AIIMS MAY 2009


Anatomy
1.     Not a sphincter of vagina:
A.  Pubovaginalis
B.  Internal urethral sphincter
C.  External urethral sphincter
D.  Bulbo spongiosum
Ans. (C)
2.     Urothelium lines of the following except:
A.  Ureter
B.  Membranous Urethra
C.  Bladder
D.  Major Calyces
Ans. (B)
3.     Endothelial cells of cornea derived from:
A.  Endoderm
B.  Mesoderm
C.  Neural Crest
D.  Ectoderm
Ans. (C)
4.     Anterior posterior stability of eye ball is maintained by
A.  SR
B.  SO
C.  Retro orbital fat
D.  Tennon capsule
Ans. (C)
5.     Sphincter of Odi has how many sphincters?
A.  2
B.  3
C.  5
D.  7
Ans. (B)
6.     Structure passing along with aorta in/aortic hiatus?
A.  Thoracic duct and azygos vein
B.  Thoracic duct and hemiazygos vein
C.  Lt. Vagus nerve azygos vein
D.  Lt. Vagus nerve and hemiazygos vein
Ans. (A)
7.     Segment of liver which drains left hepatic duct?
A.  1
B.  3
C.  5
D.  6
Ans. (B)
8.     False about hepatic duct:
A.  Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
B.  Left hepatic duct crosses IV segment
C.  Right hepatic duct crosses V and VIII segments
D.  Caudate lobe drains only left hepatic duct
Ans. (D)
9.     Pain in arm, loss of contour of deltoid & failure of abduction after tetanus vaccine 5 days after vaccination due to
A.  Brachial neuritis
B.  Radial n entrapment
C.  Thoracic outlet syndrome
D.  Hysterical Syndrome
Ans. (A)
10.   Capacitation of sperms takes place in:
A.  Uterus
B.  Epidydymis
C.  Seminal vesicles
D.  Seminiferous tubules
Ans. (A)
11.   Enophthalmos is caused by:
A.  Superior levator paralysis
B.  Tennons capsule instability
C.  Orbiculis oculi paralysis
D.  Superior tarsal muscle paralysis
Ans. (A)
12.   Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?
A.  Appendix
B.  Uterus
C.  Rectum
D.  Urinary bladder
Ans. (A)
13.   Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:
A.  Splenic
B.  Gastroduodenal
C.  Superior mesenteric
D.  Coeliac
Ans. (B)
14.   All are of adult size at birth except:
A.  Mastoid antrum
B.  Ossicles
C.  Orbital cavity
D.  Maxillary antrum
Ans. (D)
15.   Deltoid ligament is not attached to:
A.  Medial cuneiform
B.  Medial malleolus
C.  Sustentaculum tali
D.  Spring ligament
Ans. (A)
16.   Structures deep to the posterior belly of digastric are all except:
A.  Hypoglossal nerve
B.  Hyoglossus
C.  Retromandibular vein
D.  Occipital artery
Ans. (C)
PSM
17.   Which is not a mode of health education?
A.  Primary health care approach
B.  Regulatory approach
C.  Service approach
D.  Mass media
Ans. (D)
18.   Most common mode of lead poisoning:
A.  Orally
B.  Contact
C.  Inhalation
D.  Air Pollution
Ans. (C)
19.   Target population for targeted intervention for HIV includes all except:
A.  Migrant labourers
B.  Sex workers
C.  Street children
D.  Industrial workers
Ans. (D)
20.   STEPS approach by WHO is for assessing incidents of risk factor for:
A.  Communicable diseases
B.  Non communicable diseases
C.  Immune deficient diseases
D.  Autoimmune diseases
Ans. (B)
21.   Nested case control study is a type of:
A.  Prospective study
B.  Retrospective study
C.  Ecological study
D.  Case control study
Ans. (A)
22.   To know the prevalence of cataract in a population at a given point of time study design used is:
A.  Cross Sectional
B.  Cohort
C.  Ecological
D.  Case control
Ans. (A)
23.   HIV screening in pregnancy as recommended by CDC?
A.  Universal screening
B.  Symptomatic
C.  Opt. In screening
D.  Opt. Out screening
Ans. (D)
24.   Blood banks get permission to operate from:
A.  NACO
B.  NABL
C.  State Ministry/Ministry of Health
D.  Drug Controller General of India
Ans. (D)
25.   Not a part of targets for 10th Five Year Plans?
A.  Increase Cataract Surgery to 450/lakh population
B.  IOL implantation in more than 80% of cataract operations
C.  Development of 50 paediatric ophthalmology units.
D.  100% coverage of Vit. Aprophylactic doses from 9 months to 3 years of age children
Ans. (D)
26.   Thiamine requirement by body depends on consumption of:
A.  Carbohydrates
B.  Fats
C.  Amino acids
D.  Minerals
Ans. (A)
27.   Profit put before health in which view?
A.  Marxist
B.  Feminist
C.  Foucaldian theory
D.  Personian
Ans. (A)
28.   Safe disposal of Mercury?
A.  Bury under earth
B.  Collect carefully and reuse
C.  Combustion
D.  Treat with chemical
Ans. (B)
29.   Acquired, constant & permanent but liable to change later on
A.  Knowledge
B.  Cultural believe
C.  Practice
D.  Attitude
Ans. (A)
30.   A temporary, provisional views held by the people on a point of view is
A.  Opinion
B.  Cultural believe
C.  Practice
D.  Attitude
Ans. (A)
31.   Which doesn’t measure association?
A.  P valve
B.  Odds ratio
C.  Relative risk
D.  Cronbach’ alpha
Ans. (D)
Pediatric
32.   A 10-month-old baby previously normal, suddenly becomes distressed in his crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal, except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose showed a level of 30mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A.  21 hydroxylasedeficiency
B.  Hyperinsulinism
C.  Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
D.  Cushing’s syndrome
Ans. (C)
33.   A 3-month-old female child with normal genitalia and normal blood pressure presents to the emergency department with severe dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement blood levels of which of the following will be helpful?
A.  17-hydroxy progesterone
B.  Renin
C.  Cortisol
D.  Aldosterone
Ans. (A)
34.   A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly, abdominal distension, jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
A.  Adrenal hemorrhage
B.  Wolman’s disease
C.  Pheochromocytoma
D.  Addison’s disease
Ans. (B)
35.   All are true about scurvy except:
A.  Skeletal changes in adult occur with clinical deficiency of Vit. C
B.  Defective proximal calcification is the central cause for bone change
C.  Cartilaginous overgrowth results in widening of epiphyseal plate
D.  Bowing of legs
Ans. (B)
36.   Pilocytic astrocytoma false is:
A.  Spreads to posterior fossa
B.  Seen at eighty years of age
C.  Best prognosis among all intracranial neoplasms
D.  Surgery and radiation therapy used for treatment
Ans. (B)
Obstetrics & gynaecology
37.   Caesarean section can be done in which heart disease during pregnancy:
A.  Eissenmenger syndrome
B.  AS
C.  Cardiomyopathy
D.  Aortic aneurysm
Ans. (D)
38.   Mayer Rokintansky Kuster Kauser:
A.  Absent ovary uterus present
B.  Absent ovary, uterus and vagina
C.  Absent uterus and vagina
D.  Uterus absent, tubes and ovary present
Ans. (D)
39.   A lady presented with creamy white vaginal discharge with fishy odour, drug of choice is:
A.  Doxycycline
B.  Ofloxacin
C.  Metronidazole
D.  Chondamycin
Ans. (C)
40.   All are true about aneuploidy except:
A.  30% of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero
B.  80% of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero
C.  Occurrence of aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mother’s age
D.  Not recalled
Ans. (C)
41.   Pregnancy is Contradiction in all except:
A.  Eissenmenger syndrome
B.  WPW syndrome
C.  PPHT
D.  Marfan involving aortic root
Ans. (A)
42.   Not true in a diabetic pregnant patience?
A.  Risk of congenital malformation is 6-10%.
B.  1-2% incidence of single umbilical artery
C.  Free radical is most important cause of injury
D.  Insulin R 500 IU can be given
Ans. (D)
43.   Clomiphene citrate:
A.  It is antiestrogenic
B.  Trials shown used in increase sperm count in oligospermia
C.  Twin pregnancy incidence increased by 40%
D.  3 fold increase in pregnancy compared to placebo.
Ans. (A)
44.   Tran abdominal Chronic villas sampling is bests done on:
A.  7-9 wk
B.  9-11 wk
C.  11-13 wk
D.  20-24 wk
Ans. (C)
45.   Vase previa true is condition seen is
A.  ECS at 38 wks
B.  U/S Low lying placeta in the second trimester is a risk facto
C.  Incidence is 1 in 1500 cases
D.  Mortality association is 20%
Ans. (A)
Anaesthesia
46.   Flat capnogram is seen in all except:
A.  Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube
B.  Disconnection of endotracheal tube
C.  Mechanical ventilation failure
D.  Bronchospasm
Ans. (D)
47.   Most cardiostable:
A.  Ketamine
B.  Thiopentone
C.  Etomidate
D.  Propofol
Ans. (C)
48.   Coeliac pluexes block complication is:
A.  Retroperitoneal haemorrhage
B.  Pneumothorax
C.  Intra-arterial injury
D.  Hypotension
Ans. (D)
49.   Which is seen after tracheostomy?
A.  Increased V/P ratio
B.  Inversion of V/P ratio
C.  Decrease in dead space
D.  Increased resistance to air flow
Ans. (C)
50.   Methemoglobinemia is caused which local anaesthetic?
A.  Prilocaine
B.  Procaine
C.  Lidocaine
D.  Ropivacine
Ans. (A)
51.   Which is safe in myasthenia gravis?
A.  Aminoglycosides
B.  Azathioprine
C.  Tetracycline
D.  Phenytoin
Ans. (D)
52.   True about CPAP ail except:
A.  Used prophylactically in baby born with <1 kg wt or <28 weeks gestation
B.  Initiate as early in preterm with resp. diseases
C.  Initiate with <50-60% Fi O2
D.  Improed lung compliance and oxygenation
Ans. (A)
Microbiology
53.   Listeria culture media:
A.  Baker
B.  Korthoff
C.  Tinsdale
D.  Blood agar
Ans. (D)
54.   All are dimorphic except:
A.  Blastomyces
B.  Histoplasma
C.  Penicillium mameffei
D.  Phialophora
Ans. (D)
55.   Microaerophilic bacteria:
A.  Campylobacter
B.  Vibrio cholera
C.  Pseudomonas
D.  Salmonella
Ans. (A)
56.   Treponema palidum isolated from CSF in which stage?
A.  Primary syphilis
B.  Secondary syphilis
C.  Tertiary syphilis
D.  Tabes dorsalis
Ans. (A/B)
57.   All cause malasorption syndromes except:
A.  Giardiasis
B.  Ascaris
C.  Strongyloides
D.  Capillaria phillipinesis
Ans. (B)
58.   Congenital toxoplasmosis not true:
A.  IgA is more sensitive than IgM
B.  An increase in IgM beyond 1st week of life is diagnostic
C.  IgG is diagnostic
D.  Dye test is used
Ans. (C)
59.   Acid fast organism with oocyst of size 5µm on stool examination, causing diarrhea in HIV positive patient:
A.  Cryptosporidium
B.  Isospora belli
C.  Microsoporidia
D.  Blastocystis hominii
Ans. (A)
60.   A traveler present with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and on USG investigations a egg was found in his biliary tract. Likely organism:
A.  Clonorchis sinensis
B.  Pasciola buski
C.  Gnathostomata
D.  Ascaris
Ans. (A)
61.   Which species of Clostridum does not cause gas gangrene?
A.  Cl. perfringes
B.  Cl. Histolyticum
C.  C. Novyii
D.  C. Sporogenes
Ans. (D)
62.   Autoinfection is seen with:
A.  Cryptosporidium
B.  Strogyloidies
C.  Giardia
D.  Ganthostoma
Ans. (B)
63.   Intermediate host of echinococcus granulossus?
A.  Dog
B.  Pig
C.  Cat
D.  Man
Ans. (D)
Pathology
64.   Annexin 5 is seen attached to an imermeable cell. The cell is in the process of:
A.  Cell cycle progression
B.  Cell cycle stops
C.  Apoptosis
D.  Necrosis
Ans. (C)
65.   Hyperplasia and hypertrophy both occur in:
A.  Breast enlargement during puberty
B.  Uterus during pregnancy
C.  Skeletal muscle enlargement during exercise
D.  Left ventricle hypertrophy
Ans. (B)
66.   Nodular regenerative hyperplasia in liver is associated with?
A.  Viral hepatitis
B.  Alcoholic hepatitis
C.  Autoimmune hepatitis
D.  Renal transplantation
Ans. (D)
67.   Most common cause of cancer with ageing:
A.  Telomerase inhibition
B.  Telomerase reactivation
C.  Suppression of proto-oncogene’s
D.  Increased signals for apoptosis
Ans. (B)
68.   True about Metastatic calcification:
A.  Starts in mitochondria
B.  Occurs in damaged cardiac valves
C.  Occurs in dead tissues
D.  Calcium levels are normal
Ans. (A)
69.   Patch test denotes which type of hypersensitivity?
A.  I
B.  II
C.  III
D.  IV
Ans. (D)
70.   Skip lesions seen in:
A.  Crohn’s disease
B.  Ulcerative colitis
C.  Typhoid
D.  TB enteritis
Ans. (A)
71.   All are true except:
A.  Chediak Higashi syndrome is due to deficient phagolysosome formation.
B.  In Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected
C.  Mycloperoxidase action is mainly due to HOCl.
D.  NADPH oxidase acts via superoxide ions.
Ans. (B)
Biochemistry
72.   Eukaryotic membrane is made up of all except:
A.  Triglycerides
B.  Carbohydrates
C.  Cholesterol
D.  Lecithin
Ans. (A)
73.   What is not done by insulin?
A.  Glycolysis
B.  Ketogenesis
C.  Glycogenesis
D.  Lipogenesis
Ans. (B)
74.   Which migrates fastest on paper chromatography on methylcellulose medium:
A.  Ascorbic acid
B.  Glycine
C.  Lysine
D.  Valine
Ans. (D)
75.   True about translation in eukaryoks are all except:
A.  N formyl methionine transfer RNA will be the first
B.  5’3’ direction
C.  3’5’ direction
D.  EF 2 shift b/w GDP & GTP
Ans. (B)
76.   NO formed in body by
A.  L Arginine
B.  Glycine
C.  Valine
D.  Aspartic acid
Ans. (A)
77.   Oligomisnorm gene used in Primer
A.  Site directed mutagenesis
B.  RELP
C.  Error base PCR
D.  Mass chromatography
Ans. (C)
ENT
78.   Endolymph is secreted by:
A.  Hair cells
B.  Stria Vascularis
C.  Scala tympani
D.  Scala Vestibuli
Ans. (B)
79.   Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3. Treatment is given:
A.  Oral steroids + Vit. B
B.  Vit. B + Vasodilators
C.  Oral Steroids + Acyclovir
D.  Intratympanic steroids
Ans. (B)
80.   Man with strained n croaky voice with spasmodic dysfunction
A.  Adductor spasm,
B.  Abductor spasm
C.  Botox in pca best treatment
D.  Type 4 thyroplasty is treatment
Ans. (A)
Pharmacology
81.   Cerebellar toxicity is caused by
A.  Cytosine arabinoside
B.  Bleomycin
C.  Cisplatin
D.  Busulfan
Ans. (A)
82.   Tolazoline is used as:
A.  Vasoconstrictor in treatment of gastro esophageal varices.
B.  Vasodilator during angiography to relieve vasospasm
C.  A new radio-contrast agent
D.  New antispasmodic during biliary spasm
Ans. (B)
83.   Side effect of Amiodarone
A.  Fibrosis
B.  Cirrhosis
C.  Productive Cough
D.  Corneal micro deposits
Ans. (C)
84.   Treatment of heparin overdose is:
A.  Vit. -K
B.  Blood transfusion
C.  Protamine sulphate
D.  Platelet infusion
Ans. (B)
85.   Thalidomide not used in:
A.  HIV associated neuropathy
B.  Bechet’s
C.  HIV associated oral ulcers
D.  ENCL
Ans. (A)
86.   Which can be given orally:
A.  Cytosine arabinoside
B.  Actinomycin D
C.  Mesna
D.  Doxorubicin
Ans. (B)
87.   Allopurinol used in organ preservation as:
A.  Free radical destruction
B.  Preservative
C.  Antioxidant
D.  None of above
Ans. (A)
88.   True about warfarin are all except:
A.  Crosses placenta, should not be given in pregnancy
B.  Vit. K dependent factors inhabited
C.  t½ is 36 hours
D.  In liver disease dose in increased
Ans. (D)
89.   Pharmacovigilance:
A.  Check cost of drugs
B.  Check drug safety
C.  Monitoring of pharmacy students
D.  Keep a check on dealers
Ans. (B)
90.   Cetuximab used in
A.  Palliative treatment in head neck ca
B.  Analcanalca
C.  Small cell ca lung
D.  Gastric cancer
Ans. (A)
91.   Mechanism of action of Multi Drug Resistance gene:
A.  Inhibit prodrug activation
B.  Efflux of the drug from the cell
C.  Increasing the rate of metabolism of drug
D.  Inactivating the receptors for drug action
Ans. (B)
92.   Not true about cephalosporin:
A.  Inhibit cell wall synthesis
B.  Cefoperazone is antipseudomonal
C.  Cetazidime is third generation cephalosporin
D.  Cefoxitin has no anaerobic activity
Ans. (D)
93.   Digitalis toxicity potentiated by all except:
A.  Hyperkalemia
B.  Hypomagnesemia
C.  Hyperalcemia
D.  Renal failure
Ans. (A)
94.   For ACE inhibitors, which of the following is true?
A.  Inhibit angiotensionogen conversion to angiotensin-I
B.  Omit diuretics to prevent 1st dose hypotension
C.  Enalopril is more long acting than Lisinopril
D.  Can’t be given till systolic function resolves.
Ans. (B)
95.   Highest emetic potential is by
A.  Cisplatin
B.  High dose methotrexate
C.  High dose Cyclophosphamide
D.  Vincristine
Ans. (A)
Surgery
96.   Death in Crohn’s most commonly due to
A.  Thromboembolism
B.  Sepsis
C.  Malignancy
D.  Electrolyte imbalance
Ans. (B)
97.   Seminomatous and non-seminematous tumors true is all except:
A.  Seminomatous when localised to testis give radiotherapy
B.  Non seminomatous when localized to testis orchidectomy + removal of RPLN.
C.  Seminomatous spread by haematogenous route as compared to non seminomatous.
D.  Non seminomatous are more malignant thn seminomatous.
Ans. (C)
98.   Boover sign is used for testing muscle of
A.  Respiratory
B.  Abdominal
C.  Facial
D.  Occular
Ans. (C)
99.   Sister joseph marry nodule in which a
A.  Gastric
B.  Pancreatic
C.  Colon
D.  Ovarian
Ans. (A)
100. Which of the following is used to define penetrating neck injury?
A.  2 cm. Depth of wound
B.  Injury to vital structures
C.  Breach of platysma
D.  Through and through wound
Ans. (C)
101. Choledochal cyst not true
A.  Type Second is m/c type
B.  Rupture leads to peritonitis
C.  Radical excision & reconstruction of biliary tract is treat meant of choice
D.  Lined by squamous epithelium
Ans. (A)
102. Not a premalignant lesion of esophagus
A.  Medistinal fibrosis
B.  Caustic burn
C.  Human papilloma virus
D.  Diverticula
Ans. (D)
103. Most common cause of esophagitis
A.  Smoking
B.  Alcohol
C.  Reflux Disease
D.  Increased intake of Spices
Ans. (C)
104. Most common cause for nosocomial infection
A.  Admission for elective surgery
B.  Admission for normal delivery
C.  Know neoplasm patient in OPD for follow up
D.  Endoscopic evaluation
Ans. (A)
105. Stain used 2 find carcinoma while doing endoscopy
A.  Toluidine blue
B.  Gentian violet
C.  Hematoxylin 2 eosin
D.  Methylene Blue
Ans. (A)
106. Double bubble sign is seen with:
A.  Esophageal atresia
B.  Pyloric stenosis
C.  Duodenal atresia
D.  Heal atresia
Ans. (C)
107. Penile Angiography is indicated in all except:
A.  Peyronie’s disease
B.  Vascular malformation
C.  Priapism
D.  Ischemic erectile dysfunction
Ans. (A)
108. Most important prognostic factor of renal cancer based on:
A.  Size of tumor
B.  Pathological staging
C.  Nuclear grading
D.  Histology
Ans. (B)
Forensic
109. Large bruise with minimal trauma occurs in:
A.  Scalp
B.  Soles
C.  Palm
D.  Face
Ans. (D)
110. Cuts of genitalia are commonly:
A.  Homicidal
B.  Post-mortem artifact
C.  Accidental
D.  Self inflicted
Ans. (A)
111. A pest control worker was brought to the emergency room with h/o pain in abdomen vomiting, garlic odor in breath, which of the following is the most common poison?
A.  Lead
B.  Arsenic
C.  Mercury
D.  Phosphenes
Ans. (B)
112. Not a sign of ante-mortem contusion:
A.  Sharp margins
B.  Raised above the surface
C.  Coagulation of blood
D.  Vital reaction
Ans. (A)
Ophthalmology
113. Maximum refractive index is for:
A.  Cornea
B.  Anterior surface of lens
C.  Centroid of lens
D.  Posterior surface of lens
Ans. (C)
114. A young male presents with blurred vision in right eye followed by similar complaints in left eye after 3 months. On examination – Pupillary reflex is normal and centrocaecal scotoma is seen. He has parafoveal/juxtafovcal telangiectasia and disc hyperaemia. Most likely diagnosis:
A.  Leber’s hereditary optic atrophy
B.  Optic neuritis
C.  Papilloedema
D.  Toxic optic neuropathy
Ans. (A)
115. Sclera is thinnest at:
A.  Equator
B.  Insertion of recti
C.  Beneath the recti
D.  Behind the insertion of recti
Ans. (D)
116. Diplopia with limitation of adduction of right eye with abduction saccades of left eye and normal convergent is due to:
A.  Duane’ sretractionsyndrome
B.  Partial 3rd nerve palsy
C.  Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
D.  Absence of medial rectus
Ans. (C)
117. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:
A.  Blow on forehead
B.  Blow on lower jaw
C.  Blow on parietal bone
D.  Fall on back of the head
Ans. (A)
Radiology
118. C1 C2 best seen in:
A.  Lateral view
B.  Oblique view
C.  AP view
D.  Odontoid view
Ans. (D)
119. Hounsefield Units depends on
A.  Electron density
B.  Mass density
C.  Effective atomic no. a
D.  Attenuation ration
Ans. (A)
120. Stereotactic surgery is done with all except:
A.  Gamma knife CO60
B.  Electron
C.  Proton
D.  Linear accelerator
Ans. (None)
121. Revisable ischemia of the heart is detected by:
A.  Angiography
B.  Thallium scan
C.  MUGA
D.  Resting Echocardiography
Ans. (B)
Psychiatry
122. Subcortical dementia occurs in all except:
A.  Alzheimer’s disease
B.  Supranuclear Palsy
C.  Parkinson’s
D.  HIV associated dementia
Ans. (A)
123. Formation and delusion of persecution occurs simultaneously in:
A.  Cocaine
B.  Amphetamine
C.  Cannabis
D.  Morphine
Ans. (A)
124. True about hallucination except:
A.  It occurs in inner subjective space
B.  It is vivid as real sensation
C.  It occurs in absence of stimuli
D.  It occurs without the will of subject
Ans. (A)
125. Alcohol anticraving agents all are used except:
A.  Lorazepam
B.  Topiramate
C.  Accemprosate
D.  Naltrexone
Ans. (A)
126. Which of the following agent cannot be used as treatment of heroine dependence
A.  Lorazepam
B.  Naltrexone
C.  Clonidine
D.  Disulfiram
Ans. (D)
127. Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill to a mentally, challenged child:
A.  CBT (Cognitive Behaviour Therapy)
B.  Contingency
C.  Cognitive reconstruction
D.  Self instruction
Ans. (B)
128. A man taking 20 cigarettes per day, started coughing, his family suggested quitting cigaretes. He is ready to quit but thinks that quitting will make him irritable, the best health planning model followed is:
A.  Cost and survival
B.  Persuasion
C.  Precontemplation and preparation
D.  Belief
Ans. (C)
Orthopaedics
129. A 7 year old boy with abrupt onset of pain in hip with hip held in abduction. All investigations are normal except for a high value of ESR. Which is the next line of management?
A.  Hospitalize and observe
B.  Ambulatory observation
C.  Intra venous antibiotics
D.  USG guided aspiration of hip
Ans. (B)
130. Haematogenous infection to bone involves which part of long bone?
A.  Epiphysis
B.  Diaphysis
C.  Metaphysis
D.  Where nutrient artery enters bone
Ans. (C)
131. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is seen in which arthritis?
A.  Rheumatoid arthritis
B.  Psoriatic arthritis
C.  Ankylosing spondylitis
D.  Osteoarthritis
Ans. (A)
132. Crescent fracture true is:
A.  Acetabulum shift backwards
B.  Rotational instability found.
C.  Fracture of iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption
D.  Dislocation of pubic symphysis with fracture of both iliac bones
Ans. (C)
133. Stability of posterior glenohumeral joint tested by:
A.  Jerk’s test.
B.  Fulcrum test
C.  Crnak test
D.  Sulcus test
Ans. (A)
134. Kocher Langenback procedure done in
A.  Acetabular fracture
B. 
C. 
D. 
Ans. (A)
135. Emergency treatment of acetabular fracture done in A/E:
A.  Recurrent dislocation despite Rx
B.  Open ace tubular #
C.  Sciatic n entrapment
Ans. ()
136. Osteosclerotic bone lesion is found most commonly in which carcinoma?
A.  Prostate
B.  Kidney
C.  Thyroid
D.  Lung
Ans. (A)
Medicine
137. LV hypertrophy does not occurs in:
A.  MS
B.  AR
C.  AS
D.  MR
Ans. (A)
138. Most important cause of acute right heart failure?
A.  Tricuspid stenosis
B.  Pulmonary stenosis
C.  Massive pulmonary embolism
D.  Tricuspid regurgitation
Ans. (C)
139. Bilateral medulary nephrocalcinosis seen in all except:
A.  Hyperoxaluria
B.  Barter’s
C.  Prolonged use of Furosemide
D.  ARPKD
Ans. (D)
140. Histiocytosis which is false:
A.  Highly radiosensitive
B.  Disseminated is letterer sine disease
C.  Seen in < 3 years old
D.  Gonadal involvement is common
Ans. (A)
141. A 55 years old diabetic lady without any previous H/O headache presented with severe acute headache, nausea and on examination found to have neck rigidity. Detailed history lead to finding a past H/O photophobia. Most common can be:
A.  Acute viral encephalitis
B.  Hydrocephalus
C.  Migrane
D.  SAH
Ans. (D)
142. Right cerebral hemisphere damage seen is all except:
A.  Visuospatial deficit
B.  Anosognosia
C.  Dyscalculia
D.  Dysgsraphia
Ans. (D)
143. Which is not true about primary Sjogern’s syndrome?
A.  Xerostomia
B.  Xerophthalmia
C.  Lymphoma
D.  Connective tissue disorder/autoimmune disorder
Ans. (D)
144. Gene therapy has been successfully used in:
A.  Cystic fibrosis
B.  Sickle cell anemia
C.  Thalassemia
D.  SCID
Ans. (D)
145. CNS finding in HIV patient are all except:
A.  Giant cell surrounding vessels
B.  Microglial nodules
C.  Inclusion body
D.  Posterior column vaculopathy
Ans. (C)
146. Blood transfusion complications are all except:
A.  Hyperkalemia
B.  Citrate toxicity
C.  Metabolic acidosis
D.  Leucocytosis
Ans. (D)
147. Which of the following is NOT a cause of congenital hypercoagulability?
A.  Protein C deficiency
B.  Protein S deficiency
C.  Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
D.  MLCSTR gene mutations
Ans. (C)
148. Following are true about Wilson’s disease except:
A.  Serum ceruloplasmin <20 mg/ac
B.  24 hour urinary copper excretion <100 ug
C.  Autosomal recessive
D.  Liver biopsy with >200 ug/g dry weight is gold standard.
Ans. (B)
149. Treatment of a lady with sputum positive pulmonary TB in early pregnancy:
A.  Start the treatment with Cat. I immediately
B.  Treatment to be delayed till second trimester
C.  Category II treatment in first trimester
D.  Category III treatment in first trimester
Ans. (A)
150. In prions disease all are true except:
A.  They are caused by infections proteins
B.  Neurodegenerative disease
C.  Biopsy of brain is specific
D.  Myoclonus present in 10% cases.
Ans. (D)
151. Tumrolysis syndrome not seen:
A.  Hyperuricemia
B.  Hyperphosphatemia
C.  Hypercalcemia
D.  Hyperkalemia
Ans. (C)
152. Major Jone’s criteria for Rheumatic fever are all except:
A.  Carditis
B.  Chorea
C.  Arthritis
D.  ESR
Ans. (D)
153. A patient with memory impairment, visuo spatial deficits and paranoid delusions is found to have neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. Other pathological findings associated will be:
A.  Amyloid plaque
B.  Lewy Bodies
C.  X synuclein
D.  Negri bodies
Ans. (A)
154. Most important in Coronary heart disease:
A.  LDL
B.  HDL
C.  Triglycerides
D.  VDL
Ans. (A)
155. Romberg sign positive with eyes closed in seen in lesions of:
A.  Spinocerebellr tract
B.  Spinothalamic tract
C.  Propriocetion
D.  Pontocerebellar tract
Ans. (C)
156. A man developed swelling of face frequently with occasional laryngeal edema, most probable diagnosis is:
A.  C-l esterase deficiency
B.  Allergy
C.  Anaphylaxsis
D.  Non recalled
Ans. (A)
157. Most common cause of acute RVF;
A.  Massive pulmonary embolism
B.  Tricuspid stenosis
C.  Pulmonary stenosis
D.  Tricuspid regurgitation
Ans. (A)
158. Drugs not used for the treatment of acute hyperkalemia:
A.  Insulin+glucose
B.  Potassium exchange resins
C.  Calcium gluconate
D.  Sodium bicarbonate
Ans. (B)
159. Blood borne infections are all except:
A.  Hep G
B.  EBV
C.  CMV
D.  Parvovirus B19
Ans. (B)
160. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis:
A.  After transplant in Alport’s
B.  Microscopic polyangitis
C.  Henoch Schonlein purpura
D.  SLE
Ans. (B)
161. Hypersensitivity vasculitis involves:
A.  Arterioles
B.  Post capillary venules
C.  Capillaries
D.  Medium sized arteries
Ans. (B)
162. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?
A.  I.V. immunoglobulins
B.  Steroids
C.  Azathioprine
D.  Methotrexate
Ans. (A)
163. All of the following are true about lupus anticoagulant except:
A.  Prolongation of only aPTT
B.  Recurrent second trimester absorption
C.  Recurrent bleeding episodes
D.  Can be associated without any clinical symptoms
Ans. (B)
164. Serum fructosamine can be used in all, except:
A.  Screening of diabetes
B.  Rapid change in DM treatment
C.  Short term control OD DM
D.  Screening of DM in pregnancy
Ans. (A)
165. The nobel prize in physiology or medicine for 2007 jointly to Mario R. Capecchi, Martin J. Evans and Oliver Smithies for their discoveries of:
A.  Detection of chemical/growth factors for preventing growth of tumors
B.  Principles for introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use embryonic stem cells
C.  Non genetic method treating muscular dystrophies
D.  Not recalled
Ans. (B)
Physiology
166. VIII nerve receives afferents of:
A.  Taste
B.  Balance
C.  Pain
D.  Smell
Ans. (B)
167. During Ovulation phase:
A.  Increase in inhibin A level
B.  FHS induce steroid genesis in granulosa cells
C.  Decrease Activin A level
D.  Reduction division occurs at the time of ovulation
Ans. (D)
168. Diff b/w Rods & Cones are all except in:
A.  Sensitivity
B.  Number
C.  Type light
D.  Transduction
Ans. (D)
169. Somatomedin at normal physiological concentration combination do:
A.  Lypogenesis
B.  Glyconeogenesis
C.  Glucose taken up by cells
D.  Deposition of chondritin sulphate
Ans. (D)
170. Muscle spindle function:
A.  Maintain muscles length
B.  Muscles tension
C.  Muscle tone
D.  Withdrawal reflex
Ans. (A)
171. High affinity of fetal Hb with O2 due to:
A.  Decreases 2, 3 DPG
B.  Reduced pH
C.  Increase releases of CO
D. 
Ans. (A)
172. Development of fibers of cortex is:
A.  Tangential
B.  Vertical
C.  Irregular
D.  Horizontal
Ans. (B)
173. Central processing at auditory pathway is for
A.  Speech discrimination
B.  Frequency discrimination
C.  Intensity discrimination
D.  Sound Localization
Ans. (D)
174. Estrogens action on carbohydrate metabolism
A.  Increase uptake of glucose through
B.  Glycolysis increase
C.  Increasing central adipose deposition
D.  Decrease fasting insulin level
Ans. (D)
Skin
175. Granular deposits of IgA in intradermal space:
A.  Bullous pemphigoid
B.  Pemphigus vulgaris
C.  Dermatitis herpetiformis
D.  Lichen planus
Ans. (C)
176. IgG intercellular deposits are seen in:
A.  Bullous pemphigoid
B.  Pemphigus vulgaris
C.  Dermatitis herpetiformis
D.  Lichen planus
Ans. (B)
177. IgA deposits on skin biopsy:
A.  Henoch Schouleiln puspura
B.  Giant cell arteritis
C.  Microscopic plyangitis
D.  Wegener’s granulomatosis
Ans. (A)
178. Neurofibromatosis all are true except:
A.  Autosomal recessive
B.  Scoliosis
C.  Neurofibroma
D.  Association with cataract
Ans. (A)