A) C-myc
B) P53
C) bcl-2
D) bax
Question 13: The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's
disease?
A) Neurofibrillary tangles
B) Senile (neuritic) plaques
C) Amyloid angiopathy
D) Lewy bodies
Question 14: Which of the following is an autosomal dominant
metabolic disorder?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Phenylketonuria
C) alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency
D) Familial hypercholesterolemia
Question 15: To which of the following events the good outcome
in Neuroblastoma is associated with ?
A) Diploidy
B) N-myc amplification
C) Chromosome 1 p deletion
D) Trk A expression
Question 16: Serum C3 is persistently low in the following
except?
A) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
B) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C) Lupus nephritis
D) Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis
Question 17: In which of the following conditions the level of
creatinine kinase-I increases?
A) Myocardial Ischemia
B) Brain Ischemia
C) Kidney damage
D) Electrical cardioversion
Question 18: Kinky - hair disease is a disorder where an
affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow,
brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs. A
is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had
sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother
also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the
possible mode of inheritance in her family?
A) X-linked recessive
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Autosomal dominant
Question 19: Males who are sexually underdeveloped with
rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial
hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to
have the chromosome complement of?
A) 46, XYY
B) 46, XY
C) 46, XXY
D) 46, X
Question 20: Which of the following is the feature of Y
chromosome?
A) Acrocentric
B) Telocentric
C) Submetacentric
D) Metacentric
Question 21: In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous
thrombosis is?
A) infrahepatic inferior vena cava
B) infrarenal inferior vena cava
C) hepatic veins
D) portal vein
Question 22: In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site
of obstruction in the portal system is in the?
A) Hepatic vein
B) Post sinusoidal
C) Extra heaptic portal vein
D) Sinusoids
Question 1: Clinically significant drug interaction occurs
between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
A) Isoniazid
B) Cyclosporine
C) Levodopa
D) Hydralazine
Question 2: Which of the following statements is not true about
tacrolimus?
A) It is a macrolide antibiotic
B) It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant
rejection
C) Glucose intolerance is a well recognized side effect
D) It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug
Question 3: All of the following anticancer agents cause bone
marrow depression except?
A) Chlorambucil
B) Daunorubicin
C) Doxorubicin
D) Flutamide
Question 4: Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitor?
A) Zalcitabine
B) Lamivudine
C) Nevirapine
D) Didanosine
Question 5: A 30 year old pregnant woman developed
tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs
should not be used?
A) INH
B) Rifampicin
C) Streptomycin
D) Ethambutol
Question 6: Patients suffering from multidrug resistant
tuberculosis can be treated with all of the following drugs
except?
A) Tobramycin
B) Amikacin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Clarithromycin
Question 7: A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis
patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyriziamide and
ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 /
µL and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/mL. Which of the
following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided?
A) Indinavir
B) Lamivudin
C) Ritonavir
D) Efavirenz
Question 8: A post-operative patient developed septicemia and
was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new
resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even
after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the
charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had
started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually
antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most
likely combination that was given?
A) Vancomycin and Amikacin
B) Cephelexin and Gentamicin
C) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D) Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin
Question 9: Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the
CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain
is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol.
The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation
is?
A) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Third-generation cephalosporin
D) Vancomycin
Question 10: Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not
require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance
of < 50 mg/min?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Trovafloxacin
C) Lomefloxacin
D) Sparfloxacin
Question 11: Which of the following antimicrobials has
antipseudomonal action?
A) Cefpodoxime proxetil
B) Ceforanide
C) Cefotetan
D) Cefoperazone
Question 12: Which of the following statements is not true
regarding sulfonamides?
A) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastrointestinal tract
B) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
C) Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus
D) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to
Nocardia species
Question 13: Which one of the following statements about
biguanides is not true?
A) Do not stimulate insulin release
B) Decrease hepatic glucose production
C) Renal dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
D) Can be combined with sulfonylureas
Question 14: All of the following statements about an
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor are true except?
A) Reduces intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
B) Effective in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) Hypoglycemia is a common and serious side effect
D) Can be used with other oral hypoglycemic agents
Question 15: Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a
premature baby is?
A) Domperidone
B) Metoclopramide
C) Cisapride
D) Omeprazole
Question 16: A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed
ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this
combination incorrect?
A) Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
B) Combination of these two drugs produces serious sideeffects
like agranulocytosis
C) Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not
able to act
D) Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine
Question 17: All of the following are true about amiodarone
induced thyroid dysfunction except?
A) Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas
B) Hypothyroidism is more common in men
C) Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity
D) Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of
serum T4 levels
Question 18: Which of the following is not an adverse effect of
chronic amiodarone therapy?
A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Question 19: All of the following statements regarding
interactions of levodopa are correct except?
A) In parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
B) It is a prodrug
C) Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism
D) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its
therapeutic potential
Question 20: Which of the following action is ascribed to delta
type of opioid receptors?
A) Supraspinal analgesis
B) Respiratory depression
C) Euphoria
D) Reduced intestinal motility
Question 21: Morphine can be used in all the following
conditions except?
A) Head injury
B) Asthma
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Diabetes
Question 22: A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with
combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of
seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range.
All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to
valproate except?
A) Weight gain of 5 kg
B) Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L
C) Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 microgm/dL
D) Lymphadenopathy
Question 23: Which of the following does not bind to GABA
receptor chloride channels?
A) Ethanol
B) Alphaxolone
C) Zolpidem
D) Buspirone
Question 24: Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of
all of the following conditions except?
A) Acute decompensated heart failure
B) Hypotension
C) Hypertension
D) Erectile dysfunction
Question 25: In which of the following phases of clinical trial
of drugs ethical clearance is not required?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Question 26: A highly ionized drug?
A) Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
B) Crosses the placental barrier easily
C) Is well absorbed from the intestine
D) Is highly protein bound
Question 1: The enzyme associated with the conversion of
androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is?
A) Desmolase
B) Isomerase
C) Aromatase
D) Hydroxylase
Question 2: Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are
under the inhibitory control of ?
A) Glycine
B) Glutamate
C) Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
D) Beta-endorphin
Question 3: Sertoli cells have receptors for?
A) Inhibin
B) Luteinising hormone
C) Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Melatonin
Question 4: During acclimatization to high altitude all of the
following take place except?
A) Increase in minute ventilation
B) Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
C) Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia
D) Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
Question 5: The force of muscle contraction can be increased by
all of the following except?
A) Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
B) Increasing the number of motor units activated
C) Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor
neurons
D) Recruiting larger motor units
Question 6: The blood in the vessels normally does not clot
because?
A) Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
B) Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
C) Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
D) Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
Question 7: During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic
valve takes place at the?
A) Beginning of systole
B) End of isovolumetric contraction
C) End of diastole
D) End of diastasis
Question 8: The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is?
A) Glycine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Aspartate
D) Glutamate
Question 9: One intern calculated the concentration of O2 in
blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric
pressure as 760 mm Hg, how much approx. O2 tension could have
been in the blood?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 60 mm Hg
C) 80 mm Hg
D) 100 mm Hg
Question 10: Which of the following is procoagulation protein?
A) Thrombomodulin
B) Protein C
C) Protein S
D) Thrombin
Question 11: In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic
hormone (ADH) is circulated is plasma?
A) Bound to neurophysin - I
B) Bound to neurophysin - II
C) Bound to plasma albumin
D) Free form
Question 1: A 41 year old woman working as an Executive
Director is convinced that the management has denied her
promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and
have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to
convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and
requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work
and manages the household. She is suffering from?
A) Paranoid Schizophrenia
B) Late onset Psychosis
C) Persistent Delusional Disorder
D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Question 2: A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of
the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his
classmates laugh at and talk about him. He is even scared of
going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from?
A) Anxiety neurosis
B) Manic Depressive Psychosis
C) Adjustment reaction
D) Schizophrenia
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