pg questions set 1

 

 

 

 
 
Question 1: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?
 
A) Ceftriaxone
 
B) Ciprofloxacin
 
C) Doxycycline
 
D) Minocycline
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 2: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is?
 
A) Multiple myeloma
 
B) Indolent myeloma
 
C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
 
D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 3: HBAic level in blood explains?
 
A) Acute rise of sugar
 
B) Long term status of blood sugar
 
C) Hepatorenal syndrome
 
D) Chronic pancreatitis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 4: Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?
 
A) Triple test
 
B) alpha - fetoprotein
 
C) Karyotyping
 
D) beta - human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 5: All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except?
 
A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
 
B) Acute intermittent porphyria
 
C) Lead intoxication
 
D) Arsenic intoxication
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 6: A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ?
 
A) Acute pyogenic meningitis
 
B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
 
C) Neurocysticercosis
 
D) Carcinomatous meningitis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 7: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by?
 
A) Significant numbers of schiztocytes
 
B) A brisk reticulocutosis
 
C) Decreased coagulation factor levels
 
D) Significant thrombocytopenia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 8: Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of ?
 
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
 
B) Anaemia of chronic disease
 
C) Hemochromatosis
 
D) Lead poisoning
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 9: A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was?
 
A) Verapamil
 
B) Digoxin
 
C) Grvedilol
 
D) Propranolol
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 10: All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except?
 
A) Pulsus paradoxus
 
B) Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram
 
C) Electrical alternans
 
D) Kussmaul's sign
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 11: Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection?
 
A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues
 
B) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
 
C) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients
 
D) In latent phase HIV is minimal replication
 
 
 
 
 
Question 12: In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterised by the presence of all the following except?
 
A) Red cell casts
 
B) Acanthocytes
 
C) Crenated red cells
 
D) Dysmorphic red cells
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 13: Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except?
 
A) Testosterone
 
B) Prolactin
 
C) Estradiol
 
D) Luteinizing hormone
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 14: All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women, except?
 
A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
 
B) It is not related to menstrual cycles
 
C) There is increased water retention in upright position
 
D) ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 15: A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
 
A) Nutritional rickets
 
B) Renal rickets
 
C) Hyperparathyroidism
 
D) Skeletal dysplasia
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 16: A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 Kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
 
A) Serum electrolytes
 
B) Plasma cortisol
 
C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis
 
D) T3, T4 and TSH
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 17: An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is?
 
A) Wegener's granulomatosis
 
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
 
C) Takayasu's arteritis
 
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 18: A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/ access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood?
 
A) Ref ford nomogram
 
B) DuBio's nomogram
 
C) Goldman constant field equation
 
D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 19: A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptive for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dL. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum. All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except?
 
A) Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion
 
B) Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines
 
C) Decreased hemoglobin level
 
D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 20: A 45 - year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:
 

Parameters
 Fasting
  1 hr
  2 hr
 
Blood glucose (mg/dL)
 155
 270
 205
 
Urine glucose
 -ve
 +++
 ++
 
Ketone bodies
 -ve
 -ve
 -ve
 

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case?
 
A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
 
B) She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
 
C) She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation
 
D) Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of diabetes
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 21: A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and 12000/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
 
A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
 
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
 
C) Wegener's granulomatosis
 
D) Disseminated tuberculosis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 22: A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except?
 
A) CD4/CD8 counts in the blood
 
B) Serum ACE levels
 
C) CECT of chest
 
D) Gallium scan
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 23: Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome?
 
A) Loss of diurnal variation
 
B) Increased ACTH
 
C) Increased plasma Cortisol
 
D) Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 24: The occurence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as?
 
A) Jod- Basedow effect
 
B) Wolff- Chaikoff effect
 
C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia
 
D) de Quervain's thyroiditis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 25: The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is?
 
A) T3
 
B) T4
 
C) TSH
 
D) Thyroglobulin
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 26: Ataxia telangiectacia is characterized by all of the following except ?
 
A) Chronic sinopulmonary disease
 
B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
 
C) Chromosomal breakage
 
D) IgA deficiency
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 27: The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because?
 
A) The plasma oncotic pressure is high
 
B) There is renal compensation
 
C) Increased cardiac output
 
D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 28: Duchenne Muscular Dsytrophy is a disease of ?
 
A) Neuromuscular junction
 
B) Sarcolemmal proteins
 
C) Muscle contractile proteins
 
D) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 29: All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?
 
A) Lupus nephritis
 
B) Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis
 
C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
 
D) Post-infections glomerulonephritis
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true about hapten?
 
A) It induces brisk immune response
 
B) It needs carrier to induce immune response
 
C) It is a T-independent Antigen
 
D) It has no association with MHC
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 2: Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except?
 
A) Hodgkin's disease
 
B) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
 
C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
 
D) Multiple myeloma
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 3: A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except?
 
A) CFA - 1
 
B) P1 - Pili
 
C) CS - 2
 
D) K 88
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 4: A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be?
 
A) Thayer - Martin Medium
 
B) Blood agar with X & V factors
 
C) Chocholate agar with isovitale X
 
D) Tellurite blood agar
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 5: Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
 
A) Cholera toxin
 
B) Shiga toxin
 
C) Pertussis toxin
 
D) LT of enterotoxigenic E. coli
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 6: A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule in his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is?
 
A) Clostridium tetani
 
B) Listeria monocytogenes
 
C) Bacillus anthracis
 
D) Actinomyces sp.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 7: A farmer presenting with fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except?
 
A) Standard Agglutination test
 
B) 2 Mercapto-ethanol test
 
C) Complement fixation test
 
D) Coomb' s test
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 8: A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of beta-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?
 
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
 
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
 
C) Peptostreptococci
 
D) Enterococcus faecium
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 9: Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis?
 
A) Herpes simplex virus type 2
 
B) Japanese encephalitis virus
 
C) Nipah virus
 
D) Cytomegalovirus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 10: An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except?
 
A) Parainfluenza viruses
 
B) Influenza virus A
 
C) Respiratory syncytial virus
 
D) Mumps virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 11: All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except?
 
A) It is transmitted by feco-oral route
 
B) Asymptomatic infections are common in children
 
C) There is a single serotype causing infection
 
D) Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 12: Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except?
 
A) Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen
 
B) Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings
 
C) Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture
 
D) Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAI) antibodies in a single serum specimen
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 13: Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?
 
A) Yellow fever is endemic in India
 
B) Dengue virus has only one serotype
 
C) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks
 
D) Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 14: All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except?
 
A) Myocarditis
 
B) Pleurodynia
 
C) Herpangina
 
D) Hemorrhagic fever
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 
Question 15: An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis?
 
A) Herpes simplex virus
 
B) Human herpes virus 8
 
C) Cytomegalovirus
 
D) Epstein-Barr (EB) virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 16: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is?
 
A) Hepatitis B virus
 
B) Hepatitis C virus
 
C) Hepatitis E virus
 
D) Hepatitis A virus
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 17: A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram - positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occuring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is?
 
A) Listeria monocytogenes
 
B) Corynebacterium sp.
 
C) Enterococcus sp.
 
D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 18: The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial meningitis is?
 
A) Haemophilus influenzae type b
 
B) Neisseria meningitidis
 
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
 
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 19: Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months - 12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except?
 
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
 
B) Neisseria meningitidis
 
C) Hemophilus influenzae type B
 
D) Listeria monocytogenes
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 20: A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E coli is likely to be the causative agent?
 
A) O157:H7
 
B) O159:H7
 
C) O107:H7
 
D) O55:H7
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 21: In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except?
 
A) Vibrio cholerae
 
B) Shigella sp.
 
C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
 
D) Staphylococcus aureus