Anatomy
1. Not a sphincter of vagina:
A. Pubovaginalis
B. Internal
urethral sphincter
C. External
urethral sphincter
D. Bulbo
spongiosum
Ans. (C)
2. Urothelium lines of the following except:
A. Ureter
B. Membranous
Urethra
C. Bladder
D. Major
Calyces
Ans. (B)
3. Endothelial cells of cornea derived from:
A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neural
Crest
D. Ectoderm
Ans. (C)
4. Anterior posterior stability of eye ball is
maintained by
A. SR
B. SO
C. Retro
orbital fat
D. Tennon
capsule
Ans. (C)
5. Sphincter of Odi has how many sphincters?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Ans. (B)
6. Structure passing along with aorta
in/aortic hiatus?
A. Thoracic
duct and azygos vein
B. Thoracic
duct and hemiazygos vein
C. Lt.
Vagus nerve azygos vein
D. Lt.
Vagus nerve and hemiazygos vein
Ans. (A)
7. Segment of liver which drains left hepatic
duct?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Ans. (B)
8. False about hepatic duct:
A. Left
hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
B. Left
hepatic duct crosses IV segment
C. Right
hepatic duct crosses V and VIII segments
D. Caudate
lobe drains only left hepatic duct
Ans. (D)
9. Pain in arm, loss of contour of deltoid
& failure of abduction after tetanus vaccine 5 days after vaccination due
to
A. Brachial
neuritis
B. Radial
n entrapment
C. Thoracic
outlet syndrome
D. Hysterical
Syndrome
Ans. (A)
10. Capacitation of sperms takes place in:
A. Uterus
B. Epidydymis
C. Seminal
vesicles
D. Seminiferous
tubules
Ans. (A)
11. Enophthalmos is caused by:
A. Superior
levator paralysis
B. Tennons
capsule instability
C. Orbiculis
oculi paralysis
D. Superior
tarsal muscle paralysis
Ans. (A)
12. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic
nerves?
A. Appendix
B. Uterus
C. Rectum
D. Urinary
bladder
Ans. (A)
13. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:
A. Splenic
B. Gastroduodenal
C. Superior
mesenteric
D. Coeliac
Ans. (B)
14. All are of adult size at birth except:
A. Mastoid
antrum
B. Ossicles
C. Orbital
cavity
D. Maxillary
antrum
Ans. (D)
15. Deltoid ligament is not attached to:
A. Medial
cuneiform
B. Medial
malleolus
C. Sustentaculum
tali
D. Spring
ligament
Ans. (A)
16. Structures deep to the posterior belly of
digastric are all except:
A. Hypoglossal
nerve
B. Hyoglossus
C. Retromandibular
vein
D. Occipital
artery
Ans. (C)
PSM
17. Which is not a mode of health education?
A. Primary
health care approach
B. Regulatory
approach
C. Service
approach
D. Mass
media
Ans. (D)
18. Most common mode of lead poisoning:
A. Orally
B. Contact
C. Inhalation
D. Air
Pollution
Ans. (C)
19. Target population for targeted intervention
for HIV includes all except:
A. Migrant
labourers
B. Sex
workers
C. Street
children
D. Industrial
workers
Ans. (D)
20. STEPS approach by WHO is for assessing
incidents of risk factor for:
A. Communicable
diseases
B. Non
communicable diseases
C. Immune
deficient diseases
D. Autoimmune
diseases
Ans. (B)
21. Nested case control study is a type of:
A. Prospective
study
B. Retrospective
study
C. Ecological
study
D. Case
control study
Ans. (A)
22. To know the prevalence of cataract in a
population at a given point of time study design used is:
A. Cross
Sectional
B. Cohort
C. Ecological
D. Case
control
Ans. (A)
23. HIV screening in pregnancy as recommended by
CDC?
A. Universal
screening
B. Symptomatic
C. Opt.
In screening
D. Opt.
Out screening
Ans. (D)
24. Blood banks get permission to operate from:
A. NACO
B. NABL
C. State
Ministry/Ministry of Health
D. Drug
Controller General of India
Ans. (D)
25. Not a part of targets for 10th Five Year
Plans?
A. Increase
Cataract Surgery to 450/lakh population
B. IOL
implantation in more than 80% of cataract operations
C. Development
of 50 paediatric ophthalmology units.
D. 100%
coverage of Vit. Aprophylactic doses from 9 months to 3 years of age children
Ans. (D)
26. Thiamine requirement by body depends on
consumption of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Amino
acids
D. Minerals
Ans. (A)
27. Profit put before health in which view?
A. Marxist
B. Feminist
C. Foucaldian
theory
D. Personian
Ans. (A)
28. Safe disposal of Mercury?
A. Bury
under earth
B. Collect
carefully and reuse
C. Combustion
D. Treat
with chemical
Ans. (B)
29. Acquired, constant & permanent but liable
to change later on
A. Knowledge
B. Cultural
believe
C. Practice
D. Attitude
Ans. (A)
30. A temporary, provisional views held by the
people on a point of view is
A. Opinion
B. Cultural
believe
C. Practice
D. Attitude
Ans. (A)
31. Which doesn’t measure association?
A. P
valve
B. Odds
ratio
C. Relative
risk
D. Cronbach’
alpha
Ans. (D)
Pediatric
32. A 10-month-old baby previously normal,
suddenly becomes distressed in his crib. The external appearance of genitalia
was normal, except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose showed a level of 30mg%.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. 21
hydroxylasedeficiency
B. Hyperinsulinism
C. Familial
glucocorticoid deficiency
D. Cushing’s
syndrome
Ans. (C)
33. A 3-month-old female child with normal
genitalia and normal blood pressure presents to the emergency department with
severe dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement blood levels
of which of the following will be helpful?
A. 17-hydroxy
progesterone
B. Renin
C. Cortisol
D. Aldosterone
Ans. (A)
34. A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly,
abdominal distension, jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification. Which of the
following is the diagnosis?
A. Adrenal
hemorrhage
B. Wolman’s
disease
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Addison’s
disease
Ans. (B)
35. All are true about scurvy except:
A. Skeletal
changes in adult occur with clinical deficiency of Vit. C
B. Defective
proximal calcification is the central cause for bone change
C. Cartilaginous
overgrowth results in widening of epiphyseal plate
D. Bowing
of legs
Ans. (B)
36. Pilocytic astrocytoma false is:
A. Spreads
to posterior fossa
B. Seen
at eighty years of age
C. Best
prognosis among all intracranial neoplasms
D. Surgery
and radiation therapy used for treatment
Ans. (B)
Obstetrics
& gynaecology
37. Caesarean section can be done in which heart
disease during pregnancy:
A. Eissenmenger
syndrome
B. AS
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Aortic
aneurysm
Ans. (D)
38. Mayer Rokintansky Kuster Kauser:
A. Absent
ovary uterus present
B. Absent
ovary, uterus and vagina
C. Absent
uterus and vagina
D. Uterus
absent, tubes and ovary present
Ans. (D)
39. A lady presented with creamy white vaginal
discharge with fishy odour, drug of choice is:
A. Doxycycline
B. Ofloxacin
C. Metronidazole
D. Chondamycin
Ans. (C)
40. All are true about aneuploidy except:
A. 30%
of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero
B. 80%
of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero
C. Occurrence
of aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mother’s age
D. Not
recalled
Ans. (C)
41. Pregnancy is Contradiction in all except:
A. Eissenmenger
syndrome
B. WPW
syndrome
C. PPHT
D. Marfan
involving aortic root
Ans. (A)
42. Not true in a diabetic pregnant patience?
A. Risk
of congenital malformation is 6-10%.
B. 1-2%
incidence of single umbilical artery
C. Free
radical is most important cause of injury
D. Insulin
R 500 IU can be given
Ans. (D)
43. Clomiphene citrate:
A. It
is antiestrogenic
B. Trials
shown used in increase sperm count in oligospermia
C. Twin
pregnancy incidence increased by 40%
D. 3
fold increase in pregnancy compared to placebo.
Ans. (A)
44. Tran abdominal Chronic villas sampling is
bests done on:
A. 7-9
wk
B. 9-11
wk
C. 11-13
wk
D. 20-24
wk
Ans. (C)
45. Vase previa true is condition seen is
A. ECS
at 38 wks
B. U/S
Low lying placeta in the second trimester is a risk facto
C. Incidence
is 1 in 1500 cases
D. Mortality
association is 20%
Ans. (A)
Anaesthesia
46. Flat capnogram is seen in all except:
A. Intraoperative
displacement of endotracheal tube
B. Disconnection
of endotracheal tube
C. Mechanical
ventilation failure
D. Bronchospasm
Ans. (D)
47. Most cardiostable:
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Etomidate
D. Propofol
Ans. (C)
48. Coeliac pluexes block complication is:
A. Retroperitoneal
haemorrhage
B. Pneumothorax
C. Intra-arterial
injury
D. Hypotension
Ans. (D)
49. Which is seen after tracheostomy?
A. Increased
V/P ratio
B. Inversion
of V/P ratio
C. Decrease
in dead space
D. Increased
resistance to air flow
Ans. (C)
50. Methemoglobinemia is caused which local
anaesthetic?
A. Prilocaine
B. Procaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Ropivacine
Ans. (A)
51. Which is safe in myasthenia gravis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Azathioprine
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenytoin
Ans. (D)
52. True about CPAP ail except:
A. Used
prophylactically in baby born with <1 kg wt or <28 weeks gestation
B. Initiate
as early in preterm with resp. diseases
C. Initiate
with <50-60% Fi O2
D. Improed
lung compliance and oxygenation
Ans. (A)
Microbiology
53. Listeria culture media:
A. Baker
B. Korthoff
C. Tinsdale
D. Blood
agar
Ans. (D)
54. All are dimorphic except:
A. Blastomyces
B. Histoplasma
C. Penicillium
mameffei
D. Phialophora
Ans. (D)
55. Microaerophilic bacteria:
A. Campylobacter
B. Vibrio
cholera
C. Pseudomonas
D. Salmonella
Ans. (A)
56. Treponema palidum isolated from CSF in which
stage?
A. Primary
syphilis
B. Secondary
syphilis
C. Tertiary
syphilis
D. Tabes
dorsalis
Ans. (A/B)
57. All cause malasorption syndromes except:
A. Giardiasis
B. Ascaris
C. Strongyloides
D. Capillaria
phillipinesis
Ans. (B)
58. Congenital toxoplasmosis not true:
A. IgA
is more sensitive than IgM
B. An
increase in IgM beyond 1st week of life is diagnostic
C. IgG
is diagnostic
D. Dye
test is used
Ans. (C)
59. Acid fast organism with oocyst of size 5µm on
stool examination, causing diarrhea in HIV positive patient:
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Isospora
belli
C. Microsoporidia
D. Blastocystis
hominii
Ans. (A)
60. A traveler present with conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia and on USG investigations a egg was found in his biliary
tract. Likely organism:
A. Clonorchis
sinensis
B. Pasciola
buski
C. Gnathostomata
D. Ascaris
Ans. (A)
61. Which species of Clostridum does not cause
gas gangrene?
A. Cl.
perfringes
B. Cl.
Histolyticum
C. C.
Novyii
D. C.
Sporogenes
Ans. (D)
62. Autoinfection is seen with:
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Strogyloidies
C. Giardia
D. Ganthostoma
Ans. (B)
63. Intermediate host of echinococcus
granulossus?
A. Dog
B. Pig
C. Cat
D. Man
Ans. (D)
Pathology
64. Annexin 5 is seen attached to an imermeable
cell. The cell is in the process of:
A. Cell
cycle progression
B. Cell
cycle stops
C. Apoptosis
D. Necrosis
Ans. (C)
65. Hyperplasia and hypertrophy both occur in:
A. Breast
enlargement during puberty
B. Uterus
during pregnancy
C. Skeletal
muscle enlargement during exercise
D. Left
ventricle hypertrophy
Ans. (B)
66. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia in liver is
associated with?
A. Viral
hepatitis
B. Alcoholic
hepatitis
C. Autoimmune
hepatitis
D. Renal
transplantation
Ans. (D)
67. Most common cause of cancer with ageing:
A. Telomerase
inhibition
B. Telomerase
reactivation
C. Suppression
of proto-oncogene’s
D. Increased
signals for apoptosis
Ans. (B)
68. True about Metastatic calcification:
A. Starts
in mitochondria
B. Occurs
in damaged cardiac valves
C. Occurs
in dead tissues
D. Calcium
levels are normal
Ans. (A)
69. Patch test denotes which type of
hypersensitivity?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Ans. (D)
70. Skip lesions seen in:
A. Crohn’s
disease
B. Ulcerative
colitis
C. Typhoid
D. TB
enteritis
Ans. (A)
71. All are true except:
A. Chediak
Higashi syndrome is due to deficient phagolysosome formation.
B. In
Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected
C. Mycloperoxidase
action is mainly due to HOCl.
D. NADPH
oxidase acts via superoxide ions.
Ans. (B)
Biochemistry
72. Eukaryotic membrane is made up of all except:
A. Triglycerides
B. Carbohydrates
C. Cholesterol
D. Lecithin
Ans. (A)
73. What is not done by insulin?
A. Glycolysis
B. Ketogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Lipogenesis
Ans. (B)
74. Which migrates fastest on paper
chromatography on methylcellulose medium:
A. Ascorbic
acid
B. Glycine
C. Lysine
D. Valine
Ans. (D)
75. True about translation in eukaryoks are all
except:
A. N
formyl methionine transfer RNA will be the first
B. 5’3’
direction
C. 3’5’
direction
D. EF
2 shift b/w GDP & GTP
Ans. (B)
76. NO formed in body by
A. L
Arginine
B. Glycine
C. Valine
D. Aspartic
acid
Ans. (A)
77. Oligomisnorm gene used in Primer
A. Site
directed mutagenesis
B. RELP
C. Error
base PCR
D. Mass
chromatography
Ans. (C)
ENT
78. Endolymph is secreted by:
A. Hair
cells
B. Stria
Vascularis
C. Scala
tympani
D. Scala
Vestibuli
Ans. (B)
79. Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3.
Treatment is given:
A. Oral
steroids + Vit. B
B. Vit.
B + Vasodilators
C. Oral
Steroids + Acyclovir
D. Intratympanic
steroids
Ans. (B)
80. Man with strained n croaky voice with
spasmodic dysfunction
A. Adductor
spasm,
B. Abductor
spasm
C. Botox
in pca best treatment
D. Type
4 thyroplasty is treatment
Ans. (A)
Pharmacology
81. Cerebellar toxicity is caused by
A. Cytosine
arabinoside
B. Bleomycin
C. Cisplatin
D. Busulfan
Ans. (A)
82. Tolazoline is used as:
A. Vasoconstrictor
in treatment of gastro esophageal varices.
B. Vasodilator
during angiography to relieve vasospasm
C. A
new radio-contrast agent
D. New
antispasmodic during biliary spasm
Ans. (B)
83. Side effect of Amiodarone
A. Fibrosis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Productive
Cough
D. Corneal
micro deposits
Ans. (C)
84. Treatment of heparin overdose is:
A. Vit.
-K
B. Blood
transfusion
C. Protamine
sulphate
D. Platelet
infusion
Ans. (B)
85. Thalidomide not used in:
A. HIV
associated neuropathy
B. Bechet’s
C. HIV
associated oral ulcers
D. ENCL
Ans. (A)
86. Which can be given orally:
A. Cytosine
arabinoside
B. Actinomycin
D
C. Mesna
D. Doxorubicin
Ans. (B)
87. Allopurinol used in organ preservation as:
A. Free
radical destruction
B. Preservative
C. Antioxidant
D. None
of above
Ans. (A)
88. True about warfarin are all except:
A. Crosses
placenta, should not be given in pregnancy
B. Vit.
K dependent factors inhabited
C. t½
is 36 hours
D. In
liver disease dose in increased
Ans. (D)
89. Pharmacovigilance:
A. Check
cost of drugs
B. Check
drug safety
C. Monitoring
of pharmacy students
D. Keep
a check on dealers
Ans. (B)
90. Cetuximab used in
A. Palliative
treatment in head neck ca
B. Analcanalca
C. Small
cell ca lung
D. Gastric
cancer
Ans. (A)
91. Mechanism of action of Multi Drug Resistance
gene:
A. Inhibit
prodrug activation
B. Efflux
of the drug from the cell
C. Increasing
the rate of metabolism of drug
D. Inactivating
the receptors for drug action
Ans. (B)
92. Not true about cephalosporin:
A. Inhibit
cell wall synthesis
B. Cefoperazone
is antipseudomonal
C. Cetazidime
is third generation cephalosporin
D. Cefoxitin
has no anaerobic activity
Ans. (D)
93. Digitalis toxicity potentiated by all except:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hyperalcemia
D. Renal
failure
Ans. (A)
94. For ACE inhibitors, which of the following is
true?
A. Inhibit
angiotensionogen conversion to angiotensin-I
B. Omit
diuretics to prevent 1st dose hypotension
C. Enalopril
is more long acting than Lisinopril
D. Can’t
be given till systolic function resolves.
Ans. (B)
95. Highest emetic potential is by
A. Cisplatin
B. High
dose methotrexate
C. High
dose Cyclophosphamide
D. Vincristine
Ans. (A)
Surgery
96. Death in Crohn’s most commonly due to
A. Thromboembolism
B. Sepsis
C. Malignancy
D. Electrolyte
imbalance
Ans. (B)
97. Seminomatous and non-seminematous tumors true
is all except:
A. Seminomatous
when localised to testis give radiotherapy
B. Non
seminomatous when localized to testis orchidectomy + removal of RPLN.
C. Seminomatous
spread by haematogenous route as compared to non seminomatous.
D. Non
seminomatous are more malignant thn seminomatous.
Ans. (C)
98. Boover sign is used for testing muscle of
A. Respiratory
B. Abdominal
C. Facial
D. Occular
Ans. (C)
99. Sister joseph marry nodule in which a
A. Gastric
B. Pancreatic
C. Colon
D. Ovarian
Ans. (A)
100. Which of the following is used to define
penetrating neck injury?
A. 2
cm. Depth of wound
B. Injury
to vital structures
C. Breach
of platysma
D. Through
and through wound
Ans. (C)
101. Choledochal cyst not true
A. Type
Second is m/c type
B. Rupture
leads to peritonitis
C. Radical
excision & reconstruction of biliary tract is treat meant of choice
D. Lined
by squamous epithelium
Ans. (A)
102. Not a premalignant lesion of esophagus
A. Medistinal
fibrosis
B. Caustic
burn
C. Human
papilloma virus
D. Diverticula
Ans. (D)
103. Most common cause of esophagitis
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Reflux
Disease
D. Increased
intake of Spices
Ans. (C)
104. Most common cause for nosocomial infection
A. Admission
for elective surgery
B. Admission
for normal delivery
C. Know
neoplasm patient in OPD for follow up
D. Endoscopic
evaluation
Ans. (A)
105. Stain used 2 find carcinoma while doing
endoscopy
A. Toluidine
blue
B. Gentian
violet
C. Hematoxylin
2 eosin
D. Methylene
Blue
Ans. (A)
106. Double bubble sign is seen with:
A. Esophageal
atresia
B. Pyloric
stenosis
C. Duodenal
atresia
D. Heal
atresia
Ans. (C)
107. Penile Angiography is indicated in all except:
A. Peyronie’s
disease
B. Vascular
malformation
C. Priapism
D. Ischemic
erectile dysfunction
Ans. (A)
108. Most important prognostic factor of renal
cancer based on:
A. Size
of tumor
B. Pathological
staging
C. Nuclear
grading
D. Histology
Ans. (B)
Forensic
109. Large bruise with minimal trauma occurs in:
A. Scalp
B. Soles
C. Palm
D. Face
Ans. (D)
110. Cuts of genitalia are commonly:
A. Homicidal
B. Post-mortem
artifact
C. Accidental
D. Self
inflicted
Ans. (A)
111. A pest control worker was brought to the
emergency room with h/o pain in abdomen vomiting, garlic odor in breath, which
of the following is the most common poison?
A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Phosphenes
Ans. (B)
112. Not a sign of ante-mortem contusion:
A. Sharp
margins
B. Raised
above the surface
C. Coagulation
of blood
D. Vital
reaction
Ans. (A)
Ophthalmology
113. Maximum refractive index is for:
A. Cornea
B. Anterior
surface of lens
C. Centroid
of lens
D. Posterior
surface of lens
Ans. (C)
114. A young male presents with blurred vision in
right eye followed by similar complaints in left eye after 3 months. On
examination – Pupillary reflex is normal and centrocaecal scotoma is seen. He
has parafoveal/juxtafovcal telangiectasia and disc hyperaemia. Most likely
diagnosis:
A. Leber’s
hereditary optic atrophy
B. Optic
neuritis
C. Papilloedema
D. Toxic
optic neuropathy
Ans. (A)
115. Sclera is thinnest at:
A. Equator
B. Insertion
of recti
C. Beneath
the recti
D. Behind
the insertion of recti
Ans. (D)
116. Diplopia with limitation of adduction of right
eye with abduction saccades of left eye and normal convergent is due to:
A. Duane’
sretractionsyndrome
B. Partial
3rd nerve palsy
C. Internuclear
ophthalmoplegia
D. Absence
of medial rectus
Ans. (C)
117. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:
A. Blow
on forehead
B. Blow
on lower jaw
C. Blow
on parietal bone
D. Fall
on back of the head
Ans. (A)
Radiology
118. C1 C2 best seen in:
A. Lateral
view
B. Oblique
view
C. AP
view
D. Odontoid
view
Ans. (D)
119. Hounsefield Units depends on
A. Electron
density
B. Mass
density
C. Effective
atomic no. a
D. Attenuation
ration
Ans. (A)
120. Stereotactic surgery is done with all except:
A. Gamma
knife CO60
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Linear
accelerator
Ans. (None)
121. Revisable ischemia of the heart is detected by:
A. Angiography
B. Thallium
scan
C. MUGA
D. Resting
Echocardiography
Ans. (B)
Psychiatry
122. Subcortical dementia occurs in all except:
A. Alzheimer’s
disease
B. Supranuclear
Palsy
C. Parkinson’s
D. HIV
associated dementia
Ans. (A)
123. Formation and delusion of persecution occurs
simultaneously in:
A. Cocaine
B. Amphetamine
C. Cannabis
D. Morphine
Ans. (A)
124. True about hallucination except:
A. It
occurs in inner subjective space
B. It
is vivid as real sensation
C. It
occurs in absence of stimuli
D. It
occurs without the will of subject
Ans. (A)
125. Alcohol anticraving agents all are used except:
A. Lorazepam
B. Topiramate
C. Accemprosate
D. Naltrexone
Ans. (A)
126. Which of the following agent cannot be used as
treatment of heroine dependence
A. Lorazepam
B. Naltrexone
C. Clonidine
D. Disulfiram
Ans. (D)
127. Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill
to a mentally, challenged child:
A. CBT
(Cognitive Behaviour Therapy)
B. Contingency
C. Cognitive
reconstruction
D. Self
instruction
Ans. (B)
128. A man taking 20 cigarettes per day, started
coughing, his family suggested quitting cigaretes. He is ready to quit but
thinks that quitting will make him irritable, the best health planning model
followed is:
A. Cost
and survival
B. Persuasion
C. Precontemplation
and preparation
D. Belief
Ans. (C)
Orthopaedics
129. A 7 year old boy with abrupt onset of pain in
hip with hip held in abduction. All investigations are normal except for a high
value of ESR. Which is the next line of management?
A. Hospitalize
and observe
B. Ambulatory
observation
C. Intra
venous antibiotics
D. USG
guided aspiration of hip
Ans. (B)
130. Haematogenous infection to bone involves which
part of long bone?
A. Epiphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Metaphysis
D. Where
nutrient artery enters bone
Ans. (C)
131. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is seen in which
arthritis?
A. Rheumatoid
arthritis
B. Psoriatic
arthritis
C. Ankylosing
spondylitis
D. Osteoarthritis
Ans. (A)
132. Crescent fracture true is:
A. Acetabulum
shift backwards
B. Rotational
instability found.
C. Fracture
of iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption
D. Dislocation
of pubic symphysis with fracture of both iliac bones
Ans. (C)
133. Stability of posterior glenohumeral joint
tested by:
A. Jerk’s
test.
B. Fulcrum
test
C. Crnak
test
D. Sulcus
test
Ans. (A)
134. Kocher Langenback procedure done in
A. Acetabular
fracture
B.
C.
D.
Ans. (A)
135. Emergency treatment of acetabular fracture done
in A/E:
A. Recurrent
dislocation despite Rx
B. Open
ace tubular #
C. Sciatic
n entrapment
Ans. ()
136. Osteosclerotic bone lesion is found most
commonly in which carcinoma?
A. Prostate
B. Kidney
C. Thyroid
D. Lung
Ans. (A)
Medicine
137. LV hypertrophy does not occurs in:
A. MS
B. AR
C. AS
D. MR
Ans. (A)
138. Most important cause of acute right heart
failure?
A. Tricuspid
stenosis
B. Pulmonary
stenosis
C. Massive
pulmonary embolism
D. Tricuspid
regurgitation
Ans. (C)
139. Bilateral medulary nephrocalcinosis seen in all
except:
A. Hyperoxaluria
B. Barter’s
C. Prolonged
use of Furosemide
D. ARPKD
Ans. (D)
140. Histiocytosis which is false:
A. Highly
radiosensitive
B. Disseminated
is letterer sine disease
C. Seen
in < 3 years old
D. Gonadal
involvement is common
Ans. (A)
141. A 55 years old diabetic lady without any
previous H/O headache presented with severe acute headache, nausea and on
examination found to have neck rigidity. Detailed history lead to finding a
past H/O photophobia. Most common can be:
A. Acute
viral encephalitis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Migrane
D. SAH
Ans. (D)
142. Right cerebral hemisphere damage seen is all
except:
A. Visuospatial
deficit
B. Anosognosia
C. Dyscalculia
D. Dysgsraphia
Ans. (D)
143. Which is not true about primary Sjogern’s
syndrome?
A. Xerostomia
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Lymphoma
D. Connective
tissue disorder/autoimmune disorder
Ans. (D)
144. Gene therapy has been successfully used in:
A. Cystic
fibrosis
B. Sickle
cell anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. SCID
Ans. (D)
145. CNS finding in HIV patient are all except:
A. Giant
cell surrounding vessels
B. Microglial
nodules
C. Inclusion
body
D. Posterior
column vaculopathy
Ans. (C)
146. Blood transfusion complications are all except:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Citrate
toxicity
C. Metabolic
acidosis
D. Leucocytosis
Ans. (D)
147. Which of the following is NOT a cause of
congenital hypercoagulability?
A. Protein
C deficiency
B. Protein
S deficiency
C. Antiphospholipid
antibody syndrome
D. MLCSTR
gene mutations
Ans. (C)
148. Following are true about Wilson’s disease
except:
A. Serum
ceruloplasmin <20 mg/ac
B. 24
hour urinary copper excretion <100 ug
C. Autosomal
recessive
D. Liver
biopsy with >200 ug/g dry weight is gold standard.
Ans. (B)
149. Treatment of a lady with sputum positive
pulmonary TB in early pregnancy:
A. Start
the treatment with Cat. I immediately
B. Treatment
to be delayed till second trimester
C. Category
II treatment in first trimester
D. Category
III treatment in first trimester
Ans. (A)
150. In prions disease all are true except:
A. They
are caused by infections proteins
B. Neurodegenerative
disease
C. Biopsy
of brain is specific
D. Myoclonus
present in 10% cases.
Ans. (D)
151. Tumrolysis syndrome not seen:
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Ans. (C)
152. Major Jone’s criteria for Rheumatic fever are
all except:
A. Carditis
B. Chorea
C. Arthritis
D. ESR
Ans. (D)
153. A patient with memory impairment, visuo spatial
deficits and paranoid delusions is found to have neurofibrillary tangles in the
brain. Other pathological findings associated will be:
A. Amyloid
plaque
B. Lewy
Bodies
C. X
synuclein
D. Negri
bodies
Ans. (A)
154. Most important in Coronary heart disease:
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Triglycerides
D. VDL
Ans. (A)
155. Romberg sign positive with eyes closed in seen
in lesions of:
A. Spinocerebellr
tract
B. Spinothalamic
tract
C. Propriocetion
D. Pontocerebellar
tract
Ans. (C)
156. A man developed swelling of face frequently
with occasional laryngeal edema, most probable diagnosis is:
A. C-l
esterase deficiency
B. Allergy
C. Anaphylaxsis
D. Non
recalled
Ans. (A)
157. Most common cause of acute RVF;
A. Massive
pulmonary embolism
B. Tricuspid
stenosis
C. Pulmonary
stenosis
D. Tricuspid
regurgitation
Ans. (A)
158. Drugs not used for the treatment of acute
hyperkalemia:
A. Insulin+glucose
B. Potassium
exchange resins
C. Calcium
gluconate
D. Sodium
bicarbonate
Ans. (B)
159. Blood borne infections are all except:
A. Hep
G
B. EBV
C. CMV
D. Parvovirus
B19
Ans. (B)
160. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis:
A. After
transplant in Alport’s
B. Microscopic
polyangitis
C. Henoch
Schonlein purpura
D. SLE
Ans. (B)
161. Hypersensitivity vasculitis involves:
A. Arterioles
B. Post
capillary venules
C. Capillaries
D. Medium
sized arteries
Ans. (B)
162. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?
A. I.V.
immunoglobulins
B. Steroids
C. Azathioprine
D. Methotrexate
Ans. (A)
163. All of the following are true about lupus
anticoagulant except:
A. Prolongation
of only aPTT
B. Recurrent
second trimester absorption
C. Recurrent
bleeding episodes
D. Can
be associated without any clinical symptoms
Ans. (B)
164. Serum fructosamine can be used in all, except:
A. Screening
of diabetes
B. Rapid
change in DM treatment
C. Short
term control OD DM
D. Screening
of DM in pregnancy
Ans. (A)
165. The nobel prize in physiology or medicine for
2007 jointly to Mario R. Capecchi, Martin J. Evans and Oliver Smithies for
their discoveries of:
A. Detection
of chemical/growth factors for preventing growth of tumors
B. Principles
for introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use embryonic stem
cells
C. Non
genetic method treating muscular dystrophies
D. Not
recalled
Ans. (B)
Physiology
166. VIII nerve receives afferents of:
A. Taste
B. Balance
C. Pain
D. Smell
Ans. (B)
167. During Ovulation phase:
A. Increase
in inhibin A level
B. FHS
induce steroid genesis in granulosa cells
C. Decrease
Activin A level
D. Reduction
division occurs at the time of ovulation
Ans. (D)
168. Diff b/w Rods & Cones are all except in:
A. Sensitivity
B. Number
C. Type
light
D. Transduction
Ans. (D)
169. Somatomedin at normal physiological
concentration combination do:
A. Lypogenesis
B. Glyconeogenesis
C. Glucose
taken up by cells
D. Deposition
of chondritin sulphate
Ans. (D)
170. Muscle spindle function:
A. Maintain
muscles length
B. Muscles
tension
C. Muscle
tone
D. Withdrawal
reflex
Ans. (A)
171. High affinity of fetal Hb with O2 due to:
A. Decreases
2, 3 DPG
B. Reduced
pH
C. Increase
releases of CO
D.
Ans. (A)
172. Development of fibers of cortex is:
A. Tangential
B. Vertical
C. Irregular
D. Horizontal
Ans. (B)
173. Central processing at auditory pathway is for
A. Speech
discrimination
B. Frequency
discrimination
C. Intensity
discrimination
D. Sound
Localization
Ans. (D)
174. Estrogens action on carbohydrate metabolism
A. Increase
uptake of glucose through
B. Glycolysis
increase
C. Increasing
central adipose deposition
D. Decrease
fasting insulin level
Ans. (D)
Skin
175. Granular deposits of IgA in intradermal space:
A. Bullous
pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus
vulgaris
C. Dermatitis
herpetiformis
D. Lichen
planus
Ans. (C)
176. IgG intercellular deposits are seen in:
A. Bullous
pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus
vulgaris
C. Dermatitis
herpetiformis
D. Lichen
planus
Ans. (B)
177. IgA deposits on skin biopsy:
A. Henoch
Schouleiln puspura
B. Giant
cell arteritis
C. Microscopic
plyangitis
D. Wegener’s
granulomatosis
Ans. (A)
178. Neurofibromatosis all are true except:
A. Autosomal
recessive
B. Scoliosis
C. Neurofibroma
D. Association
with cataract
Ans. (A)
