AIIMS MAY 2008

ANATOMY

1.      Movement take place during abduction of shoulder joint are all except?

A.    Medial rotation of scapula

B.    Axial movement at acromioclavicualar joint

C.    Elevation of humerus

D.   Movement at clavicular end of sternoclavicular joint

Ans. A

2.      Structures in deep perineal pouch are all except :

A.    Dorsal nerve of penis

B.    Sphincter urethera

C.    Bulbouethral gland

D.   Root of penis

Ans. D

3.      Nerve compressed by aneurysm of post communicating Artery is?

A.    Oculomotor nerve

B.    Optic nerve

C.    Hypopyhsis cerebri

D.   Trochlear nerve

Ans. A

4.      Which is not a part of cavernous part of internal carotid artery?           (Repeat From Aipg-07)

A.    Cavernous branch

B.    Inf. hypophyseal

C.    Meningeal

D.   Opthalmic

Ans. D

5.      U/L injury to hypoglossal nerve leads to all except :

A.    Deviation of tongue toward paralysed side

B.    Hemiatrophy of involved side

C.    Deviation of larynx toward normal side

D.   Loss of tactile sensation of tongue

Ans. D

6.      As compared to embryo adult cell does not divide because?

A.    CDK inhibitors are persent in adults which prevents cell from entering in S phase

B.    Adult cell can’t divide

C.    Not recalled

Ans. A

7.      Thoracic duct receives all except?

A.    Bilateral ascending lumbar

B.    Bilateral descending thoracic

C.    Left upper intercostal

D.   Right thoracic duct

Ans. D

8.      True about valves in portal venous system:

A.    Valves throughout the system

B.    Valves in splenic vein

C.    No valves

D.   Valve at junction of splenic and sup. mesenteric artery?

Ans. C

9.      In case of post-ductal coarctation distal anastomotic artery, which is NOT involved?

A.    Subscapular artery

B.    Posterior intercostal artery

C.    Vertebral arteries

D.   Axillary arteries

Ans. C

10.    If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of function of all of the following will take place except:

A.    Lumbrical to the index finger

B.    Lumbrical to the middle finger

C.    Muscles on the thenar eminence

D.   Adductor policis

Ans. D

PHYSIOLOGY

1.      Which does not influence cerebral blood flow?          (Repeat may AIIMS 07)

A.    Potassium level

B.    Blood pressure

C.    Cerebral metabolic rate

D.   Arterial CO2

Ans. A

2.      Steroid receptor has attachment site for all except:

A.    Steroid hormone

B.    Transcription enhancer

C.    Transcription repressor

D.   Steroid hormone responsive element

Ans. C

3.      True for high altitude pulmonary oedema is?

A.    Occurs in unacclimatized partients only

B.    Associated with pulmonary hypertension

C.    Associated with low cardiac output

D.   Not recalled

Ans. B

4.      While standing, which does not contribute to increased venous return to lower limbs?

A.    Muscle contraction of soleus

B.    Arterial BP

C.    Competence of perforators

D.   Deep fascia in leg

Ans. B

5.      Non-noxious stimulus is perceived as pain in:

A.    Allodynia

B.    Dysesthesia

C.    Parasesthesia

D.   Hyperaesthesia

Ans. A

6.      Sweating is absent in:

A.    Heat syncope

B.    Heat exhaustion

C.    Heat cramps

D.   Heat stroke

Ans. D

7.      Concentration of ion at equilibrium is explained by all except:

A.    Nerst eq.

B.    Gibbs Donnan eq.

C.    Goldman eq

D.   Not recalled

Ans. B

8.      Main factor regulating CSF pressure?

A.    Rate of formation

B.    Cerebral blood flow

C.    Rate of absorption

D.   Not recalled

Ans. B

9.      Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation?       (Repeat may aiims 06)

A.    Pulmonary vasoconstriction ovvurs in response to hypoxia

B.    Pulmonary vasodilatation ovvurs in response to hypoxia

C.    Decreased blood vol. during systole

D.   Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone

Ans. A

10.    Golgi tendon organ meausres?          (Repeat May Aiims 06)

A.    Dynamic length

B.    Static length

C.    Senses muscle tension

D.   Alpha molar neuron stimulation

Ans. C

11.    Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as :      (REPEAT NOV AIIMS 06)

A.    Accommodation

B.    Adaptation

C.    Refractoriness

D.   Electrotonus

Ans. A

12.    All are true about facilitated diffusion except:

A.    It is carrier mediated

B.    It requires energy

C.    Occur across biological membranes

Ans. B

BIOCHEMISTRY

1.      True about G Protein-Coupled Receptors (GPCR)?

A.    It has 2 forms one stimulatory and one inhibitory

B.    ------- units are when associated leads to activation

C.    GTP binds in inactive state

D.   Binds to effector at cell surface

Ans. A

2.      All present in cystinosis except:

A.    Renal calculi

B.    Fanconi syndrome

C.    Presence of leukocyte cystine

D.   Photophobia and blond hari

Ans. A

3.      Insulin causing lipogenesis by all except:

A.    Causes glucose 2 move inside cell

B.    Increase activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase

C.    Increase cAMP

D.   Increases activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase

Ans. C

4.      Poly-A tail forms:

A.    Polylysine

B.    Polyproline

C.    Polyalanine

D.   Polyglycine

Ans. A

5.      Which of the following is not true about vitamin D?

A.    1 hydroxylation occur in kidney

B.    24 hydroxylation occur in liver

C.    In absence of sunlight 400-600 IU of vitamin required

D.   Williams syndrome consists of precocious puberty, mental retardation and obesity

Ans. C

6.      White/blue color screening used in DNA cloning is for:

A.    Finding a vector

B.    For finding that DNA of interest is cloned into vector

C.    For finding final product of cloning

D.   Not recalled

Ans. B

7.      Prion protein are?

A.    Extended

B.    Helical

C.    Random

D.   Beta sheets

Ans. D

8.      Thiamine def. causes decreased energy production because?

A.    Not recalled

B.    Decreased activity of transketolase

C.    Not recalled

D.   Decreased activity of alpha-keto glutarate dehydrogenase and private dehydrogenase

Ans. D

9.      Phosphatidyl choline in a lipid monolayer its ph=3.5 (below its pKa) leads to?

A.    Increases surface potential

B.    Decreases surface potential

C.    Decreases dipole movement

D.   Zero dipole movement

Ans. C

10.    True about denaturation of proteins is all except:

A.    Disruption of secondary structure

B.    Biological activity is retained

C.    Sequence of amino acids remain the same

D.   Uncoiling occurs

Ans. B

11.    During catabolic phase excess of amino acids lead to increase nitrogen mechanism:

A.    Increased protein synthesis

B.    Decreased protein degradation

C.    Both increased protein synthesis and decreased protein degradation

D.   Increased gluconeogenesis

Ans. C

12.    All are functions of glutathione except:

A.    Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin

B.    Protection from oxidative stress

C.    Disposal of H2O2

D.   Not recalled

Ans. A

PATHOLOGY

1.      A patient presents with mediastinal mass with sheets of lymphocytes and an arborizing pattern of keratin reactivity. The apt diagnosis would be:

A.    Thymoma

B.    Thymic carcinoid

C.    Primary mediastinal lymphoma

D.   Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Ans. B

2.      A 30-yrs old female, RBC counts 4.5 million, MCV 55 fl, TC 8000, no history of blood transfusion?

A.    Iron deficiency anemia

B.    Thalessemia major

C.    Thalessemia minor

D.   Megaloblastic anemia

Ans. C

3.      Ulcerative colitis what is seen?

A.    Cryptitis

B.    Crypt loss

C.    Crypt branching

Ans. A

4.      The gene responsible for folic acid transport is situated on which chromosome?

A.    10

B.    5

C.    X

D.   21

Ans. A

5.      Hematoxylin bodies seen in:

A.    SLE

B.    PAN

C.    Rheumatoid arthritis

D.   Wegeners granulomatosus

Ans. A

6.      CD-99 is for?

A.    Ewing’s sarcoma

B.    SLL

C.    Dermatofibroma protruberans

D.   Malignant histiocytic fibroma

Ans. A

7.      Loss of hetrozygosity associated with:

A.    Acute myeloid leukemia

B.    ALL

C.    Retinoblastoma

D.   Promyelocitic leukemia

Ans. C

8.      AML with gum infiltration, hepatoslenomegaly:

A.    ALL

B.    M3

C.    M2

D.   M4

Ans. D

9.      The Electron Microscopy is virtually diagnostic in renal biopsy study of:

A.    Goodpasture’s syndrome

B.    Churg-Strauss syndrome

C.    Alport syndrome

D.   Wegner’s granulomatosis

Ans. C

10.    Bone resorption markers are except:

A.    Tartarate resistant alk. phosphatase (TRAP)

B.    Osteocalcin

C.    Pyridine cross peptides

D.   Free glutamic acid cross linkages

Ans. B

11.    Marker for granulocytic sarcoma:

A.    CD33

B.    CD38

C.    CD117

D.   CD137

Ans. C

12.    Which type of FSGS has worst prognosis?

A.    Tip variant

B.    Collapsing

C.    NOS

D.   Perihilar

Ans. B

13.    Shock lung is characterized by?

A.    Alveolar proteinosis

B.    Bronchiolitis obliterans

C.    Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage

D.   Diffuse alveolar damage

Ans. D

14.    Ultrastructural finding in case of paraganglioma?

A.    Deposition of glycogen

B.    Not recalled

C.    Not recalled

D.   Dense core granules

Ans. D

15.    Which is not tumor suppressor gene?

A.    WT-1

B.    Rb

C.    p53

D.   RAS

Ans. D

16.    Steroid resistant nephritic syndrome?

A.    Nephrin

B.    Alpha-actinin 4

C.    Podocin

D.   Transient Receptor Potential 6

Ans. C

17.    A patient with HB-6 gm, TLC 1200, PLATELET-60,000, MCV 12FL, what is the DIAGNOSIS?

A.    Aplastic anemi

B.    Megaloblastic anemia

C.    PNH

D.   Myelofibrosis

Ans. D

PHARMACOLOGY

1.      Cross-resistance of isoniazid is seen with:

A.    Rifampicin

B.    Ethionamide

C.    Cycloserine

D.   Ethambutol

Ans. B

2.      Which drug is not acetylated?

A.    NH

B.    Dapsone

C.    Hydralazine

D.   Metoclopropamide

Ans. D

3.      Which is a prodrug?

A.    Enalapril

B.    Clonidine

Ans. A

4.      Free water clearance decreased by?

A.    Vincristine

B.    Vinblastine

C.    Chlorpropamide

D.   Freusamide

Ans. D

5.      Which of the following antibiotics acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A.    Cefepime

B.    Aminogycosides

C.    Crythromycin

D.   Doxycycline

Ans. A

6.      Which drug would treat both dermatophysis and candidal infection?

A.    Ketoconazole

B.    Griesofulfin

C.    Nystatin

D.   Tolnafet

Ans. A

7.      Siadh is caused by all except:

A.    Vincristine

B.    Vinblastine

C.    Actinomycin D

D.   Cylophophamide

Ans. C

8.      Which teratogen causes deafness?

A.    Valproate

B.    Chloroquine

C.    Alcohol

D.   Warfarin

Ans. D

9.      Imatinib is used in treatment of?

A.    Chronic myelomonocytic leaukemia

B.    MDS

C.    ALL

D.   GIST

Ans. D, A

10.    Sustained neutropenia is seen with?

A.    Vinblastin

B.    Cisplatin

C.    Carmustin

Ans. C

11.    NOT used in scabies?

A.    BHC

B.    Permethrin

C.    Ciclopirox oleamine

D.   Crotamiton

Ans. C

12.    Not used in erectile dysfunction?

A.    Apomorphine

B.    Taldanafil

C.    Phenylephrine

Ans. C

13.    Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamanic?

A.    Loratidine

B.    Acrivastatine

D.   Cyclizine

Ans. D

14.    True about aminoglycoside is all except:

A.    Are bacteriostatic

B.    Distributed only extracellularly

C.    Excreted unchanged in urine

Ans. A

15.    Loading dose depends on:

A.    Volume of distribution

B.    Clearance

C.    Rate of administration

D.   Half life

Ans. A

16.    Drug not used in H. pylori:

A.    Metronidazole

B.    Omeprazole

C.    Mosapride

D.   Amoxicillin

Ans. C

17.    Long acting beta agonist?

A.    Terbutaline

B.    Salmeterol

C.    Ciclesonide

D.   Ipratropium

Ans. B

18.    Benzodiazepine antagonist?

A.    Flumazenil

B.    Beta carboline

C.    Flunarazine

D.   Diazepam

Ans. A

19.    Which is Cyt. p450 inhibitor?

A.    Ketoconazole

B.    Rifampicin

C.    Phenytoin

D.   INH

Ans. A

20.    Which statement is true about carbamazepine?

A.    Used in trigeminal neuralgia

B.    Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor

Ans. A

21.    Which drug can be used against keratomycosis of eye?

A.    Clofazamine

B.    Oxytetracycline

C.    Amoxicillin

D.   Silver sulfadia

Ans. D

22.    Drug used in uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal?

A.    Diazepam

B.    Clonidine

C.    Propanolol

D.   Methadone

Ans. A

23.    Buprenorphine is?

A.    Pure agonist

B.    Pure antagonist

C.    Partial agonist

D.   None

Ans. C

MICROBIOLOGY

1.      Nocardia is stained by all except:

A.    Acid fast stain

B.    Kiram’s stain

C.    Alcian blue

D.   Mucin stain

Ans. B

2.      Selective media for vibrio:

A.    TCBS

B.    Stuart

C.    Skirrows

D.   MYPA

Ans. A

3.      Mark true in following:

A.    Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and feces

B.    Kyansur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal

C.    Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks

Ans. A

4.      True about mycoplasma all except:

A.    They are 1 forms

B.    Sterol enhances growth

C.    Can grow in cell free media

D.   When grown in liquid medium do not produces turbidity

Ans. D

5.      About HUS all is true except:

A.    Not commonly caused by verocytogenic E coli in Asia

B.    Causes mild to severe Coombs positive hemolytic anemia

C.    Recurrences rare

D.   Transient thrombocytopenia

Ans. A, B

6.      True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis:

A.    Causes disseminated infection

B.    Occurs in persons with normal immunity

C.    Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity

D.   Person to person transmissions is seen

Ans. C

7.      Malta fever is caused by:

A.    Option not recalls

B.    Borrelia burgdorferi

C.    Brucella melitensis

D.   Pseudomonas

Ans. C

8.      Acute Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis true is?

A.    Meningitis caused acanthamoeba species is acute in nature

B.    Diagnosis by trophozite in CSF

C.    Caused by feco oral transmission

D.   More common in tropical climate

Ans. B

9.      Parvovirus B19 does not cause:

A.    Roseola infantum

B.    Aplastic anemia in sickle cell

C.    Fetal hydrops

D.   Collapsing FSGS

Ans. A

10.    Reactive arthritis is caused by:

A.    Staphylococcus

B.    H.influenzae

C.    N. gonorrhoe

Ans. C

11.    What is true about Histoplasmosis?

A.    In early stages it is indistinguishable from TB

B.    Blood culture is not diagnostic

C.    Hyphal forms are infectious form

D.   Person to person spread occurs by droplet infection

Ans. A

12.    True about polio:

A.    Paralytic polio is most common

B.    Only one type exists

C.    Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis

D.   Polio drop given only in < 3 year

Ans. C

13.    Which is not a part of HACEK?

A.    Hemophilus

B.    Acinetobacter

C.    Cardiobacterium

D.   Kingella

Ans. B

FORENSIC MEDICINE

1.      Corpus delicti is meaning:

A.    Essence of crime

B.    Inquest into death

C.    Postmortem examination

Ans. A

2.      Irresistible sexual desire in a male is otherwise known as:

A.    Nymphomania

B.    Tribadism

C.    Satyriasis

D.   Sadism

Ans. C

3.      In asphyxia structure to be open last is:

A.    Head

B.    Neck

C.    Abdomen

D.   Thorax

Ans. B

4.      Fingerprint bureau was 1st established in:

A.    India

B.    UK

C.    USA

D.   Poland

Ans. A

Preventive and Social Medicine

1.      NOT included in a problem village?

A.    No source of safe water available within a distance of 1.6 km

B.    Water available at a depth > 15mt

C.    Water source has excess Fe, fluoride, toxic elements, salinity

D.   Guinea worm in water

Ans. D

2.      Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception:

A.    MDPA

B.    Micronized progest.

C.    Norethesterone

D.   Levonorgestrol

Ans. D

3.      Occupational cancer involve following organs except:

A.    Lung

B.    Breast

C.    Bladder

D.   Liver

Ans. B

4.      Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine:

A.    Aluminium

B.    Zinc

C.    Copper

D.   Magnesium

Ans. A

5.      Which is the best distribution to study the dily amission of head injury parients in a trauma care centre?

A.    Normal distribution

B.    Binomial distribution

C.    Uniform distribution

D.   Poison distribution

Ans. D

6.      All are criteria for normal Indian Reference male, except:

A.    60 kg

B.    22000 kcal/day

C.    8 hours in bed

D.   20-39 age

Ans. B

7.      Vision 2020 includes all the following, except:

A.    Onchocerciasis

B.    Trachoma

C.    Epidemic conjuctivitis

D.   Cataract

Ans. C

8.      Endemic ascites is associated with the following:

A.    BOAA

B.    Aflatoxin

C.    Sanguinarine

D.   Pyrrolidazone

Ans. D

9.      Life cycle of filariasis in humans:

A.    Cyclodevelopmental

B.    Cyclopropagative.

C.    Propagative

D.   Transovarial

Ans. A

10.    Specifictiy measures:

A.    True nagative

B.    True positive

C.    False negative

D.   False positive

Ans. A

11.    In India, the cause for maximum maternal mortality is:

A.    Hemorrhage

B.    Anemia

C.    Sepsis

Ans. A

12.    If mean is less than the median then the data is said to be:

A.    Equitable distribution

B.    Positively skewed

C.    Normal distribution

D.   Negatively skewed

Ans. D

13.    Which is, e.g. of disbility limitation?

A.    Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization

B.    Arrangement for schooling of child suffering from PRPP

C.    Resting affected limbs in neutral position

D.   Providing callipers for walking

Ans. C

14.    A study conducted regarding asthma drug and deaths due to drug/asthma patients taking the drug in the period 15 years from (1975 - 1989) the study is an example for...?

A.    Ecological study

B.    Cohort study

C.    Experimental

D.   Case study

Ans. A

15.    Coeffcient of variation of BP and creatinine measurements are 20 and 15 respectively, true statement is:

A.    SD of BP measurements is more

B.    SD of creatinine measurements is more

C.    Variation in BP measurements is more than creatinine

D.   Variation in BP measurements is less than creatinine

Ans. C

16.    Mean bone density amongst 2 group of 50 people each is compared, which would be the best test?

A.    Chi square

B.    Student t test

C.    Mc nemar chi square test

D.   Fischer test

Ans. B

17.    The P valve of a test comparing 2 drugs is 0.01, what is the inference?

A.    Power is 1

B.    Probability that drug A is better than drug B when in truth it is not is 1%

C.    Probability that drug B is better than drug A when is truth it is not is 1%

Ans. B

ENT

1.      Which is the correct statement regarding facial nerve palsy?

A.    More common with transverse fracture of temporal bone

B.    More common with Longitudinal fracture of temporal bone

C.    Flat part fracture of temporal bone

D.   Always associated with CSF leak

Ans. A

2.      The area that we connot visualise via bronchoscopy?

A.    Vocal cord

B.    Subcranial lymph nodes (I think they meant sub carinal, but they did typing mistake)

C.    Tracheal bifurcation

D.   1st segmentalsubdivision of bronchi

Ans. B

3.      Laryngocele arises from

A.    True cords

B.    Anterior commissure

C.    Saccule

Ans. C

4.      An elderly diabetic, 70 year-old, with excruciating pain in ear, appearance of granulation in meatus, skull base infection with facial paralysis shud be treated with

A.    Ciprodloxacin

B.    Penicillin

C.    2nd generation cephalosporin

Ans. A

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1.      Retinitis pigmentose is not associated with:

A.    Usher syndrome

B.    Kornzewig syndrome (Abetalipoprotinemia)

C.    Kearns-Sayre syndrome

D.   Marfan syndrome

Ans. D

2.      Choroidal neovascularizatin is seen in all except:

A.    Hypermetropia

B.    Myopia

C.    Angiod streaks

D.   Trauma

Ans. A

3.      Pterygium is:

A.    An inflammatory response

B.    A connective tissue degeneration

C.    An infection

D.   Associated with Vit. A deficiency

Ans. B

4.      Which of the following does not handle free redical in lens? (REPEAT AI2007)

A.    Vit.A

B.    Vit.C

C.    Vit.E

D.   Catalase

Ans. A

5.      A mass present in muscle cone, encapsulated, presentation in 3rd-4th decade with gradually increasing proptosis:

A.    Capillary hemangioma

B.    Cavernous hemangiona

C.    Dermoid

Ans. B

6.      A 12-year-old boy comes into room with left sided head tilt, on correcting that he has right sided hypertropia, which increases on left gaze and tilting the head towards right-which muscle is AFFECTED?

A.    Right superior oblique

B.    Left superior oblique

C.    Right superior rectus

D.   Left superior rectus

Ans. A

7.      Diabetic macular edema is due to all except:

A.    Disruption of retinal pigment epithelium

B.    Oxidative stress

C.    Increase VEGF

D.   Increase expression of protein kinase C

Ans. A

8.      True about telecanthus is:

A.    Increase in intercanthal distance with normal inter papillary distance

B.    Widely separated medial wall of orbits

Ans. A

9.      True about chalazion:

A.    Chronic non-specific inflammation

B.    Lipogranulomatous inflammation

Ans. B

10.    Iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is associated with:

A.    Progressive atrophy of iris stroma

B.    B/L symmetrical stromal edema of iris and cornea

C.    Deposition of collagen in descemet’s membrane

D.   Deposition of glycosaminoglycan in descemet’s membrane

Ans. A

11.    Equal and opposite innervation is explained by which law?

A.    Hering law

B.    Sherrington law

C.    Sherring

D.   Donder

Ans. B

MEDICINE

1.      Post transplant lymphoma is?

A.    T cell

B.    B cell

C.    Null cell

D.   NK cell

Ans. B

2.      A man with painful opthalmoplegia, cavernous sinus dilatation:

A.    Gradinego syndrome

B.    Tolosa Hunt syndrome

Ans. B

3.      Which of the following is a absolute contraindication for MRI?

A.    Prosthetic heart valve

B.    Pacemaker

C.    Insulin pump

Ans. B

4.      Lhermitte duclos disease true is:

A.    Thickened cerebeller folli.

B.    Atrophic cerebeller folli.

C.    Vermian hypoplasia.

D.   Septum pellucidumagenesis

Ans. A

5.      A man with chest pain, ST segment depression in lead v1-v4, after one hour will not be given:

A.    Beta blocker

B.    Thrombolytic

C.    Morphine

D.   Aspirin

Ans. B

6.      Most cmmon primary lymphoma of spleen?

A.    Hodgkin’s lymphoma

B.    Small lymphocytic lymphoma

C.    Anaplastic lymphoma

D.   Burkitt’s lymphoma

Ans. B

7.      Rituximab is used in all except:

A.    NHL

B.    PNH

C.    RA

D.   SLE

Ans. B

8.      Kasabaach Merrit Syndroma is associated with:

A.    Giant hemangioma

B.    Large aneurysm of aorta

C.    Giant Thrombocytes

Ans. A

9.      All are causes of increased anion gap except?

A.    DKA

B.    Starvation

C.    Ethylene glycol poisoning

D.   Glue sniffing

Ans. D

10.    Which valve is least affected in Rheumatic fever?

A.    Pulmonary valve

B.    Tricuspid valve

C.    Mitral valve

D.   Aortic valve

Ans. A

11.    Drug used to perform stress ECHO?

A.    Thallium

B.    Dobutamine

C.    Adrenaline

D.   Adenosine

Ans. B

12.    Torsades de pointes causes?

A.    Eide QRS

B.    Short QRS

C.    Wide QT

D.   Short QT

Ans. C

13.    Rue about autonomic neuropathy are all except:

A.    Resting tachycardia

B.    Silent MI

C.    Orthostatic hypotension

D.   Bradyardia

Ans. B

14.    In millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:

A.    5th cranial nerve

B.    6th crania nerve

C.    7th crania nerve

D.   Contralateral hemiplegia

Ans. A

15.    For differentiaing between Insulinoma and Sulfonylurea related hypoglycemia, the test which is useful is?

A.    Antibody to Insulin

B.    Plasma C-peptide level

C.    Plasma Insulin level

D.   Insulin: Glucose ratio

Ans. D

16.    All are used for treating Pulmonary hypertension except:

A.    Endothelin receptor antagonists

B.    Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

C.    Calcium Channel Blockers

D.   Beta blockers

Ans. D

17.    Goodpasture’s disease is characterized by all except:

A.    Glomerulonephritis

B.    Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

C.    Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

D.   Presence of antibodies to BM

Ans. B

18.    Alzheimer’s disease, which is involved?

A.    Frontal cortex

B.    Cortical atrophy of temporoparietal cortex

C.    Frontal and parietal cortex

Ans. B

19.    Rasmussen’s aneurysm involves?

A.    Bronchial aneurysm

B.    Pulmonary aneurysm

Ans. B

20.    Damage to categorical hemisphere usually leads to:

A.    Normal speech

B.    Increased speech

C.    Decreased speech

D.   Senseless, fluent speech

Ans. D

21.    1st drug to be used in absence seizures:

A.    Phentoin

B.    BZD

C.    Valproate

Ans. C

SURGERY

1.      Lymph node metastasis is uncommon in which tumor of head and neck?

A.    Tongue

B.    Floor of mouth

C.    Hard plate

D.   Lower gingiva

Ans. C

2.      True about gatric lymphoma is all except?

A.    Chemo and surgery treatment of choice

B.    Most common in stomach

C.    B-cell type

D.   60% 5 year survival

Ans. B

3.      The causative organism of chronic burrowing skin ulcer:

A.    Mictoaerophilic strptococci

B.    Peptostreptococi

C.    Staphylococcus

D.   Pseudomonas

Ans. A

4.      Abbey estender flap is based on:

A.    Lingual artery

B.    Labial artery

C.    Facial artery

D.   Internal maxillary artery

Ans. B

5.      Metabolic abnormality seen in villous adenoma?

A.    Chlorine resistant metabolic alkalosis

B.    Chlorine sensitive metabolic alkalosis

C.    Normal anion gap acidosis

D.   Increased anion gap acidosis

Ans. B

6.      Metabolic abnormality seen in gastric outlet obstruction?

A.    Hyperchloremic hypokalemic alkalosis

B.    Hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis

C.    Hypochloremic hyperkalemic alkalosis

Ans. B

7.      6-year-old female presents with urinary retention and fecal retention and with a retro rectal mass diagnosis is:

A.    Malignant sacral teratoma

B.    Rectal duplication cyst

C.    Posterior neuroblastoma

D.   Anterior meningocele

Ans. A, B, C, D

8.      Auziliary orthoripic liver transplant is indicated for:

A.    Metabolic liver disease

B.    Acute fulminant liver failure for any cause

C.    As a standby procedure until finding a suitable donor

D.   Drug-induced hepatic failure

Ans. B

9.      Internal oblique, external oblique and transverses is retracted laterally in:

A.    Classiscal renal approach

B.    Laproscopic renal approch

C.    Spigelian hernia

Ans. C

10.    True about treatment of early breast carcinoma?

A.    Radiotherapy is given after conservative surgery in parient with > 4 positive lymph node

B.    Aromatase inhibitors are replacing tamoxifen in premenopausal patient

C.    Combined chemotherapy has better results in selected partient

Ans. C

11.    Most common testicular tumor in prepubertal adults:

A.    Endodermal sinus tumor

B.    Teratocarcinoma

C.    Embryonalcarinoma

D.   Seminoma

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS

1.      Absent thumb, radial deviation of wrist, bowing of forearm, which inv. need not to be done?

A.    Echocardiography

B.    Bone marrow examination

C.    Platelet count

D.   Karyotyping

Ans. D

2.      Macrocephaly is seen in which of the following syndromes?

A.    Metachromatic leucodystrophy

B.    Adrenoleukodystrophy

C.    Canavan’s disease

Ans. C

3.      Most common inherited childhood tumor:

A.    Leukemia

B.    Neuroblastoma

C.    Retinoblastoma

Ans. C

4.      Turner syndrome is maximally associated with:

A.    Horseshoe kidney

B.    coarctation of aorta

C.    VSD

Ans. B

5.      Only females are affected in?

A.    Scheie’s syndrome

B.    Hunters syndrome

C.    Hurlers syndrome

D.   Gauchers disease

Ans. None

6.      Females are rarely affected in:

A.    Scheis’s syndrome

B.    Hunters syndrome

C.    Hurlers syndrome

D.   Gauachers disease

Ans. B

7.      Most common cause of seizure in newborn is:

A.    Hypoxia induced ischemic encephalopathy

B.    Hypocalcemia

C.    Metabolic abnormality

D.   Sepsis

Ans. A

8.      A infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:

A.    Trisomy 21

B.    Trisomy 18

C.    Trisomy 13

D.   Turner

Ans. C

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY

1.      Pre-conceptional intake of which of the following reseults in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect?

A.    Vit. A

B.    Folate

C.    Vit. E

D.   Vit. C

Ans. B

2.      Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts?

A.    HPV 16

B.    HPV 18

C.    HPV 31

D.   HPV 6

Ans. D

3.      The cause of fetal death in ectopic pregnancy is postulated as:

A.    Vascular accident

B.    Nutritonal adequacy

C.    Endocrine insuffisciency

D.   Immune reponse of mother

Ans. A

4.      When in labor, a diagnosis of occipito posterior presentation is made. The most appropriate management in this case would be:

A.    Emergency CS

B.    Wait and watch for progress of labour

C.    Early rupture of membranes

D.   Start oxytocin drip

Ans. B

5.      Most valubale diagnostic test in a case of suspected ectopic pregnancy:

A.    Serial ß-hCG levels

B.    Transvaginal USG

C.    Progesterone measurement

D.   Culdocentesis

Ans. B

6.      Call-Exner bodies are seen in:

A.    Granulosa cell tumor

B.    Yolk Sac tumor

Ans. A

7.      A lady with CA ovary with follow up with raised CA 125 level, NEXT STEP:

A.    CT

B.    PET

C.    MRI

D.   Clinical exam and serial follow up of CA 125

Ans. A

8.      Blood in urine in a patient in labour.

A.    Impending scar rupture

B.    Urethral injury

Ans. B

9.      Androgen insensitivity syndrome true is:

A.    Phemotype may be completely female

B.    Predominantly ovarian component in gonads

C.    Always in female

D.   Testes formed abnormally and receptors are normal

Ans. A

10.    10 year old girt with primary amenorrhoea, absent breasts, malformed uterus. The most likely diagnosis:

A.    MRKH syndrone

B.    Turner’s

C.    Swyer sydrome

D.   Mixedgonadal dysgenesis

Ans. B

11.    Regarding Alpha Fetoprotein true statement is:

A.    Major source of fetal life is yolk sac

B.    Commonly elevated in Wilm’s tumor

C.    Max levels at 20th week

D.   Half-life 5-7 days

Ans. A

12.    Diabetes in pregnancy all except:

A.    Glucose challenge test is done between 24-28 week

B.    50 gm of sugar given after post-meal as screening test

C.    Insulin resistance improves with pregnancy

D.   Diabetes control before conception is imp to prevent malformatuion

Ans. C

13.    Maker for granulosa cell tumor:

A.    CA 19-9

B.    CA 50

C.    Inhibin

Ans. C

14.    A 35 year old female, with post coital bleeding, next step:

A.    Clinical examination and pap smear

B.    Visual inspection with acetowhite

C.    Visual inspection with lugol’s iodine

Ans. A

15.    Clue cells are seen in:

A.    Bacterial vaginosis

B.    Candidiasis

C.    Trichomoniasis

D.   Gonorrhoea

Ans. A

ORTHOPAEDIC

1.      Not seen in OSTEOPETROSIS:

A.    Pancytopenia

B.    Delayed healing of factures

C.    Compression of cranial nerve

D.   Osteomyelitis of mandible

Ans. B

2.      Best prognosis after nerve repair:

A.    Radial

B.    Median

C.    Sciatic

D.   Common nerve

Ans. A

3.      Marerial used in vertebroplasty?

A.    Polymethyl methacrylate

B.    Isomethyl methacrylate

C.    Isoethyl methacrylayte

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

1.      Gold standard test for diagnosis of acoustic meuroma:

A.    CT with contrast

B.    MRI with contrast

C.    CT without contrast

D.   Angiography

Ans. B

2.      Loss of cardiac silhoutee is seen in pathology o:

A.    Rt. middle lobe

B.    Rt. lower lobe

C.    Rt. atria

D.   Rt. ventricle

Ans. A

3.      Snowman’s appearance is seen in which cardiac pathology?

A.    Fallot’s tetralogy

B.    Corrected TGA

C.    TAPVC

Ans. C

4.      Egg on side appearance is seen in:

A.    Ebstein anomaly

B.    Uncorrected TGA

C.    Tricuspid atresia

D.   Tetralogy of fallot

Ans. B

5.      The most chemoresistant tumor amongst the following:

A.    Synovial sarcoma

B.    Malignant fibrous histicoytoma

C.    Osteosarcoma

D.   Clear cell sarcoma

Ans. B

6.      Which of this is not a sign of increased ICT?

A.    Copper beaten appearance

B.    Erosion of dorsum sella

C.    Ballooning of sella

D.   Sutural diastasis

Ans. C

7.      Hair on end appearance is seen in:

A.    Thalassemia

B.    Scurvy

C.    Rickets

Ans. A

8.      PACS in medical imaging stands for:

A.    Portal archiving common system

B.    Planning archiving communication scheme

C.    Picture archiving communication system

D.   Photo archiving computerised system

Ans. C

PSYCHIATRY

1.      Atypical antipsychotic all except?

A.    Olanzepine

B.    Clozapine

C.    Risperidone

D.   Thioridazone

Ans. D

2.      A 25 year old female patient history of 6 months, loss of cone., convulsions, abnormal movements, forgetfulness, 4 attack during day, 2 attack at night, CT normal:

A.    Epilepsy

B.    Dissociative disorder

C.    Somatoform disorder

D.   Somatization disorder

Ans. C

3.      A girl spend her time alone seeing her own hand, do not interact with others, what is the siagnosis?

A.    ADHD

B.    Autism

C.    Depression

Ans. B

4.      Increased suicidal tendency is associated with:

A.    Noradrenaline

B.    Serotonin

C.    Dopamine

D.   GABA

Ans. B

DERMATOLOGY

1.      Auspitz sign is seen in:

A.    Pustular psoriasis

B.    Plaque type psoriasis

C.    Lichen planus

D.   Pityriasis rubra pilaris

Ans. B

2.      Keratoderma blenorrhagicum is seen in:

A.    Lichen planus

B.    Reiter’s syndrome

C.    Pityriasis rubra pilaris

Ans. B

3.      Most common cause of plant induced dematitis in India:

A.    Poison ivy

B.    Partenium

C.    Ragweed

Ans. B