pg questions set 4

Question 101: Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome

 

is ?
A) Tremors
B) Diarrhoea
C) Lacrimation
D)

 

 

 

Question 102: Commonest site for CSF rhinorrhoea is ?
A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Frontal sinus
C) Petrous
D) Sphenoid sinus

 

 

 

Question 103: Conversion of short term memory to long term memory

 

occurs in ?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Amygdala
D)

 

 

 

Question 104: CSF picture in Tubercular meningitis ?
A) increased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
C) decreased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
D) decreased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes

 

 

 

Question 105: Delusion is a disorder of ?
A) Thought
B) Perception
C) Insight
D) Cognition

 

 

 

Question 106: Dexamethasone is given to mother in third trimester ?
A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

Question 107: Dinitrophenol causes ?
A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

Question 108: Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates

 

between two countries. This is done because of differences in ?
A) Causes of death
B) Numerators
C) Age distributions
D) Denominators

 

 

 

Question 109: Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently

 

associated with ?
A) anti-histone antibodies
B) anti-ro antibodies
C) anti-centromere antibodies
D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies

 

 

 

Question 110: Drug not used in erectile dysfunction is ?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Testosterone
C) Alprostadil
D)

 

 

 

Question 111: Drug of choice for OCD ?
A) Imipramine
B) Fluoxetine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Benzodiazepine

 

 

 

Question 112: Drug used in obesity are all except ?
A) Sibutramine
B) Orlistat
C) Olestra
D) Neuropeptide y analogue

 

 

 

Question 113: Dubin Johnson syndrome, test used is ?
A) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
B) Bromosulphthalein test
C) Hippurate test
D) Transaminase

 

 

 

Question 114: Earliest milestone to be achieved is ?
A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
B) Pincer grip
C) Crawling
D) Creeping

 

 

 

Question 115: ECG manifestations of hypokalemia include ?
A) Tall t waves
B) PR prolongation with ST depression
C) Flattening of P wave
D) Broard QRS

 

 

 

Question 116: Enzyme not stable at acidic pH are all except ?
A) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Pepsin
D) Carboxypeptidase

 

 

 

Question 117: External cephalic version is contraindicated in ?
A) Anemia
B) Flexed Breech
C) PIH
D)

 

 

 

Question 118: FAB L3 refers to ?
A) pre-B ALL
B) T cell ALL
C) B cell ALL
D) Mixed ALL

 

 

 

Question 119: Factor present in final common complement pathway ?
A) C4
B) C3
C) C5
D) Protein B
E) C2

 

 

 

Question 120: Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 wks is seen

 

in ?
A) Down's syndrome
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Turner's syndrome
D)

 

 

 

Question 121: Fibroid causes all of the following except ?
A) Menstrual irregularities
B) Infertility
C) Abdominal Mass
D) Amenorrhoea

 

 

 

Question 122: Filgrastim is used in the treatment of ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Filaria
C) Malaria
D) Anaemia

 

 

 

Question 123: Finasteride acts via ?
A) Alpha blockade
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
C) Selective alpha-1 blockade
D) Androgen receptor antagonism

 

 

 

Question 124: Findings in DIC include all except ?
A) increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased

 

thrombin-antithrombin complexes
B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C) increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin

 

complexes
D) increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

 

 

 

Question 125: For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
A) centrifugation
B) densitometry
C) electrophoresis
D) chromatography

 

 

 

Question 126: Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all

 

except ?
A) Common ALL subtype
B) pre-B ALL
C) Hyperploidy
D) Female gender

 

 

 

Question 127: Heart muscle all true except ?
A) Acts as syncytium
B) has multiple nuclei
C) has gap junctions
D)

 

 

 

Question 128: Herd immunity, all are true except ?
A) Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
B) Influenced by immunization
C) Depends on presence of alternate host
D) Herd immunity is constant

 

 

 

Question 129: Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except ?
A) ankyrin
B) spectrin
C) anion exchanger
D) glycophorin 2

 

 

 

Question 130: HMP shunt occurs in ?
A) Cytosol
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D)

 

 

 

Question 131: HMP Shunt Oxidase phase generates ?
A) Ribose
B) NADPH
C) Pyruvate is formed by the non-oxidative phase
D)

 

 

 

Question 132: Hormone not secreted by kidney ?
A) Angiotensin 1
B) 1, 25 Di hydroxy cholecalciferol
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin

 

 

 

Question 133: HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary Heart Disease

 

 

 

Question 134: Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with

 

?
A) Recurrent abortions
B) Polyhydramnios
C) PIH
D) Preterm labour

 

 

 

Question 135: Immediate response to tissue injury ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Neutrophilia
C) Monocytosis
D)

 

 

 

Question 136: Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be

 

given by ?
A) Goitre in pregnant women
B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
C) Urinary iodine
D)

 

 

 

Question 137: In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal

 

membrane, urine drains into ?
A) Deep perineal pouch
B) Superficial perineal pouch
C)
D)

 

 

 

Question 138: In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for

 

emergency laparotomy should be ?
A) Paramedian incision
B) Midline incision
C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
D) Subcostal incision

 

 

 

Question 139: In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall

 

infarction, best treatment of choice is ?
A) Angiography with angioplasty
B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
C) Dopamine
D) Streptokinase

 

 

 

Question 140: In Bishop's score all are included except ?
A) Effacement of Cervix
B) Dilatation of Cervix
C) Station of head
D) Interspinous diameter

 

 

 

Question 141: In Caudal block for infant which is Contraindicated ?
A) remifentanil
B) sufentanil
C) morphine
D) butorphanol

 

 

 

Question 142: In MEN 1, most common is ?
A) Insulinoma
B) Gastrinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D)

 

 

 

Question 143: In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
A) Urethra
B) Urinary bladder
C) Ureter
D)

 

 

 

Question 144: Indicator for CSF leak ?
A) Beta 2 transferrin
B) Beta protein trace
C) Dye test
D)

 

 

 

Question 145: Investigation not required in osteosarcoma ?
A) MRI femur
B) Bone marrow biopsy
C) CT chest
D) Bone Scan

 

 

 

Question 146: Investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis ?
A) Rectal biopsy
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

Question 147: Iron deficiency anaemia is associated with ?
A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
B) Decreased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
C) Normal TIBC, decreased Ferritin
D) Normal TIBC, increased Ferritin

 

 

 

Question 148: Isotope used in radioisotope scanning is ?
A) I 131
B) I 123
C) I 125
D) I 127

 

 

 

Question 149:In  LAC OPERON function of  cap gene  ?
A) negative regulation
B) positive regulation
C)
D)

 

 

 

Question 150: Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following

 

conditions ?
A) Morning Glory Syndrome
B) Nanophthalmia
C) Coloboma of retina
D) Optic nerve agenesis

 

 

 

 

pg questions set 3

Question 12: Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene ?
A) C-myc
B) P53
C) bcl-2
D) bax
 

 

 
Question 13: The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's

disease?
A) Neurofibrillary tangles
B) Senile (neuritic) plaques
C) Amyloid angiopathy
D) Lewy bodies
 

 

 
Question 14: Which of the following is an autosomal dominant

metabolic disorder?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Phenylketonuria
C) alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency
D) Familial hypercholesterolemia
 

 

 
Question 15: To which of the following events the good outcome

in Neuroblastoma is associated with ?
A) Diploidy
B) N-myc amplification
C) Chromosome 1 p deletion
D) Trk A expression
 

 

 
Question 16: Serum C3 is persistently low in the following

except?
A) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
B) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C) Lupus nephritis
D) Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis
 

 
Question 17: In which of the following conditions the level of

creatinine kinase-I increases?
A) Myocardial Ischemia
B) Brain Ischemia
C) Kidney damage
D) Electrical cardioversion
 

 
Question 18: Kinky - hair disease is a disorder where an

affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow,

brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs. A

is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had

sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother

also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the

possible mode of inheritance in her family?
A) X-linked recessive
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Autosomal dominant
 

 
Question 19: Males who are sexually underdeveloped with

rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial

hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to

have the chromosome complement of?
A) 46, XYY
B) 46, XY
C) 46, XXY
D) 46, X
 

 

 
Question 20: Which of the following is the feature of Y

chromosome?
A) Acrocentric
B) Telocentric
C) Submetacentric
D) Metacentric
 

 

 
Question 21: In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous

thrombosis is?
A) infrahepatic inferior vena cava
B) infrarenal inferior vena cava
C) hepatic veins
D) portal vein
 

 
Question 22: In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site

of obstruction in the portal system is in the?
A) Hepatic vein
B) Post sinusoidal
C) Extra heaptic portal vein
D) Sinusoids
 

 

 
Question 1: Clinically significant drug interaction occurs

between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
A) Isoniazid
B) Cyclosporine
C) Levodopa
D) Hydralazine
 

 
Question 2: Which of the following statements is not true about

tacrolimus?
A) It is a macrolide antibiotic
B) It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant

rejection
C) Glucose intolerance is a well recognized side effect
D) It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug
 

 

 
Question 3: All of the following anticancer agents cause bone

marrow depression except?
A) Chlorambucil
B) Daunorubicin
C) Doxorubicin
D) Flutamide
 

 
Question 4: Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse

transcriptase inhibitor?
A) Zalcitabine
B) Lamivudine
C) Nevirapine
D) Didanosine
 

 

 
Question 5: A 30 year old pregnant woman developed

tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs

should not be used?
A) INH
B) Rifampicin
C) Streptomycin
D) Ethambutol
 

 
Question 6: Patients suffering from multidrug resistant

tuberculosis can be treated with all of the following drugs

except?
A) Tobramycin
B) Amikacin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Clarithromycin
 

 
Question 7: A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis

patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyriziamide and

ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 /

µL and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/mL. Which of the

following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided?
A) Indinavir
B) Lamivudin
C) Ritonavir
D) Efavirenz
 

 
Question 8: A post-operative patient developed septicemia and

was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new

resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even

after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the

charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had

started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually

antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most

likely combination that was given?
A) Vancomycin and Amikacin
B) Cephelexin and Gentamicin
C) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D) Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin
 

 
Question 9: Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the

CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain

is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol.

The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation

is?
A) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Third-generation cephalosporin
D) Vancomycin
 

 
Question 10: Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not

require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance

of < 50 mg/min?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Trovafloxacin
C) Lomefloxacin
D) Sparfloxacin
 

 
Question 11: Which of the following antimicrobials has

antipseudomonal action?
A) Cefpodoxime proxetil
B) Ceforanide
C) Cefotetan
D) Cefoperazone
 

 
Question 12: Which of the following statements is not true

regarding sulfonamides?
A) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastrointestinal tract
B) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
C) Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus
D) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to

Nocardia species
 

 

 
Question 13: Which one of the following statements about

biguanides is not true?
A) Do not stimulate insulin release
B) Decrease hepatic glucose production
C) Renal dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
D) Can be combined with sulfonylureas
 

 
Question 14: All of the following statements about an

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor are true except?
A) Reduces intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
B) Effective in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) Hypoglycemia is a common and serious side effect
D) Can be used with other oral hypoglycemic agents
 

 
Question 15: Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a

premature baby is?
A) Domperidone
B) Metoclopramide
C) Cisapride
D) Omeprazole
 

 
Question 16: A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed

ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this

combination incorrect?
A) Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
B) Combination of these two drugs produces serious sideeffects

like agranulocytosis
C) Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not

able to act
D) Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine
 

 
Question 17: All of the following are true about amiodarone

induced thyroid dysfunction except?
A) Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas
B) Hypothyroidism is more common in men
C) Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity
D) Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of

serum T4 levels
 

 

 
Question 18: Which of the following is not an adverse effect of

chronic amiodarone therapy?
A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
 

 
Question 19: All of the following statements regarding

interactions of levodopa are correct except?
A) In parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
B) It is a prodrug
C) Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism
D) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its

therapeutic potential
 

 

 
Question 20: Which of the following action is ascribed to delta

type of opioid receptors?
A) Supraspinal analgesis
B) Respiratory depression
C) Euphoria
D) Reduced intestinal motility
 

 
Question 21: Morphine can be used in all the following

conditions except?
A) Head injury
B) Asthma
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Diabetes
 

 
Question 22: A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with

combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of

seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range.

All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to

valproate except?
A) Weight gain of 5 kg
B) Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L
C) Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 microgm/dL
D) Lymphadenopathy
 

 
Question 23: Which of the following does not bind to GABA

receptor chloride channels?
A) Ethanol
B) Alphaxolone
C) Zolpidem
D) Buspirone
 

 
Question 24: Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of

all of the following conditions except?
A) Acute decompensated heart failure
B) Hypotension
C) Hypertension
D) Erectile dysfunction
 

 

 
Question 25: In which of the following phases of clinical trial

of drugs ethical clearance is not required?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
 

 
Question 26: A highly ionized drug?
A) Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
B) Crosses the placental barrier easily
C) Is well absorbed from the intestine
D) Is highly protein bound
 

 

 
Question 1: The enzyme associated with the conversion of

androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is?
A) Desmolase
B) Isomerase
C) Aromatase
D) Hydroxylase
 

 

 
Question 2: Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are

under the inhibitory control of ?
A) Glycine
B) Glutamate
C) Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
D) Beta-endorphin
 

 

 
Question 3: Sertoli cells have receptors for?
A) Inhibin
B) Luteinising hormone
C) Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Melatonin
 

 
Question 4: During acclimatization to high altitude all of the

following take place except?
A) Increase in minute ventilation
B) Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
C) Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia
D) Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
 

 
Question 5: The force of muscle contraction can be increased by

all of the following except?
A) Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
B) Increasing the number of motor units activated
C) Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor

neurons
D) Recruiting larger motor units
 

 

 
Question 6: The blood in the vessels normally does not clot

because?
A) Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
B) Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
C) Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
D) Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
 

 
Question 7: During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic

valve takes place at the?
A) Beginning of systole
B) End of isovolumetric contraction
C) End of diastole
D) End of diastasis
 

 
Question 8: The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is?
A) Glycine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Aspartate
D) Glutamate
 

 

 
Question 9: One intern calculated the concentration of O2 in

blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric

pressure as 760 mm Hg, how much approx. O2 tension could have

been in the blood?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 60 mm Hg
C) 80 mm Hg
D) 100 mm Hg
 

 
Question 10: Which of the following is procoagulation protein?
A) Thrombomodulin
B) Protein C
C) Protein S
D) Thrombin
 

 

Question 11: In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic

hormone (ADH) is circulated is plasma?
A) Bound to neurophysin - I
B) Bound to neurophysin - II
C) Bound to plasma albumin
D) Free form
 

 
Question 1: A 41 year old woman working as an Executive

Director is convinced that the management has denied her

promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and

have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to

convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and

requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work

and manages the household. She is suffering from?
A) Paranoid Schizophrenia
B) Late onset Psychosis
C) Persistent Delusional Disorder
D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
 

 

 
Question 2: A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of

the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his

classmates laugh at and talk about him. He is even scared of

going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from?
A) Anxiety neurosis
B) Manic Depressive Psychosis
C) Adjustment reaction
D) Schizophrenia
 

pg questions set 2

Question 1: Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated
with Marfan's syndrome?
A) Microcornea
B) Microspherophakia
C) Megalocornea
D) Ectopia lentis



Question 2: A two months old child presents with epiphora and
regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is?
A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B) Buphthalmos
C) Congenital dacryocystitis
D) Encysted mucocele



Question 3: All are ocular emergencies except?
A) Angle closure glaucoma
B) Central serous retinopathy
C) Retinal detachment
D) Central retinal arterial occulsion



Question 4: "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the
following disease?
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Uveitis
D) Wet AMD (Age relaged macular degeneration)



Question 5: A two week old child presents with unilateral
cataract, Which of the following statement represents the best
management advice?
A) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four weeks
B) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four months
C) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four years
D) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is
required



Question 6: The most common condition of inherited blindness
due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is?
A) Retinopathy of prematurity
B) Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Retinal detachment



Question 7: Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in?
A) Superior conjunctiva
B) Inferior conjunctiva
C) Nasal conjunctiva
D) Temporal conjunctiva



Question 8: Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily
acts by ?
A) Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B) Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C) Releasing pupillary block
D) Increasing trabecular outflow



Question 9: In which of the following conditions, severe
itching of the eye with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy
with symptoms aggravating in summer season is most likely
present?
A) Trachoma
B) Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis
C) Acute Conjunctivitis
D) Blepharitis



Question 10: Polychromatic lustre is seen in ?
A) Complicated cataract
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Post Radiation Cataract
D) Congenital Cataract



Question 11: A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional
lability has a golden brown discoloration of Descement's
membrane. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Fabry's Disease
B) Wilson Disease
C) Glycogen storage disease
D) Acute rheumatic fever



Question 12: All of the following can cause a white pupillary
reflex except?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Cataract
C) Retrolental fibroplasia
D) Glaucoma



Question 13: A 10-month-old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots
in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate
schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child?
A) 2 lack units intramuscular (IM) day 0, 14
B) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 14
C) 2 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
D) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14



Question 14: Arlt's line is seen in ?
A) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
B) Pterygium
C) Ocular pemphigoid
D) Trachoma



Question 15: Which of the following will be the most important
adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
A) Atropine sulphate eye ointment
B) Dexamethasone eye drops
C) Pilocarpine eye drops
D) Lignocaine eye drops




Question 1: Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower
end of femur must include?
A) Radiotherapy - amputation - chemotherapy
B) Surgery alone
C) Chemotherapy - limb salvage surgery - chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy



Question 2: An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
started complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both
legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was
aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Burger's disease
B) Gout
C) Lumbar canal stenosis
D) Stress fracture



Question 3: Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of
the following parts of the vertebra except?
A) Body
B) Lamina
C) Spinous process
D) Pedicle



Question 4: Aspetic loosening in cemented total hip
replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response
to?
A) Titaneum debris
B) High density polythene debris
C) N, N - Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
D) Free radicals



Question 5: In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the
proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following
situations except?
A) Old ununited fractures
B) Non-articular fracture
C) Fracture extending to coronoid process
D) Elderly patient



Question 6: All of the following can be the complications of a
malunited Colles fracture except?
A) Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
B) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Carpal instability



Question 7: In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms
over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between
containing clear fluid. This condition called as?
A) Delayed Union
B) Slow union
C) Non union
D) Pseudoarthrosis




Question 1: In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be?
A) Normal
B) Centralised
C) Lateralised to right side
D) Lateralised to left side



Question 2: Meniere's disease is characterized by ?
A) Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
B) Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
C) Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
D) Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss



Question 3: Which of the following statements best represents
Bell's paralysis ?
A) Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
B) Combined paralysis of the facial. Trigeminal, and abducens
nerves
C) Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
D) Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye



Question 4: Fordyce's (spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise
from ?
A) Mucous glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Taste buds
D) Minor salivary glands



Question 5: In which of the following locations there is
collection of pus in the quinsy?
A) Peritonsillar space
B) Paraphyangeal space
C) Retrophyrangeal space
D) Within the tonsil



Question 1: The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability
equivalent to adult's kidney by?
A) One year of age
B) Eighteen months of age
C) Three to six months of age
D) Just before puberty



Question 2: Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a
treatment for all except?
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Adrenoleukodystrophy
C) Hurler's syndrome
D) Hemochromatosis



Question 3: A two-month old child is able to ?
A) Show a positive parachute protective reflex
B) Hold head steady in a seated position
C) Lift head and chest off a flat surface
D) Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral
suspension



Question 4: Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by
all except?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia



Question 5: All of the following are neural tube defects
except?
A) Myelomeningocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Encephalocele
D) Holoprosencephaly



Question 6: A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to
you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability &
pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe
Pallor. Investigations showed Hb- 3.8 gm%, MCV - 58 fl, MCH -
19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal
(target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of
erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Acute lymphoblastic anaemia
C) Hemoglobin D disease
D) Hereditary spherocytosis



Question 7: A 5 year old child presents with history of fever
off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the
body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination
reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most
likely diagnosis is?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hypersplenism
D) Aplastic anaemia



Question 8: A 5 year old girl came with history of
progressively increasing pallor since birth and
hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant
test for achieving diagnosis?
A) Hb electrophoresis
B) Peripheral smear examination
C) Osmotic fragility test
D) Bone marrow examination



Question 9: All are the features of absence seizures except?
A) Usually seen in childhood
B) 3 Hz spike wave in EEG
C) Postictal confusion
D) Precipitation by hyperventilation



Question 10: A 10 month old child presents with two weeks'
history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial
CT Scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most
likely etiological agent is?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae



Question 11: Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low
posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are
characterstics of ?
A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Noonan syndrome



Question 12: A five day old, full term male infant was severely
cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially
and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed
improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this
infant is?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Transposition of great vessels
C) Truncus Arteriosus
D) Tricuspid Atresia



Question 1: All of the following statements about Hairy cell
leukemia are true except?
A) Splenomegaly is conspicuous
B) Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
C) Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
(TRAP)
D) The cells express CD25 consistently



Question 2: Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ
from those in ceroid histiocytes by staining positive for?
A) Lipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Acid fast stain
D) Iron



Question 3: Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic
Atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by
Anaplastic cells, which are also present in the papillary and
reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Melanoma, Clark level IV
B) Congenital melanocytic nevus
C) Dysplastic nevus
D) Melanoma, Clark level III



Question 4: A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain
of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed
new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his
illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed
presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and
anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic
examination is most likely to reveal?
A) Edema in between normal myofibres
B) Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
C) Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of
granulation tissue
D) Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden
macrophages



Question 5: A 40 year old man presented with painless
haematuria. Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass
over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done
and the mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear
cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis were frequent.
Cytogenetic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal the
abnormality of ?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 3
C) Chromosome 11
D) Chromosome 17



Question 6: The most common histologic type of Thyroid cancer
is?
A) Medullary type
B) Follicular type
C) Papillary type
D) Anaplastic type



Question 7: The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian
population is ?
A) Tongue
B) Floor of mouth
C) Alveobuccal complex
D) Lip



Question 8: Which of the following gene defects is associated
with development of Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid?
A) Ret proto Oncogene
B) FAP gene
C) Rb gene
D) BRCA 1 gene



Question 9: All of the following statements are true about
sickle cell disease except?
A) Patients may require frequent blood transfusions
B) Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before
3 years of age
C) There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and
polymerization of HbS
D) Patients presents early in life before 6 months of age



Question 10: All of the following are good prognostic features
for Hodgkin's disease except?
A) Haemoglobin > 10 g/dl
B) WBC count < 15000/mm3
C) Absolute lymphocyte count < 600 / microliters
D) Age < 45 yrs


Question 11: Which of the following is the most common
cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
?
A) Trisomy 8
B) 20 q-
C) 5p
D) monosomy 7

pg questions set 1

 

 

 

 
 
Question 1: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?
 
A) Ceftriaxone
 
B) Ciprofloxacin
 
C) Doxycycline
 
D) Minocycline
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 2: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is?
 
A) Multiple myeloma
 
B) Indolent myeloma
 
C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
 
D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 3: HBAic level in blood explains?
 
A) Acute rise of sugar
 
B) Long term status of blood sugar
 
C) Hepatorenal syndrome
 
D) Chronic pancreatitis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 4: Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?
 
A) Triple test
 
B) alpha - fetoprotein
 
C) Karyotyping
 
D) beta - human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 5: All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except?
 
A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
 
B) Acute intermittent porphyria
 
C) Lead intoxication
 
D) Arsenic intoxication
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 6: A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ?
 
A) Acute pyogenic meningitis
 
B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
 
C) Neurocysticercosis
 
D) Carcinomatous meningitis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 7: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by?
 
A) Significant numbers of schiztocytes
 
B) A brisk reticulocutosis
 
C) Decreased coagulation factor levels
 
D) Significant thrombocytopenia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 8: Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of ?
 
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
 
B) Anaemia of chronic disease
 
C) Hemochromatosis
 
D) Lead poisoning
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 9: A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was?
 
A) Verapamil
 
B) Digoxin
 
C) Grvedilol
 
D) Propranolol
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 10: All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except?
 
A) Pulsus paradoxus
 
B) Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram
 
C) Electrical alternans
 
D) Kussmaul's sign
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 11: Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection?
 
A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues
 
B) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
 
C) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients
 
D) In latent phase HIV is minimal replication
 
 
 
 
 
Question 12: In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterised by the presence of all the following except?
 
A) Red cell casts
 
B) Acanthocytes
 
C) Crenated red cells
 
D) Dysmorphic red cells
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 13: Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except?
 
A) Testosterone
 
B) Prolactin
 
C) Estradiol
 
D) Luteinizing hormone
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 14: All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women, except?
 
A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
 
B) It is not related to menstrual cycles
 
C) There is increased water retention in upright position
 
D) ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 15: A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
 
A) Nutritional rickets
 
B) Renal rickets
 
C) Hyperparathyroidism
 
D) Skeletal dysplasia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 16: A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 Kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
 
A) Serum electrolytes
 
B) Plasma cortisol
 
C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis
 
D) T3, T4 and TSH
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 17: An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is?
 
A) Wegener's granulomatosis
 
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
 
C) Takayasu's arteritis
 
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 18: A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/ access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood?
 
A) Ref ford nomogram
 
B) DuBio's nomogram
 
C) Goldman constant field equation
 
D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 19: A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptive for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dL. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum. All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except?
 
A) Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion
 
B) Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines
 
C) Decreased hemoglobin level
 
D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 20: A 45 - year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:
 

Parameters
 Fasting
  1 hr
  2 hr
 
Blood glucose (mg/dL)
 155
 270
 205
 
Urine glucose
 -ve
 +++
 ++
 
Ketone bodies
 -ve
 -ve
 -ve
 

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case?
 
A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
 
B) She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
 
C) She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation
 
D) Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of diabetes
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 21: A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and 12000/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
 
A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
 
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
 
C) Wegener's granulomatosis
 
D) Disseminated tuberculosis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 22: A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except?
 
A) CD4/CD8 counts in the blood
 
B) Serum ACE levels
 
C) CECT of chest
 
D) Gallium scan
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 23: Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome?
 
A) Loss of diurnal variation
 
B) Increased ACTH
 
C) Increased plasma Cortisol
 
D) Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 24: The occurence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as?
 
A) Jod- Basedow effect
 
B) Wolff- Chaikoff effect
 
C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia
 
D) de Quervain's thyroiditis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 25: The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is?
 
A) T3
 
B) T4
 
C) TSH
 
D) Thyroglobulin
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 26: Ataxia telangiectacia is characterized by all of the following except ?
 
A) Chronic sinopulmonary disease
 
B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
 
C) Chromosomal breakage
 
D) IgA deficiency
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 27: The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because?
 
A) The plasma oncotic pressure is high
 
B) There is renal compensation
 
C) Increased cardiac output
 
D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 28: Duchenne Muscular Dsytrophy is a disease of ?
 
A) Neuromuscular junction
 
B) Sarcolemmal proteins
 
C) Muscle contractile proteins
 
D) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 29: All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?
 
A) Lupus nephritis
 
B) Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis
 
C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
 
D) Post-infections glomerulonephritis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true about hapten?
 
A) It induces brisk immune response
 
B) It needs carrier to induce immune response
 
C) It is a T-independent Antigen
 
D) It has no association with MHC
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 2: Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except?
 
A) Hodgkin's disease
 
B) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
 
C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
 
D) Multiple myeloma
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 3: A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except?
 
A) CFA - 1
 
B) P1 - Pili
 
C) CS - 2
 
D) K 88
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 4: A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be?
 
A) Thayer - Martin Medium
 
B) Blood agar with X & V factors
 
C) Chocholate agar with isovitale X
 
D) Tellurite blood agar
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 5: Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
 
A) Cholera toxin
 
B) Shiga toxin
 
C) Pertussis toxin
 
D) LT of enterotoxigenic E. coli
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 6: A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule in his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is?
 
A) Clostridium tetani
 
B) Listeria monocytogenes
 
C) Bacillus anthracis
 
D) Actinomyces sp.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 7: A farmer presenting with fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except?
 
A) Standard Agglutination test
 
B) 2 Mercapto-ethanol test
 
C) Complement fixation test
 
D) Coomb' s test
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 8: A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of beta-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
 
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
 
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
 
C) Peptostreptococci
 
D) Enterococcus faecium
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 9: Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis?
 
A) Herpes simplex virus type 2
 
B) Japanese encephalitis virus
 
C) Nipah virus
 
D) Cytomegalovirus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 10: An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except?
 
A) Parainfluenza viruses
 
B) Influenza virus A
 
C) Respiratory syncytial virus
 
D) Mumps virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 11: All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except?
 
A) It is transmitted by feco-oral route
 
B) Asymptomatic infections are common in children
 
C) There is a single serotype causing infection
 
D) Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 12: Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except?
 
A) Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen
 
B) Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings
 
C) Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture
 
D) Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAI) antibodies in a single serum specimen
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 13: Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?
 
A) Yellow fever is endemic in India
 
B) Dengue virus has only one serotype
 
C) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks
 
D) Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 14: All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except?
 
A) Myocarditis
 
B) Pleurodynia
 
C) Herpangina
 
D) Hemorrhagic fever
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 15: An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis?
 
A) Herpes simplex virus
 
B) Human herpes virus 8
 
C) Cytomegalovirus
 
D) Epstein-Barr (EB) virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 16: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is?
 
A) Hepatitis B virus
 
B) Hepatitis C virus
 
C) Hepatitis E virus
 
D) Hepatitis A virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 17: A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram - positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occuring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is?
 
A) Listeria monocytogenes
 
B) Corynebacterium sp.
 
C) Enterococcus sp.
 
D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 18: The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial meningitis is?
 
A) Haemophilus influenzae type b
 
B) Neisseria meningitidis
 
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
 
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 19: Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months - 12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except?
 
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
 
B) Neisseria meningitidis
 
C) Hemophilus influenzae type B
 
D) Listeria monocytogenes
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 20: A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E coli is likely to be the causative agent?
 
A) O157:H7
 
B) O159:H7
 
C) O107:H7
 
D) O55:H7
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 21: In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except?
 
A) Vibrio cholerae
 
B) Shigella sp.
 
C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
 
D) Staphylococcus aureus