1. Most common
aberration in renal vessel development
A. Supernumerary
arteries B. Supernumerary renal vein
C. Double renal vein D. Double renal artery
Ans. A
2. In post ductal
coarctation of aorta, collaterals are formed by all except
A. Vertebral artery B. Suprascapular artery
C. Posterior
intercostal artery D. Internal thoracic artery
Ans. A
3. Which structure
passes through foramen magnum?
A. Vertebral artery B. Internal carotid artery
C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Sympathetic chain
Ans. A
4. Composite muscle
include the following except:
A. Pectineus B. Flexor carpi ulnaris
C. Flexor digitorum
superficialis D. Biceps femoris
Ans. B
5. Median nerve lesion
cause paralysis of all of the following except:
A. Thenar muscles B. Adductor pollicis
C. Lumbrical indx
finger D. Lumbrical middle finger
Ans. B
6. Relation of celiac
plexus
A. Anterolateral to
aorta B. Posteromedial to aorta
C. Anteromedial to
lumbar sympathetic chain D. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Ans. A
7. Left sided SVC drains
into
A. Right atrium B. Left atrium
C. Coronary sinus D. Pericardial space
Ans. C
8. Shoulder abduction
all happens except:
A. Humerus elevation B. Clavicle rotation
C. Medial rotation
of scapula D. Acromiclavicular joint movement
Ans. C
9. Hypogastric sheath is
a condensation of
A. Scarpa’s fasica B. Colles’ fascia
C. Pelvic fascia D. Lumbar fascia
Ans. C
10. Gluteus medius is
supplied by the nerve
A. Superior gluteal B. Inferior gluteal
C. Femoral D. Sciatic
Ans. A
11. Urogenital diaphragm
formed by all except:
A. Colles’ fascia B. Deep transverse perinei
C. Perineal membrane D. Sphincter urethrae
Ans. A
12. Which tendon passes
below sustentacula tali?
A. Tibialis anterior B. Tibialis posterior
C. Flexor hallucis
longus D. Flexor digitorum longus
Ans. C
13. Lymph drainage of
spongiform urethra is into the lymph nodes
A. Deep inguinal B. Superficial inguinal
C. Internal iliac D. External iliac
Ans. A
Physiology
1. All changes occur in
joints due to aging except:
A. Water level
decreases B. Proteoglycan production decrease
C. Proteoglycan
degradation increase D. Keratin sulphate level decrease
Ans. D
2. Nonrespiratory
function of lung
A. Exchange of
anions B. Sodium exchange
C. Potassium
exchange D. Calcium exchange
Ans. B
3. BMR is closely
dependent on
A. BSA B. Lean body mass
C. BMI D. Height
Ans. B
4. BMR is low in
A. Hyperthyroid B. Obesity
C. Feeding D. Exercise
Ans. B
5. Maximum absorption of
water occurs in
A. Stomach B. Ileum
C. Colon D. Jejunum
Ans. D
6. During exercise the
cardiac output rises upto 5 times, but pulmonary vascular resistance only few
mm Hg. Why?
A. Sympathetic
stimulation causing vasodilatation
B. Opening of
parallel channels
C. Pulmonary
vasoconstriction
D. J receptors
Ans. B
7. Hot water bag use in
intestine colic works by inhibiting
A. Adrenergic
receptors
B. Cholinergic
receptors
C. Cold receptor in
skin
D. Due to increaed
temperature of peritoneal membranes
Ans. A
8. Which of the
following decreases insulin release?
A. Gastrin B. Epinephrine
C. Secretin D. Growth hormone
Ans. B
9. Nitric oxide in GIT
acts primarily by
A. Smooth muscle
relaxant B. Secretomotor
C. Vasodilator D. Vasoconstrictor
Ans. A
10. In standing position
venous return affected by a/e
A. Arterial pressure B. Deep fascia
C. Calf muscles D. Competent valves of perforator
Ans. A
Biochemistry
1. Vitamin K dependent
clotting tactor
A. Factors V and
VIII B. Factors XI and XIII
C. Factors IX and X D. Factors III + XI
Ans. C
2. Deficiency of
sphingomyelinase occurs in
A. Niemann-Pick B. Gaucher’s
C. Fabrey’s D. GM1 gangliosides
Ans. A
3. Defective metabolism
of branched keto acids seen in
A. Maple syrup urine
disease B. Phenylketonuria
C. Orotic aciduria D. Lactic acidosis
Ans. A
4. Rothera test used for
A. Ketone bodies B. Urine sugars
C. Bence Jones
proteins D. Ethers in urine
Ans. A
5. Chromosomal
aneuploidy is least likely to be diagnosed by
A. FISH B. Microarray genomic hybridization
C. RT-PCR D. None of the above
Ans. D
6. Which of these is a
mitochondrial enzyme?
A. SGPT B. SGOT
C. GGT D. ALP
Ans. B
7. Which technique is
used for detecting genetic transfer of disease?
A. Northern blot B. Southern blot
C. Western blot D. Microarray
Ans. D
8. Hemophilia is
diagnosed by
A. Microarray B. Cytogenetics
C. Linkage analysis D. RT PCR
Ans. D
9. Process in which
exchange of ions in solution form with that on to surface form occurs in
A. Ion exchange B. Paper chromatography
C. SDPG D. Anionic chromatography
Ans. A
10. In electrophoresis
which lipoprotein will least migrate?
A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL
C. LDL D. HDL
Ans. A
11. A patient present with
Hypoglycemia and Hepatomegaly. Hypoglycemia does not respond to epinephrine.
Most likely diagnosis
A. von Gierke’s B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Anderson’s
disease D. Pompe’s disease
Ans. A
Microbiology
1. Varicella virus
remains latent in:
A. T-cell B. B-cell
C. Microglia D. Trigeminal ganglion
Ans. D
2. A case of neonatal
meningitis. Bacteria isolated was beta hemolytic GPC, with bacitracin
resistance and CAMP positive.
A. S. agalactiae B. Pneumococcus
C. S. pyogenes D. S. aureus
Ans. A
3. Fungal stain
A. Alizarin B. PAS
C. Mass trichoma D. Mucicarmine
Ans. B
4. Chlamydia are
isolated/identified by –
A. Enzyme
immunoassay B. Yolk sac inoculation
C. Direct
immunoflurescence D. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)
Ans. D
5. A fungus having
septate hyphae AR 45°
A. Aspergillus B. Mucor
C. Rhizopus
Ans. A
6. Common cause of
meningoencephalitis is:
A. Herpes B. Arbovirus
C. Enterovirus
Ans. A
7. A lady comes with
orbital cellulites, pus shows branching septate hyphae.
A. Aspergilus B. Mucor
C. Conidiobolus
Ans. A
8. Organism causing
billiary duct obstruction?
A. Clonorchis
sinesis B. Ankyostoma duodenale
C. Stronglycoides
stercolaris D. Enterobius vermicularis
Ans. A
9. About Vibrio EIT or
all are true except:
A. Humans are the
only reservoir B. Survives boiling for 30s
C. Enterotoxin act
on extraintestinal tissues also D. Survive on ice for 4-6 weeks
Ans. C
10. A person who has been
wearing contact lenses for 1-2 months comes with H/O irritation in left eye.
Diagnosis-keratitis. Corneal scrapings revealed presence of Pseudomonas
aeruginosa which was multidrug resistant. How did it attain that level of
resistance?
A. By horizontal
transfer of genes from commensal bacteria of eye
B. Improper contact
lens hygiene
C. Frequent and
prior use of topical antibiotics/steroid preparation
D. Biofilm
production
Ans. D
Pharmacology
1. All of the following
are true about thalidomide except:
A. Used in pregnancy
as sedative but withdrawn due to teratogenicity
B. Can be used in MM
as primary as well as in refreactory MM
C. Causes euphoria
D. Used in ENL
Ans. C
2. Amphotericin B
toxicity can be lowered by?
A. Toxicity
decreased by incorporating it is liposomal complex
B. Reducing the dose
C. Combining with
flucytosine
D. Injecting the
drug with saline pre-loading
Ans. A
3. All of the following
are true about opioids except:
A. Naloxone is short
acting
B. Naltrexone used
to lower craving in alcoholics
C. Nalmefene can
also be used in alcohol dependence
D. Naloxone is more
potent than naltrexone
Ans. D
4. Alpha-methyldopa is
used most commonly in?
A. Pregnancy induce
hypertension B. Renovascular hypertension
C. First line agent
in hypertension D. Refractory hypertension
Ans. A
5. What is HER2 and EGF
receptor antagonist?
A. Geftinib B. Imatinib
C. Erlotinib D. Lepatinib
Ans. D
6. Anticoagulant of
choice in heparin induced thrombocytompenia?
A. Lepirudin B. Aprotinin
C. Abciximab D. Argatroban
Ans. D
7. Allopurinol used in
all except:
A. Gout B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Urate nephropathy
Ans. C
8. True about phenytoin
is all except:
A. Saturation
kinetics
B. Antiseizure
activity closely resembles blood concentration
C. Does not depres
CNS
D. Cerebellar
atrophy occurs on long-term administration
Ans. C
9. Regarding PBPs which
is wrong?
A. Present on cell
surface B. Mutation gives rise to resistance
C. Target site of
vancomycin D. Target of imipenem
Ans. C
10. Fetal-hydantoin
syndrome is seen in case of
A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide D. Phenobarbitone
Ans. A
11. Which of the following
is false about mycophenolate mofetil
A. It’s a pro drug B. It causes nephrotoxicity
C. Gastrointestinal
toxicity is common D. The drug is used in refractory patients
Ans. B
12. A young male come with
penicillin allergy and meningitis treatment?
A. Clindamycin B. Chloramphenicol
C. Erythromycin D. Vancomycin
Ans. B
13. All cause hirsutism
except:
A. Phenytoin B. Flutamide
C. Norethisterone D. Danazol
Ans. B
14. Theophylline is used
in asthma due to
A. Simulates
mucociliary movements B. PDE-4 inhibitor
C. Beta-2 agonist D. All of the above
Ans. D
15. Serotonin syndrome
caused by all except:
A. Chlorpromazine B. Phenelzine
C. Imipramine D. Fluxetine
Ans. A
16. Which of the following
drug can be used with MAO inhibitors?
A. TCA B. SSRIs
C. Carbamazepine D. Tyramine containing food
Ans. C
17. PPI with enzyme
inhibiting activity
A. Omeprazole B. Rabeprazole
C. Esomeprazole D. Pantoprazole
Ans. A
18. Which is not used for
prophylaxis of migraine
A. Sumatriptan B. Valproate
C. Propranolol D. Topiramate
Ans. A
19. An antiemetic drug
that also decreases acid secretion due to its action on H1 receptors
A. Promethazine B. Domperidone
C. Metoclopramide D. Ondansetron
Ans. A
20. Tyrosine kinse
inhibitors are most commonly used in?
A. GIST B. Receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors
C. Breast cancer D. RCC
Ans. A
21. Which of the following
drug is wrong about proton pump inhibitors
A. Pro-drugs B. Short acting
C. Long acting D. High first pass metabolism
Ans. B
22. Lithium given in
pregnancy results in
A. Cardiac
malformation B. Cranial deformity
C. Limb abnormality D. Cleft palate and lips
Ans. A
23. Which is incorrectly
matched
A. Phenytoin - cleft
lip and palate B. Zidovudine - cardiomyopathy
C. Valproate -
neural tube defect D. ACE I - hyperkalemia
Ans. B
24. Pancreatitis occur
with
A. Didanosine B. Lamivudine
C. Zidovudine D. Abacavir
Ans. A
25. Most effective drug
for myoclonic seizures
A. Sodium valproate B. Zonisamide
C. Carbamazepine D. Ethosuximide
Ans. A
26. A 17-year girl had
been taking a drug for last 2 years; this has lead to pigmentation. Which drug
could it be?
A. Doxycycline B. Minocycline
C. Azithromycin D. Chlorpromazine
Ans. B
27. With rivastigmine
which medicine will decrease its efficacy
A. SSRI B. RIMA
C. TCA D. Atypical antidepressant
Ans. C
Pathology
1. Inheritance which
affects males more commonly
A. AD B. AR
C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive
Ans. D
2. Caspase’s are
involved in
A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis
C. Inflammation D. Carcinogenesis
Ans. A
3. Which of the following
is characteristic of apoptosis.
A. Cell swelling B. Normal plasma membrane
C. Nuclear moulding D. Cytoplasmic chromophilia
Ans. D
4. Down syndrome is
associated most commonly with
A. Maternal
nondisjunction B. Paternal nondisjunction
C. Translocation
21-21
Ans. A
5. True about carcinoma
bronchus is
A. 75% are SCC B. OAT cell are known to cavitate
C. OAT call ca shows
perihilar LN
Ans. C
6. Vegetations that
easily dislodge are seen in
A. Infective
endocarditis B. Rheumatoid heart
C. Rheumatic carditis D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
Ans. A
7. A patient with HbsAg
+, HbeAg –, DNA copies 1000/ml, normal AST n ALT
A. Inactive carrier B. Cirrhosis
C. Chronic hepatitis D. Surface mutant
Ans. A
8. A patient with HBsAg
+, HBeAg –, AST n ALT elevated 5 times than normal
A. Surface mutant B. Pre core mutant
Ans. B
9. Electron microscopy
is best used to diagnose
A. Alport B. Good pastures
Ans. A
10. Burkitt Lymphoma
Associated with
A. t(8;14) B. t(11;14)
C. t(15;17) D. t(14;18)
Ans. A
11. Bradykinin
A. Pain B. Vasodilation
C. Vasoconstriction D. Increased permeability
Ans. A, B
12. In a patient with non
mismatched blood transfusion reaction what should be the test done:
A. Direct coombs B. Indirect coombs
C. Antibodies in
donor serum D. Antibodies in recipient serum
Ans. A
13. Cell marker for
Langerhans cell is
A. CD-1 B. CD-3
C. CD-35
Ans. A
14. Antigen binding site
in MHC1
A. Alpha beta cleft B. Distal end of alpha subunit
C. Prox end of alpha
subunit 1 and 2
Ans. C
15. Rise in AFP is seen in
all except:
A. Pure choriocarcinoma B. Yolk sac tumor
C. Hepatoma D. Pure embryonal carcinoma
Ans. A
16. All the following play
a part in development of atherosclerosis and coronary heart disease except:
A. Insulin
deficiency B. Hypothyroidism
C. Glucose
intolerance D. Hyperestrogenemia
Ans. D
17. Which of the following
can be seen in carcinoid syndrome
A. Calcification of
the ring of tricuspid
B. Intimal
thickening
C. Fibrosis of
tricuspid valve
D. Causes increased
vascularization of tricuspid and pulmonary valves
Ans. C
18. What is the cause
hyper-coagulative state in nephrotic syndrome
A. Loss of Anti
Thrombin III B. Decrease in fibrinogen
C. Abnormal
metabolism of Vit K D. Increase in Protein C
Ans. A
Forensic Medicine
1. Primary impact
injuries are located on
A. Chest B. Abdomen
C. Legs D. Head
Ans. C
2. A married woman died
in unnatural condition in home within 5 years of marriage. Her parents
complained of frequent demand of dowry. Her autopsy will be conducted under
which section?
A. 176 CrPC B. 304 B IPC
C. 304 A IPC D. 174 CrPC
Ans. A
3. Which of the
following is commonly used in narcoanalysis?
A. Atropine sulphate B. Scopolamine hydrobromide
C. Opium compounds D. Thiopentone
Ans. B
4. Aconite poisoning
A. Excessive
salivation B. Erythematous rash
C. Hypotension D. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
Ans. C
5. Which of the
following leaves a visible mark in the pathway so that the person can see it?
A. Tandem bullet B. Tracer bullet
C. Dum Dum bullet D. Incendiary bullet
Ans. B
6. Injury due to
lightening can be due to all except
A. Direct injury due
to current B. Burns due to super headed light
C. Expanded air
after flash D. Compressed air before the flash
Ans. D
PSM
1. Mass chemoprophylaxis
is used in all except
A. Yaws B. Filariasis
C. Leprosy D. Trachoma
Ans. C
2. Which of the following
requires motivational encouragement and emotional stimulus?
A. Attitude B. Cultural belief
C. Knowledge D. Practice
Ans. D
3. Which does not
indicate poor nutrition?
A. LBW B. Infection
C. Hb<11 gm D. Malnutrition
Ans. A
4. Which of the
following is not true about Red Cross sign?
A. First approved in
Geneva
B. Can be used by
UNO officials
C. Using Red Cross
sign by others is a criminal offense
D. Is being
conventionally used by doctors all over the world
Ans. B
5. Z score is done for
which type of distribution?
A. Normal B. Binominal
C. t D. Chi square
Ans. A
6. ASHA is posted at
the:
A. Village level B. Community health center
C. PHC D. Subcenter
Ans. A
7. All are true about
scrub typhus except:
A. Mite is a vector B. Adult mite feeds on vertebral host
C. Caused by
tsutsugamushi D. Tetracycline is treatment
Ans. B
8. Movement in
socio-economic level?
A. Social equality B. Social mobility
C. Socioeconomic
upliftment D. Social mobilization
Ans. B
9. Rural and Urban
Population differ in incidence in all Ds except
A. Bronchitis B. TB
C. Lung cancer D. Mental Illness
Ans. B
10. Which of the following
is false about annual risk of TB?
A. ARI of 1 percent
= 75 new cases
B. Current ARI in
India is 1.7%
C. It repressents
new cases of TB
D. It is assessed by
tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children
Ans. A
11. Which of the following
is a new concept in PHC?
A. Equitable
distribution B. Community participation
C. Qualitative
enquiry D. Primary health care
Ans. C
12. India aims to
eradicate .............. by 2015
A. Malaria B. TB
C. Filariasis D. HIV
Ans. C
13. In acuteflaccid
paralysis examination for residual palsy should be done after
A. 30 days B. 60 days
C. 90 days D. 20 days
Ans. B
14. All are synthetic
pyrenthroid compound except:
A. DDT B. Permenthrin
C. Feromethrin D. Cyspermethrin
Ans. A
15. Best advocacy for PHC
is done by:
A. Alma Ata
declaration B. Bhore Committee
C. National Health
Policy D. Shrivastava Committee
Ans. A
16. Is eogexpansion of
JSY?
A. Janani Suraksha
Yojana B. Janani Samridhi Yojana
C. Janani Swarojgar
Yojana
Ans. A
17. Perinatal mortality
rate includes
A. Death within
first week
B. Abortions
stillbirth........... death in first week
C. Death from 28
week to within the 1st week oflife
D. Within 1 month
Ans. C
18. Population of village
on 1st June 2007 is 16,5000, since Jan 1st 2007, 22 new cases of TB were
detected, Total registered cases were 220 what is the INCIDENCE of TB?
A. 133 per 10,00,000 B. 121 per 10,00,000
C. 111 per 10,00,000 D. 100 per 10,00,000
Ans. A
19. Which is not a element
of primary health care?
A. Cost
effectiveness B. Immunization against major infectious
diseases
C. Health education D. Provision of essential drugs
Ans. A
20. IMNCI differs from
IMCI in all except:
A. Malaria and
anemia are included
B. 0-7 days infants
are included
C. Sick neonates are
preferred over sick older child
D. Treatment is
AIMED at more than one disease (condition) at a time
Ans. C
Ent
1. Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma true are all except:
A. Bimodal age
distribution B. EBV
C. Nasopharyngectomy
treatment of choice
Ans. C
2. Acoustic neuroma
arises from:
A. Superior
vestibular n. B. Inferior vest n.
C. Abducent n. D. Facial n.
Ans. A
3. Otoacoustic emissions
are derived from:
A. Outer hair cells B. Basilar membrane
C. Oral window D. Tympanic membrane
Ans. A
4. All of the following
abt CSF rhinorrhea is true except:
A. MC site fovea
ethmoidalis B. B2 lactoferrin specific
C. Investigation of
choice is MRI
Ans. A
5. Laser used in ENT
A. CO2 B. Argon
C. Krypton D. Nd: YAG
Ans. All
6. True about Na
flouride treatment in otosclerosis is all except:
A. Lowers
osteoblastic activity B. Useful only if pinkish TM seen
C. Inhibits enzyme
action in cochlea
Ans. A
7. Drug used in tracheal
stenosis:
A. Mitomycin C B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Busulphan D. Bleomycin
Ans. A
8. All of the following
are extra laryngeal membranes except:
A. Cricotracheal B. Hyoepiglottis
C. Cricothyroid
Ans. B
EYE
1. Retinoblastoma is
most commonly associated with
A. Osteosarcoma B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Pinealoblastoma D. None of the above
Ans. C
2. Afferent pupillary
defect is seen in
A. Optic nerve
lesion B. Occipital lobe
C. Optic tract D. All of the above
Ans. A
3. Causes of cherry red
spot in macula are A/E
A. Niemann-Pick B. GM1Ganglioside
C. Tay Sachs D. Gaucher’s
Ans. D
4. 2-month-old female
comes with H/O bilateral nasal discharge, fever 103-104°F, conjunctival
discharge, left periorbital congestion and edema X-ray shows left ethmoidal
sinus opacity and something conjunctival discharge culture yields no result
next best test?
A. Blood culture B. Urine culture
C. CT Scan D. Repeat culture for conj discharge
Ans. C
5. Arden ratio:
A. EOG B. ERG
C. VER D. Perimetry
Ans. A
6. Least common
endothelial dystrophy?
A. Lattice type 1 B. Lattice type 2
C. Macular D. Granular
Ans. C
7. NPCB strategy for
screening of diabetic retinopathy.
A. Opportunistic
screening B. High risk screening
C. Eye examinating
by diabetologist D. Mass screening
Ans. B
8. Endophthalmitis
include all except:
A. Vitreous B. Sclera
C. Uvea D. Retina
Ans. B
9. Patient with non
retractable ptosis gets corrected due to actions like minking, chewing:
A. Abducent nerve
palsy B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Marcus Gunn jaw
winking syndrome
Ans. C
10. Corneal
transplantation
A. Donot > 60
years not allowed
B. Whole eye preserved
in culture
C. Specular
microscopy done for corneal endothelial count
D. HLA matching
required
Ans. C
11. A person who has been
wearing contact lenses for 1-2 months comes with H/O irritation in left eye.
Diagnosis – keratitis. Corneal scrapings revealed presence of Pseudomonas
aeruginosa which was multidrug resistant. How did it attain that level of
resistance?
A. By transfer of
genes from commensal bacteria of eye
B. Improper contact
lens hygiene
C. Frequent and
prior use of topical antibiotics/steroid preparation
D. Ability of
pseudomonas to produce Bio Film resistant to antibodies
Ans. D
12. Patient with non
retractable ptosis gets corrected due to actions like winking, chewing
A. Abducent nerve
palsy B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Marcus Gunn
jaw-winking syndrome D. Redirection of 3rd nerve
Ans. C
Medicine
1. A girl comes with
recent change in bowel habit with mucus in stool, no blood. Increase with
menstruation and stress
A. IBS B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Giardiasis D. Amebiasis
Ans. A
2. True about GBS are all
except
A. Sensory level B. Ascending paralysis
C. AC disassociation D. Flaccidity
Ans. A
3. False about
pseudohypoparathyroidism
A. Low PTH B. End organ resistance
C. Low calcium high
phosphate
Ans. A
4. A female patient
comes with no symptoms, having mid systolic murmur. Valves are likely to show?
A. Myxomatous
degeneration B. Aschoff bodies
C. Calcific
degeneration D. Ruptured chordae tendinae
Ans. A
5. Plasmapheresis used
in all except
A. Myasthenia crisis B. Polymyositis
C. AIDP D. Cholinergic crisis
Ans. D
6. Which of the
following is an essential criteria for diagnosis of polycythemia vera?
A. Presence of jac
stat mutation B. Erythrocytosis
C. Low
erythropoietin levels D. High LAP score
Ans. A
7. KF ring seen in
A. Pterygium B. Hemochromatosis
C. Wilson’s disease D. Menkes’ Kinked hair syndrome
Ans. C
8. Bence Jones protein
mostly derived from which chains
A. ALFA B. Gamma
C. MEU D. Delta
Ans. B
9. Truck driver 2 weeks
fever, dry cough CXR - b/l interstitial infiltrates
A. Mycoplasma
pneumonia B. Pneumocystis carinii
C. TB D. CMV
Ans. B
10. Boy with weakness in
lower limbs, calf hypertrophy, positive Gower’s sign, CPK - 10,000. Diagnosis
A. Duchenne muscular
dystrophy B. Spinal muscular atrophy
C. Myotonia
congenita D. Myotonic dystrophy
Ans. A
11. Beck’s triad seen in?
A. Constrictive
pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade
C. LVMI D. HOCM
Ans. B
12. Motor neuron disease
site of lesion....
A. Spinocerebellar B. Anterior horn cell
C. Spinothalamic
tract D. Filum terminale
Ans. B
13. MC cause of ABD aortic
aneurysm:
A. Atherosclerosis B. FMD
C. Trauma D. Syphilis
Ans. A
14. A patient with atrial
fibrillation recovered from weakness of upper limb in 4 weeks what can be the
cause
A. TIA B. Ischemic stroke
C. Hemorrhagic
stroke D. Vasculitis
Ans. B
15. A patient has gait
difficulty, urinary incontinence, ataxia:
A. Normal pressure
hydrocephalus B. Diabetes
C. Alzheimer’s
disease D. Paracentral lobule lesion
Ans. A
16. APLA is associated
with all except”
A. Bleeding
disorders B. Coagulating disorders
C. Recurrent abortions D. Thrombosis
Ans. A
17. Unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all except:
A. Biliary
obstruction B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Crigler-Najjar D. Gilbert’s syndrome
Ans. A
18. Regarding Fanconi
anemia wrong statement is:
A. Autosome dominant B. Bone marrow show atrophy
C. Usually
normocytic/macrocytic anemia
Ans. A
19. A 25-year-old person
comes with focal seizures, MRI shows frontal and temporal enhancement. What is
the most probable diagnosis:
A. Meningococcal
meningitis B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
C. Japanese
encephalitis
Ans. B
20. Cavitatory lesion in
lung are seen in:
A. Primary pulmonary
TB B. Staph. aureus
C. Pneumoconiosis D. Interstitial lung disease
Ans. B
21. All are used in
migraine prophylactic treatment except:
A. Valproate B. Propanol
C. Topiramate D. Ethosuximide
Ans. D
22. Boy with seizures. BP
- 200/140 femoral pulse not palpable. Most likely diagnosis:
A. Takayasu’s
aortoarteritis B. Renal parenchymal disease
C. Grand mal seizure
Ans. D
23. Pathogenesis of all of
the following is granulomatous except:
A. Wegener’s
granulomatosis B. Buerger’s disease
C. Takayasu’s
arteritis D. Giant cell arteritis
Ans. B
24. Low CSF protein is
seen in all except:
A. Infant B. Recurrent lumbar puncture
C. Hypothyroidism D. Pseudotumor cerebri
Ans. C
25. A patient with PCO2 30, pO2, 102, pH 7.5, HCO3 is 16 meq/l, which type of compensation is
this:
A. Respiratory
alkalosis B. Met alkalosis
C. Respiratory
acidosis D. Met acidosis
Ans. A
26. A 29-year-old
unmarriage lady with complain of progressive dyspnea for last 6 months. FVC is
90%, Fev1, FVC ratio is 86 to 92%. On exercise her oxygen saturation
drops from 92% to 86%. What is the diagnosis (Repeat Questions AIIMS Nov. 2008)
A. Anxiety disorder B. Primary pulmonary hypertension
C. Primary alveolar
hypoventilation D. Interstitial lung disease
Ans. B
27. Gout is a disorder
of..
A. Purine metabolism B. Pyrimidine metabolism
C. Ketone metabolism D. Protein metabolism
Ans. A
28. t 2-8 is associated
with:
A. CML B. AML
C. T-cell ALL D. Burkitt’s lymphoma
Ans. D
29. Treatment for woman
k/c/o APLA with previous history of stillbirths and abortions?
A. Aspirin only B. Aspirin + low mol. heparin
C. Aspirin + low
mol. Heparin + prednisolone D. No treatment
Ans. C
30. A patient comes with
hypoglycemia. Insulin high. C-peptide normal.
A. Insulinoma B. Sulfonylurea excess
C. Accidental
insulin D. Metformin excess
Ans. C
31. About primary gouty
arthritis NOT true (?)
A. 90% cases are
mostly due to overproduction of uric acid than under excretion
B. Uric acid level
may be normal is case of a patient with an acute attack of gouty arthritis
C. Male > female
D. Synovial fluid
aspiration is the most confirmatory test
Ans. A
32. Plasmacytoid lymphoma
is associated with:
A. IgG B. M
C. A D. E
Ans. B
33. True about S3:
A. Constrictive
pericarditis B. During rapid filling during ventricular
diastole
C. Low intensity in
aortic stenosis D. Occur in ASD
Ans. B
34. True about trientine
is all except:
A. Anemia caused by
it can be treated with short term iron
B. Should be
separated from iron for at least 2 hrs
C. More potent than
penicillamine
D. Used in Wilson’s
who cannot tolerate penicillamine
Ans. A
35. Which one not
associated with thymoma:
A. SIADH B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans. A
36. High idioventricular
rhythm is seen in:
A. Reperfusion
therapy B. AV Nodal Ds
C. Dilated
cardiomyopathy D. Digitalis toxicity
Ans. D
37. PNH is associated with
A. DAF B. MIRL
C. GPI D. All of the above
Ans. D
38. A young girl with
history of fatiguability and weakness. Hb was 6.5, MCV 70, MCh 22. RDW 28.
Diagnosis is:
A. Iron deficiency
anemia B. Thalassemia minor
C. Thalassemia major D. Sickle cell trait
Ans. A
Surgery
1. Bismuth-Strasburg
classification of cystic duct stump blow out.
A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3 D. Grade 4
Ans. A
2. Chromophobe variant
of RCC is associated with
A. Trisomy 7 and
trisomy 17 B. Loss of chromosome
C. Gain of 5 D. VHL gene mutation
Ans. B
3. Stone hard to break
in ESWL
A. Ca oxalate
monohydrate B. Ca oxalate dehydrate
C. Struvite D. Cysteine stone
Ans. D
4. PCNL was done b/l at
the site of 11th RIB. Most common complication in this case would be
A. Hydrothorax B. Hematuria
C. Remanants D. Damage to colon
Ans. A
5. A patient presenting
to ER after 6 hrs of RTA hemodynamically stable. FAST POSITIVE, CECT shows leak
of contrast from spleen and 3 cm lacreration in spleen. What is treatment?
A. Splenectomy B. Splenorrhaphy
C. Splenic artery
embolization D. Non operative
Ans. B
6. MC cyst in spleen
A. Dermoid B. Pseudocyst
C. Congenital cyst D. Hydatid cyst
Ans. B
7. Which is the best way
to get bile drainage in donor liver?
A. Donor bile duct
with recipient bile duct B. Donor bile duct with duodenum of recipient
C. Donot bile duct
with jejunum of recipient D. External drainage
Ans. A
8. Scale used
specifically for subarachnoid hemorrhage
A. GCO B. GCS
C. Hess and Hunt
scale D. M_____________ scale
Ans. C
9. Most common site of
urethral ca in males
A. Bulbar B. Penile
C. Prostatic D. Membranous urethra
Ans. D
10. TRISS takes into account
which of the following?
A. GCS, RR, Systolic
BP B. RS, ICS, IRS
C. RS, ICS, Age
Ans. C
11. Unilateral undescended
testis time of surgery
A. 12 months B. 24 months
C. 6 months D. Just after birth
Ans. C
12. Which of the following
is not a Restrictive surgery for obesity
A. Gastric banding B. Duodenal switch
C. Roux-en-y-gastrojejunostomy D. Vertical band gastroplasty
Ans. C
13. Annular pancreas,
treatment of choice
A. D-D stomy B. D-J stomy
Ans. A
14. Female with recurrent
hypoglycemia, glucose invariably touches 20 mg%, insulin remains elevated. A
lesion is found in pancreas of 8 mm. What should be the treatment.
A. Whipple’s
procedure B. Streptozocin before any treatment
C. Enucleation D. Enucleation + antrectomy done
Ans. C
15. True about CARCINOID
are A/E:
A. 75% occur in
ileum and appendix B. Rectum rarely involved
C. 5 yr survical is
> 60% D. Females aremore affected
Ans. D
16. A Child presented with
a long history of rectal prolapse of around 6 cm, which was reducible. The
treatment of choice is
A. Anterior
resection B. Rectopexy
C. Delorme’s
procedure D. Goodsall operation
E. None
Ans. E
17. Biliary obstruction is
seen with
A. Clonorchis
sinensis B. Ascaris
C. Hookworm D. Stronglyoides
Ans. A
18. A patient presented
with ITP and a platelet count of 50,000. Splenectomy was planned. What is the
best time for the anesthetist to give platelets to this patient?
A. A day before the
surgery B. At the time of incision
C. Just after
ligating the splenic artery D. After removal of the spleen
Ans. C
19. Which of the following
is a penile shunt?
A. Gray hack shunt
Ans. A
20. Kid with pain in left
flank, right kidney hydronephrosis. 10 mm cortical thickness, function 19% next
line of Rx would be:
A. Nephrectomy B. Pyeloplasty
C. Nephrostomy D. Shunt operation
Ans. B
21. A woman present with
non-progressive dysphagia for solids. Barium shows dilated esophagus with
narrowing of lower part of esophagus. Diagnosis?
A. Peptic stricture B. Lower esophageal ring
C. Aclasia cardia D. Esophageal cancer
Ans. B
22. A patient 50 years age
comes with weakness for 5-6 months, with anemia, occult blood in stool present.
What is the best initial investigation for him:
A. Colonoscopy B. CT with contrast
C. MRI D. Barium studies
Ans. A
23. Lord plication is done
for:
A. Hydrocele B. Hernia
C. Testicular cancer D. Varices
Ans. A
24. Pt with head injury,
damage to brain is aggravated by:
A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypothermia
C. Hypocapnia D. Decrease osmolarity
Ans. A
OBS & GYNE
1. Intrahepatic
cholestasis treatment in pregnancy.....
A. Cholestyramine B. Ursodiol
C. Steroids D. Antihistaminics
Ans. B
2. Most useful
investigation for VVF is
A. Three swab test B. Cystoscopy
C. Urine culture D. IVP
Ans. B
3. Sentinel biopsy most
effective in..?
A. Cervix cancer B. Endometrium ca
C. Vulval ca D. Vaginal ca
Ans. C
4. False about partial
mole
A. Caused by
triploidy B. Can be diagnosed very early by USG
C. Can present as
missed abortion D. Rarely causes eristent GTD
Ans. D
5. Pregnancy C/l in all
except:
A. WPW syndrome B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Marfan’s with
aortic root involvement D. Aortic coarctation with valvular involvement
Ans. A
6. A female presents
with leaking and meconium liquor at 32 weeks
A. CMV B. Listeria
C. Toxoplasma D. Herpes
Ans. B
7. Mc agent for cervical
carcinoma.....
A. HPV 16 B. HPV 18
C. HPV 33 D. HPV 35
Ans. A
8. Recurrence of
gestational trophoblastic tumor can be ass with all except?
A. Enlarged uterus B. Persistence leutin cyst in ovaries
C. Plateau of HCG D. Sub urethral nodule
Ans. C
9. All can be used to
lower mother to child HIV spread except:
A. Elective CS B. Omitting ergometrine
C. ART D. Intrapartum nevirapine
Ans. B
10. A patient had a
spontaneous abortion, then she came with amernorrhea and FSH 6 miU/ml what the
most probably diagnosis?
A. Ovarian failure B. Synechia
C. Pregnancy D. Pituitary
Ans. B
11. A 40-year-old woman
presenting with CIN III on pap smear treatment of choice?
A. Hysterectomy B. Colposcopy with leep
C. Trachelectomy D. Conization
Ans. A
12. Chlamydia in
pregnancy...treatment
A. Doxycycline B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin D. Penicillin
Ans. C
13. All are used in
shoulder dystocia except:
A. McRobert’s B. Suprapubic pressure
C. Woods procedure D. Mauriceau-smellie-viet method
Ans. D
14. Correct statement
about establishing the chorionicity in twin pregnancy is:
A. Same sex rule out
dichorionicity B. Twin pick sign in dichorionicity
C. Thick membrane is
present in monochorionic D. Best detected after 16 weeks
Ans. B
15. A girl has primary
amenorrhea with normal ovaries, absent internal genitalia but normal external
genitalia. Most probable diagnosis?
A. Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser
syndrome B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Noonan’s D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Ans. A
16. Hypergonadotropic
hypogonadism in males – Most common cause is?
A. Viral orchitis B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Kallmann’s
syndrome D. Trauma
Ans. B
Pediatrics
1. A pregnant patient
presented with polyhydramnios. The likely abnormality in the fetus would be–
A. Posterior
urethral valve B. Bladder exstrophy
C. Cleft palate D. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Ans. D
2. A 3-month-old child
presents with Biphasic stridor and Barking cough. All are true except:
A. Hypopharyngeal
dilation and subglottic stenosis on XR
B. Involve
subglottis most commonly
C. Male are involved
more commonly than female
D. Antibiotics are
used as an initial treatment
Ans. D
3. The patient with
cystic fibrosis. The pedigree was given and chance of carrier in female child
was asked.
A. 2/3 B. 1/2
C. 0 D. 1/4
Ans. D
4. A child with fever,
lethargy, bilious vomiting diagnosed volvulus neonatorum, what ist he
investigation of choice?
A. X-ray B. CT scan
C. Barium meal
follow through D. Endoscopy
Ans. C
5. A boy presented with
vacant stare several times a day. AN episode lasts for around 30 seconds. No
other abnormality is there. Most likely diagnosis is?
A. Absence seizures B. Grand mal seizures
C. Daydreaming
Ans. A
6. Pediatric age group –
recurrent CSF leaks - organism which can cause meningitis
A. Meningococci B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. H. influenzae D. E. coli
Ans. B
7. Cause of HTN in a
female 9 years old, with persistent hypertension with no other clinical feature
as a finding, no other sign. Most common cause?
A. Chronic
glomerulonephritis B. Polycystic kidney
C. Essential D. Reflux nephropathy
Ans. A
8. Non-immune hydrops
fetalis is caused by –
A. Parvovirus B-19 B. CMV
C. Toxoplasmosis D. Syphilis
Ans. A
9. A patient presents
with fever for 3 weeks. On examination he had splenomegaly. On USG, there was a
hypoechoic shadow in spleen near hilum. A gram-negative bacteria was isolated
on blood culture. What is CAUSE of fever?
A. Salmonella B. Lymphoma
C. Infectious
mononucleosis D. Immuynosuppression
Ans. A
10. A child presented with
impaired intelligence, infantile spasms and hypopigmented patches on the back.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Tuberous
sclerosis B. Sturge-Weber syndrome
C. Epilepsy
Ans. A
11. The most specific
marker of neural tube defects is –
A. Acetylcholinesterase B. Butyrylcholinesterase
C. Neuropeptides
Ans. A
Anaesthesia
1. A patient was
intubated, immediately ET CO2 rose and airway pressure rose, what could be
the cause, faint respiratory sound heard bilaterally–
A. Block of ET B. Esophageal intubation
C. Bronchospasm D. Rigidity due to fentanyl
Ans. C
2. Which should not be
used with MAO inhibitor
A. Morphine B. Pentazocine
C. Buprenorphine D. Pethidine
Ans. D
3. A lady after
undergoing surgery on GA which out any intrasurgical complication complained of
respiratory difficulty. PO2 low. Not able to life her head and leg what
can be the cause:
A. Prolonger action
of muscle relaxant B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Pulmonary
embolism D. Fentanyl chest rigidity
Ans. A
4. Which anesthetic used
in pt with height serum creatine with normal serum bilirubin:
A. Atracurium B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium D. Mivacurium
Ans. A
Psychiatry
1. A patient with H/O
repeated attempt of self harm. In which of the following disorder it does not
warrant a speciality reference?
A. Formal thought
disorder B. Physical illness
C. Social isolation D. None of the above
Ans. D
2. Wrong about autistic
person is:
A. Lack of social
interaction B. Visual impairment
C. Poor speech D. Stereotypic movements
Ans. B
3. Commonly used in
narcoanalysis:
A. Atrpine sulfate B. Scopolamine HCL
C. Opium compounds D. Thiopentone/barbiturates
Ans. D
4. A patient feels that
he has committed sins through out life, he contemplated abt suicide but has not
thought how to do it, he also consulted his spiritual guru
A. Further session
with guru B. Antidepressant with antipsychotics
C. Antidepressant
and behaviour therapy
Ans. B
5. A 30-year-old person
thinks that his wife and boss have an affiare, he also thinks that his friend
is also involved in this and he provides them with technological support.
Otherwise he is normal:
A. Persistent
delution disorder B. Schizophrenia
C. Paranoid
personality disorder D. Acute and transient psychotic disorder
Ans. A
6. Which of the
following is not a proven part of cognitive behavioural therapy:
A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation
C. Action D. Consolidation
Ans. C
7. Alcoholic paranoia
which of these is seen:
A. Impulsive
behaviour B. Hallucinations
C. Fixed delusions D. Agitation
Ans. B
8. Not a cognitive
dysfunction...
A. Though block B. Catastophization
C. Selective
abstraction D. Overgeneralization
Ans. A
Orthopedics
1. Which of the
following is least associated with congenital scoliosis?
A. Hemivertebrae B. Wedge vertebrae
C. Block vertebrae D. Unsegmented bar
Ans. None
2. True about knee joint
as well except:
A. Medial meniscus
is more mobile that lateral
B. Menisci made up
of type I collegen
C. Lateral covers
more area than medial meniscus
D. Medial more
commonly injured
Ans. A
3. Lift off test is done
for
A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres Minor D. Subscapularis
Ans. D
4. Metal articulation
should be avoided in:
A. Primary failure B. Revision surgery
C. Inflammatory
cause D. Young female
Ans. D
5. In bone scurvy
affects by
A. Decreasing
mineralization of bone
B. Less formation of
osteoid matrix
C. Affection of the
zone of provisional calcification only
D. Loss of calcium
from the mineralized matrix of bone
Ans. B
6. Synovial sarcoma ...
all true except:
A. Originates in
synovium B. Seen in > 50 years
C. Occurs at
extra-articular sites more often D. Seen in sites such as knee and foot.
Ans. A
7. Hypercalcemia is
associated with:
A. Multiple myeloma B. Ewings
C. Osteosarcoma D. Chondrosarcoma
Ans. A
8. Patient comes with RR
30/min, HR120/min, quadriparesis, sensory level at sternum. Where does the
injury lie?
A. C1-C2 B. C5-C6
C. T1-T2 D. T3-T4
Ans. B
9. A patient after hip
replacement developes severe chest pain and CVS collapse?
A. Pul embolism B. AMI
C. Hypotensive shock D. Cardiac temponade
Ans. A
10. Brown tumor seen in:
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A
11. Klippel-Feil triad
does not include
A. High scapula B. Low post. hairline
C. Restricted neck
movements D. Cervical vertebrae fusion
Ans. A
Radiology
1. Egg on side
appearance
A. Tricuspid atresia
with VSD B. Completely corrected TGA
C. TOF D. Truncus
Ans. B
2. Which of the following
is not a CT feature of adrenal adenoma?
A. Low attenuation
B. Homogeneous
density and well defined borders
C. Enhances rapidly,
contrast stays in it for a long time and washes out late
D. Calcification is
rare
Ans. C
3. CT scan room is
shielded by:
A. Tungsten B. Steel
C. Lead D. Glass
Ans. C
4. Background radiation
is:
A. Due to
investigation B. Around nuclear reactor
C. Present
everywhere in nature D. Radiation in nuclear outbreak
Ans. C
5. Stochastic effect of
radiation is:
A. It has a
threshold
B. Causes cataract
and erythema
C. Increase with
increasing dose
D. As the dose
increases, the probability that effect with occur also increases
Ans. D
6. Most ionizing
radiation
A. Alpha B. Beta
C. X-ray D. Gamma
Ans. A
7. Difference between
X-ray and light
A. Energy B. Mass of photon
C. Type of wave D. Speed
Ans. A
8. A patient presents
with sudden anuria and renal failure. USG kub is normal. Which investigation
will give best information?
A. IVP B. Retrograde pyelography
C. Anterograde
pyelography D. DTPA
Ans. D
9. Dense nephrogram
produced by
A. Dehydration B. Hypervolumia
C. Diabetes D. Hypertension
Ans. A
Skin
1. Steroid is most
potent as
A. Cream B. Ointment
C. Lotion D. Gel
Ans. B
2. Child with HO
infantile spasm, Hypopigmented macule on back, delayed milestone
A. Tuberous
sclerosis B. NF
C. Sturge weber D. N anemicus
Ans. A
3. Female with pimples,
treatment resulting in pigmentation which drug to be given?
A. Tetracycline B. Erythromycin
C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline
Ans. D
4. Treatment of
erythematous rash in pregnant female. (Repeat Question of AIPG 2008)
A. Prednisolone B. Isotretinoin
C. Methotrexate D. Psoralen with PUVA
Ans. A
5. While lacy lesion in
oral cavity with extension of proximal nail fold onto the nail plate/bed?
A. Lichen planus B. Geographic tongue
C. Candidiasis D. Psoriasis
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