ans. D
131. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He
has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid
nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous
angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
A. MEN
1
B. MEN
2A
C. MEN
2B
D. MEN
2C
Ans. A
132. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen
in all except :
A. PNH
B. Megaloblastic
anaemia
C. Myelodysplastic
anaemia
D. Congenital
Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
Ans. D
133. Most common tumour in NF-1 is :
A. Astrocytoma
B. Optic
tract glioma
C. Glioblastoma
multiforme
Ans. B
134. Fractional excretion of Na+ < 1% is seen in :
A. Pre-renal
azotemia
B. ATN
C. Intrinsic
renal failure
D. Renal
artery stenosis
Ans. A
135. With CSF all are true except :
A. Persistent
leakage causes headache
B. Neutrophils
are normally not present
C. pH
is less than that of blood
D. Secreted
by the arachnoid villi
Ans. D
136. Not a feature of DKA is :
A. Tachypnoea
B. Bradycardia
C. Abdominal
pain
D. Dehydration
Ans. B
137. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension is caused by all
except :
A. Hyperventilation
B. Morbid
obesity
C. Fenfluramine
D. High
altitude
Ans. A
138. Cushing’s disease includes all except :
A. Central
obesity
B. Episodic
hypertension
C. Easy
bruisability
D. Glucose
intolerance
Ans. B
139. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all
except :
A. Renal
artery stenosis
B. End
stage renal disease
C. Caushing’s
disease
D. Primary
hyperaldosteronism
Ans. B
140. Seen in agenesis of corpus collosum is :
A. Astereognosis
B. Hemiparesis
C. Hemisensoriloss
D. No
neurological deficit
Ans. D
141. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is :
A. HBV-DNA
polymerase
B. IgG
anti-HBc
C. Core
antigen (HbcAg)
D. Anti-HbsAg
Ans. A
142. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally
characterized by :
A. Mitochondrial
blebs and enlarged mitochondria
B. Depletion
of glycogen
C. Dilatation
of the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Perinuclear
staining
Ans. A
143. Von Hippel Lindau syndrome includes all except
:
A. Endolymphatic
sac tumours
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Hemangioendotheliomas
D. Islet
cell tumours
Ans. A
144. Which of the following is not included in
intensive management of diabetes mellitus :
A. Pregnancy
B. Postural
hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
C. DM
with acute MI
D. Post
kidney tranplant
Ans. B
145. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with
hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in :
A. Alexender’s
disease
B. Krabbe’s
ds.
C. Canavan’s
ds
D. Metachromatic
leucodystrophy
Ans. B
146. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is :
A. Intradural
extramedullary
B. Extradural
C. Intramedullary
D. All
have equal distribution
Ans. B
147. The best investigation is thromboembolism is :
A. D-dimer
levels
B. Multidetector
CT angiography
C. Colour
Doppler USG
D. Catheter
angiography
Ans. B
148. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no previous
significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely
diagnosis is :
A. Vasovagal
shock
B. Pulmonary
embolism
C. Complete
heart block
D. Temporal
lobe epilepsy
Ans.
ECG tracing is required to answer this question.
149. All are essential components of TOF except :
A. Valvular
pulmonic stenosis
B. Right
ventricular hypertrophy
C. Infundibular
stenosis
D. Aorta
overriding
Ans. A
SURGERY
150. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will
produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip :
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Medial
rotation
D. Lateral
rotation
Ans. B
151. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except :
A. It
is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
B. It
involves entier / part of the large colon
C. It
occurs after previous surgery
D. It
occurs commonly after narcotic use
Ans. A
152. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to :
A. Subphrenic
abscess
B. CO2 insufflation
C. Positioning
of the patient
D. Compression
of the lung
Ans. B
153. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy.
On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending
till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The
thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
A. Percutaneous
aspiration
B. I.V.
antibiotics
C. Surgical
removal
D. Observation
Ans. C
154. A 30 year old male patient presents with a
peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The
bleeding is not controlled endoscopically, on examination his heart rate is
100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step
in his management will be :
A. Proton
pump inhibitors
B. Duodenotomy
with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
C. Duedenotomy
with controlled bleeder and truncal vegotomy with antrectomy
D. Partial
gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
Ans. C
155. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a
transhiatal oesophagectomy is planned. The approach would be in the following
order :
A. Abdomen
– Neck
B. Chest
– Abdomen – Neck
C. Abdomen
– Chest – Neck
D. Right
chest – Neck
Ans. A
156. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal
complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which
increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the
hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals
plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is
5.5. Most likely diagnosis :
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Ca-Urinary
bladder
C. Ureteral
calculus
Ans. C
OBS
& GYNAE
157. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with
rheumatic heart disease, which is contraindicated :
A. Misoprostol
B. Methylergometrine
C. Oxytocin
D. Carboprost
Ans. B
158. THE BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear
is :
A. Ethyl
alcohol
B. Acetone
C. Formalin
D. Xylol
Ans. A
159. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient
operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
A. Deep
myometrial invasion
B. Pelvic
lymph node involvement
C. Enlarged
uterine cavity
D. Poor
tumour differentiation
Ans. C
160. Polyhyramnios is associated with all except :
A. Tracheo-esophageal
fistula
B. Anencephaly
C. Bilateral
renal agenesis
D. Bowel
atresia
Ans. C
161. A 18 year old primigravida complained of
decreaed fetal movements. She deliveerd a baby weighing 2000 gms at 30 weeks of
gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes
respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed
multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common
associated finding in the baby would be:
A. Holoprosencephaly
B. Hepatic
cysts and hepatic fibrosis
C. Ureteral
agenesis
D. Medullary
sponge kidney
Ans. B
162. In which of the following heart diseases is
maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
A. Coarcatation
of aorta
B. Eisenmenger’s
complex
C. Aortic
stenosis
D. Mitral
stenosis
Ans. B
163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all
except :
A. Polycystic
ovarian disease
B. Multiple
pregnancies
C. Ovarian
cancer
D. Teratogenecity
Ans. D
164. Following is associated with maximum risk of
invasive carcinoma of cervix :
A. Low
grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
B. High
grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
C. Squamous
intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
D. Squamous
intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV
Ans. B
165. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true
in a normal person except :
A. Sperm
count > 20 million
B. Volume
> 1 ml
C. Normal
morphology in > 15% (strict criteria)
D. Aggressive
forward motility in > 25%
Ans. D
166. A third gravida female with a history of 2
previous 2nd trimester abortions present at 22 weeks of gestation with
funnelling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be :
A. Administer
Dinoprostone and bed rest
B. Administer
mifipristone and bed rest
C. Apply
Fothergill’s stitch
D. Apply
McDonald’s stitch
Ans. D
167. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of
transverse lie is associated with the following complication:
A. Uterine
rupture
B. Vaginal
laceration
C. Uterine
atony
D. Cervical
laceration
Ans. A
168. Decrease in maternal serum AFP levels is seen
in all except :
A. Down’s
syndrome
B. Molar
pregnancy
C. Over
estimated gestational age
D. Congenital
Nephrotic Syndrome
Ans. D
169. An 18-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea,
weight loss and milky discharge from the nipples. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anorexia
nervosa
B. Occult
carcinoma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. HIV
Ans. A
170. Goniometry is measurement of :
A. Number
of gonococci
B. Length
of the genital hiatus
C. Urethrovesicla
angle
D. Genital
secretion
Ans. C
171. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except
:
A. HSG
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Endometrial
culture
D. Saline
infusion USG
Ans. C
PEDIATRICS
172. Most common type of seizures in neonates are :
A. Clonic
B. Tonic
C. Subtle
D. Myoclonic
Ans. C
173. In Down’s syndrome, false is :
A. Increased
PAPP-A
B. Increased
b-HCG
C. Absent
nasal bone
D. Increased
ductus venous blood flow
Ans. A
174. A newborn female child, weight 3.5 kg,
delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately
after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on
mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates
and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within
a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative.
Your diagnosis is :
A. Total
anomalous pulmonary vein connection
B. Meconium
aspiration syndrome
C. Neonatal
pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
D. Disseminated
HSV infection
Ans. C
175. In a survey, many children are examined and
were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers
are most likely to be associated with which anomaly :
A. Medullary
sponge kidney
B. Bladder
extrophy
C. Unilateral
renal agenesis
D. Double
ureter
Ans. B
176. A 71/2 year old child presents with non
productive cough, mild stridoe since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is
improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray
shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is
:
A. Post
viral syndrome
B. Bronchiolitis
obliterans
C. Follicular
bronchitis
D. Pulmonary
alveolar microlithiasis
Ans. B
177. A 2-year-old female child developed fever,
cough and respiratory distress. On chest xray consolidation is seen in right
lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was
against found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever.
Your next investigation would be :
A. Bronchoscopy
B. Bacterial
culture of the nasopharynx
C. CT
scan of the chest
D. Allergen
sensitivity test
Ans. A
178. A child presents with history of respiratory
infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41 mEq/L on two different
occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic
fibrosis :
A. Repeat
sweat chloride measurements
B. Nasal
electrode potential difference
C. Fat
in stool for next 72 hours
D. DNA
analysis for A 508 mutation
Ans. B
179. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48
hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next
most appropriate investigation would be :
A. Genetic
testing for cystic fibrosis
B. Manometry
C. Lower
bowel contrast enema
D. Oesophagoscopy
Ans. B
180. A 12 year old child presents with nonblanching
rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over hematuris +++. On
kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen :
A. Fusion
of podocytes
B. Acute
tubular necrosis
C. Deposition
of IgA
D. Thickened
basement membrane
Ans. C
181. A child presented with respiratory distress was
brought to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. After few minutes he was
intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid
abdomen. His Pulse impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
A. Remove
the Endotracheal tube
B. Put
a nasogastric tube
C. Surgery
D. Tube
thoracostomy
Ans. B
SKIN
182. 22 year female taken medicine for typhoid fever
3 months back. She developed generalized loss of hair:
A. Telogen
effluvium
B. Anagen
effluvium
C. Alopecia
areata
Ans. A
183. Regarding vitiligo all are true except :
A. Occurs
in genetically predisposed individual
B. UV
B therapy given
C. Local
steroid
D. Leukotrichia
is a good prognosis
Ans. D
184. Cicatrical alopecia is seen in all except :
A. Alopecia
areata
B. Pseudopalady
C. Lichen
planus
D. DLE
Ans. A
RADIOLOGY
185. Floating water lily sign sign on X ray chest –
A. Hydatid
disease of liver
B. Aspergillosis
C. Tubercular
cavity
D. Bronchiectasis
Ans. A
186. ‘Egg-on-side’ apearance on X-ray chest is seen
in :
A. Tetralogy
of Fallor
B. Uncorrected
TGA
C. Tricuspid
atresia
D. Ebstein’s
anomaly
Ans. B
187. Hampton’s hump is seen in :
A. Pulmonary
embolism
B. Tuberculosis
C. Broncogenic
CA
Ans. A
PSYCHIATRY
191. Regarding type A personality, false is :
A. Hostility
B. Time
pressure
C. Competitiveness
D. Mood
fluctuations
Ans. D
192. All are characteristics of schizophrenia
except:
A. Third
person auditory hallucinations
B. Inappropriate
emotions
C. Long
stretches of mood changes
D. Formal
thought disorder
Ans. C
193. Altered perception of real objects is :
A. Illusion
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Delirium
Ans. A
194. Psychodynamic therapy of mental illness is
based on:
A. Unconscious
conflict
B. NMaladaptive
reinforcement
C. Organic
neurological problem
D. CNV
Ans. A
195. Learning does not include:
A. Modeling
B. Catharsis
C. Exposure
D. Sensitization
Ans. B
ORTHOPAEDICS
196. Kanavel sign present in :
A. Tenosynovitis
B. Dupuytren’s
contracture
C. Carpal
tunnel syndrome
D. Trigger
finger
Ans. A
197. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
A. Increased
serum alkaline phosphatase
B. Increaed
serum calcium
C. Looser’s
zones
D. Proximal
myopathy
Ans. B
198. Staging of bone tumours is done by :
A. Enneking
B. Manchester
C. Edmonton
D. TNM
Ans. A
199. Primary impact injury is seen externally most
commonly in the:
A. Head
B. Chest
C. Legs
D. Abdomen
Ans. C
200. One of the following is the watershed area of the
colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
A. Hepatic
flexure
B. Splenic
flexure
C. Ascending
colon
D. Descending
colon
Ans. B
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