pg questions set 2

Question 1: Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated
with Marfan's syndrome?
A) Microcornea
B) Microspherophakia
C) Megalocornea
D) Ectopia lentis



Question 2: A two months old child presents with epiphora and
regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is?
A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B) Buphthalmos
C) Congenital dacryocystitis
D) Encysted mucocele



Question 3: All are ocular emergencies except?
A) Angle closure glaucoma
B) Central serous retinopathy
C) Retinal detachment
D) Central retinal arterial occulsion



Question 4: "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the
following disease?
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Uveitis
D) Wet AMD (Age relaged macular degeneration)



Question 5: A two week old child presents with unilateral
cataract, Which of the following statement represents the best
management advice?
A) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four weeks
B) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four months
C) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four years
D) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is
required



Question 6: The most common condition of inherited blindness
due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is?
A) Retinopathy of prematurity
B) Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Retinal detachment



Question 7: Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in?
A) Superior conjunctiva
B) Inferior conjunctiva
C) Nasal conjunctiva
D) Temporal conjunctiva



Question 8: Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily
acts by ?
A) Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B) Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C) Releasing pupillary block
D) Increasing trabecular outflow



Question 9: In which of the following conditions, severe
itching of the eye with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy
with symptoms aggravating in summer season is most likely
present?
A) Trachoma
B) Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis
C) Acute Conjunctivitis
D) Blepharitis



Question 10: Polychromatic lustre is seen in ?
A) Complicated cataract
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Post Radiation Cataract
D) Congenital Cataract



Question 11: A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional
lability has a golden brown discoloration of Descement's
membrane. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Fabry's Disease
B) Wilson Disease
C) Glycogen storage disease
D) Acute rheumatic fever



Question 12: All of the following can cause a white pupillary
reflex except?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Cataract
C) Retrolental fibroplasia
D) Glaucoma



Question 13: A 10-month-old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots
in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate
schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child?
A) 2 lack units intramuscular (IM) day 0, 14
B) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 14
C) 2 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
D) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14



Question 14: Arlt's line is seen in ?
A) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
B) Pterygium
C) Ocular pemphigoid
D) Trachoma



Question 15: Which of the following will be the most important
adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
A) Atropine sulphate eye ointment
B) Dexamethasone eye drops
C) Pilocarpine eye drops
D) Lignocaine eye drops




Question 1: Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower
end of femur must include?
A) Radiotherapy - amputation - chemotherapy
B) Surgery alone
C) Chemotherapy - limb salvage surgery - chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy



Question 2: An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
started complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both
legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was
aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Burger's disease
B) Gout
C) Lumbar canal stenosis
D) Stress fracture



Question 3: Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of
the following parts of the vertebra except?
A) Body
B) Lamina
C) Spinous process
D) Pedicle



Question 4: Aspetic loosening in cemented total hip
replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response
to?
A) Titaneum debris
B) High density polythene debris
C) N, N - Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
D) Free radicals



Question 5: In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the
proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following
situations except?
A) Old ununited fractures
B) Non-articular fracture
C) Fracture extending to coronoid process
D) Elderly patient



Question 6: All of the following can be the complications of a
malunited Colles fracture except?
A) Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
B) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Carpal instability



Question 7: In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms
over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between
containing clear fluid. This condition called as?
A) Delayed Union
B) Slow union
C) Non union
D) Pseudoarthrosis




Question 1: In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be?
A) Normal
B) Centralised
C) Lateralised to right side
D) Lateralised to left side



Question 2: Meniere's disease is characterized by ?
A) Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
B) Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
C) Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
D) Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss



Question 3: Which of the following statements best represents
Bell's paralysis ?
A) Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
B) Combined paralysis of the facial. Trigeminal, and abducens
nerves
C) Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
D) Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye



Question 4: Fordyce's (spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise
from ?
A) Mucous glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Taste buds
D) Minor salivary glands



Question 5: In which of the following locations there is
collection of pus in the quinsy?
A) Peritonsillar space
B) Paraphyangeal space
C) Retrophyrangeal space
D) Within the tonsil



Question 1: The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability
equivalent to adult's kidney by?
A) One year of age
B) Eighteen months of age
C) Three to six months of age
D) Just before puberty



Question 2: Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a
treatment for all except?
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Adrenoleukodystrophy
C) Hurler's syndrome
D) Hemochromatosis



Question 3: A two-month old child is able to ?
A) Show a positive parachute protective reflex
B) Hold head steady in a seated position
C) Lift head and chest off a flat surface
D) Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral
suspension



Question 4: Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by
all except?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia



Question 5: All of the following are neural tube defects
except?
A) Myelomeningocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Encephalocele
D) Holoprosencephaly



Question 6: A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to
you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability &
pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe
Pallor. Investigations showed Hb- 3.8 gm%, MCV - 58 fl, MCH -
19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal
(target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of
erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Acute lymphoblastic anaemia
C) Hemoglobin D disease
D) Hereditary spherocytosis



Question 7: A 5 year old child presents with history of fever
off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the
body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination
reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most
likely diagnosis is?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hypersplenism
D) Aplastic anaemia



Question 8: A 5 year old girl came with history of
progressively increasing pallor since birth and
hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant
test for achieving diagnosis?
A) Hb electrophoresis
B) Peripheral smear examination
C) Osmotic fragility test
D) Bone marrow examination



Question 9: All are the features of absence seizures except?
A) Usually seen in childhood
B) 3 Hz spike wave in EEG
C) Postictal confusion
D) Precipitation by hyperventilation



Question 10: A 10 month old child presents with two weeks'
history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial
CT Scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most
likely etiological agent is?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae



Question 11: Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low
posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are
characterstics of ?
A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Noonan syndrome



Question 12: A five day old, full term male infant was severely
cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially
and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed
improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this
infant is?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Transposition of great vessels
C) Truncus Arteriosus
D) Tricuspid Atresia



Question 1: All of the following statements about Hairy cell
leukemia are true except?
A) Splenomegaly is conspicuous
B) Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
C) Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
(TRAP)
D) The cells express CD25 consistently



Question 2: Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ
from those in ceroid histiocytes by staining positive for?
A) Lipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Acid fast stain
D) Iron



Question 3: Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic
Atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by
Anaplastic cells, which are also present in the papillary and
reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Melanoma, Clark level IV
B) Congenital melanocytic nevus
C) Dysplastic nevus
D) Melanoma, Clark level III



Question 4: A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain
of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed
new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his
illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed
presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and
anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic
examination is most likely to reveal?
A) Edema in between normal myofibres
B) Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
C) Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of
granulation tissue
D) Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden
macrophages



Question 5: A 40 year old man presented with painless
haematuria. Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass
over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done
and the mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear
cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis were frequent.
Cytogenetic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal the
abnormality of ?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 3
C) Chromosome 11
D) Chromosome 17



Question 6: The most common histologic type of Thyroid cancer
is?
A) Medullary type
B) Follicular type
C) Papillary type
D) Anaplastic type



Question 7: The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian
population is ?
A) Tongue
B) Floor of mouth
C) Alveobuccal complex
D) Lip



Question 8: Which of the following gene defects is associated
with development of Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid?
A) Ret proto Oncogene
B) FAP gene
C) Rb gene
D) BRCA 1 gene



Question 9: All of the following statements are true about
sickle cell disease except?
A) Patients may require frequent blood transfusions
B) Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before
3 years of age
C) There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and
polymerization of HbS
D) Patients presents early in life before 6 months of age



Question 10: All of the following are good prognostic features
for Hodgkin's disease except?
A) Haemoglobin > 10 g/dl
B) WBC count < 15000/mm3
C) Absolute lymphocyte count < 600 / microliters
D) Age < 45 yrs


Question 11: Which of the following is the most common
cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
?
A) Trisomy 8
B) 20 q-
C) 5p
D) monosomy 7