MEDICAL PG QUESTIONS

AIIMS MAY 2009

2012-01-07T21:03:00.000-08:00

Anatomy

1. Not a sphincter of vagina:

A. Pubovaginalis

B. Internalurethral sphincter

C. Externalurethral sphincter

D. Bulbospongiosum

Ans. (C)

2. Urothelium lines of the following except:

A. Ureter

B. MembranousUrethra

C. Bladder

D. MajorCalyces

Ans. (B)

3. Endothelial cells of cornea derived from:

A. Endoderm

B. Mesoderm

C. NeuralCrest

D. Ectoderm

Ans. (C)

4. Anterior posterior stability of eye ball ismaintained by

A. SR

B. SO

C. Retroorbital fat

D. Tennoncapsule

Ans. (C)

5. Sphincter of Odi has how many sphincters?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Ans. (B)

6. Structure passing along with aortain/aortic hiatus?

A. Thoracicduct and azygos vein

B. Thoracicduct and hemiazygos vein

C. Lt.Vagus nerve azygos vein

D. Lt.Vagus nerve and hemiazygos vein

Ans. (A)

7. Segment of liver which drains left hepaticduct?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 6

Ans. (B)

8. False about hepatic duct:

A. Lefthepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure

B. Lefthepatic duct crosses IV segment

C. Righthepatic duct crosses V and VIII segments

D. Caudatelobe drains only left hepatic duct

Ans. (D)

9. Pain in arm, loss of contour of deltoid& failure of abduction after tetanus vaccine 5 days after vaccination dueto

A. Brachialneuritis

B. Radialn entrapment

C. Thoracicoutlet syndrome

D. HystericalSyndrome

Ans. (A)

10. Capacitation of sperms takes place in:

A. Uterus

B. Epidydymis

C. Seminalvesicles

D. Seminiferoustubules

Ans. (A)

11. Enophthalmos is caused by:

A. Superiorlevator paralysis

B. Tennonscapsule instability

C. Orbiculisoculi paralysis

D. Superiortarsal muscle paralysis

Ans. (A)

12. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnicnerves?

A. Appendix

B. Uterus

C. Rectum

D. Urinarybladder

Ans. (A)

13. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:

A. Splenic

B. Gastroduodenal

C. Superiormesenteric

D. Coeliac

Ans. (B)

14. All are of adult size at birth except:

A. Mastoidantrum

B. Ossicles

C. Orbitalcavity

D. Maxillaryantrum

Ans. (D)

15. Deltoid ligament is not attached to:

A. Medialcuneiform

B. Medialmalleolus

C. Sustentaculumtali

D. Springligament

Ans. (A)

16. Structures deep to the posterior belly ofdigastric are all except:

A. Hypoglossalnerve

B. Hyoglossus

C. Retromandibularvein

D. Occipitalartery

Ans. (C)

PSM

17. Which is not a mode of health education?

A. Primaryhealth care approach

B. Regulatoryapproach

C. Serviceapproach

D. Massmedia

Ans. (D)

18. Most common mode of lead poisoning:

A. Orally

B. Contact

C. Inhalation

D. AirPollution

Ans. (C)

19. Target population for targeted interventionfor HIV includes all except:

A. Migrantlabourers

B. Sexworkers

C. Streetchildren

D. Industrialworkers

Ans. (D)

20. STEPS approach by WHO is for assessingincidents of risk factor for:

A. Communicablediseases

B. Noncommunicable diseases

C. Immunedeficient diseases

D. Autoimmunediseases

Ans. (B)

21. Nested case control study is a type of:

A. Prospectivestudy

B. Retrospectivestudy

C. Ecologicalstudy

D. Casecontrol study

Ans. (A)

22. To know the prevalence of cataract in apopulation at a given point of time study design used is:

A. CrossSectional

B. Cohort

C. Ecological

D. Casecontrol

Ans. (A)

23. HIV screening in pregnancy as recommended byCDC?

A. Universalscreening

B. Symptomatic

C. Opt.In screening

D. Opt.Out screening

Ans. (D)

24. Blood banks get permission to operate from:

A. NACO

B. NABL

C. StateMinistry/Ministry of Health

D. DrugController General of India

Ans. (D)

25. Not a part of targets for 10th Five YearPlans?

A. IncreaseCataract Surgery to 450/lakh population

B. IOLimplantation in more than 80% of cataract operations

C. Developmentof 50 paediatric ophthalmology units.

D. 100%coverage of Vit. Aprophylactic doses from 9 months to 3 years of age children

Ans. (D)

26. Thiamine requirement by body depends onconsumption of:

A. Carbohydrates

B. Fats

C. Aminoacids

D. Minerals

Ans. (A)

27. Profit put before health in which view?

A. Marxist

B. Feminist

C. Foucaldiantheory

D. Personian

Ans. (A)

28. Safe disposal of Mercury?

A. Buryunder earth

B. Collectcarefully and reuse

C. Combustion

D. Treatwith chemical

Ans. (B)

29. Acquired, constant & permanent but liableto change later on

A. Knowledge

B. Culturalbelieve

C. Practice

D. Attitude

Ans. (A)

30. A temporary, provisional views held by thepeople on a point of view is

A. Opinion

B. Culturalbelieve

C. Practice

D. Attitude

Ans. (A)

31. Which doesn’t measure association?

A. Pvalve

B. Oddsratio

C. Relativerisk

D. Cronbach’alpha

Ans. (D)

Pediatric

32. A 10-month-old baby previously normal,suddenly becomes distressed in his crib. The external appearance of genitaliawas normal, except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose showed a level of 30mg%.What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. 21hydroxylasedeficiency

B. Hyperinsulinism

C. Familialglucocorticoid deficiency

D. Cushing’ssyndrome

Ans. (C)

33. A 3-month-old female child with normalgenitalia and normal blood pressure presents to the emergency department withsevere dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement blood levelsof which of the following will be helpful?

A. 17-hydroxyprogesterone

B. Renin

C. Cortisol

D. Aldosterone

Ans. (A)

34. A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly,abdominal distension, jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification. Which of thefollowing is the diagnosis?

A. Adrenalhemorrhage

B. Wolman’sdisease

C. Pheochromocytoma

D. Addison’sdisease

Ans. (B)

35. All are true about scurvy except:

A. Skeletalchanges in adult occur with clinical deficiency of Vit. C

B. Defectiveproximal calcification is the central cause for bone change

C. Cartilaginousovergrowth results in widening of epiphyseal plate

D. Bowingof legs

Ans. (B)

36. Pilocytic astrocytoma false is:

A. Spreadsto posterior fossa

B. Seenat eighty years of age

C. Bestprognosis among all intracranial neoplasms

D. Surgeryand radiation therapy used for treatment

Ans. (B)

Obstetrics& gynaecology

37. Caesarean section can be done in which heartdisease during pregnancy:

A. Eissenmengersyndrome

B. AS

C. Cardiomyopathy

D. Aorticaneurysm

Ans. (D)

38. Mayer Rokintansky Kuster Kauser:

A. Absentovary uterus present

B. Absentovary, uterus and vagina

C. Absentuterus and vagina

D. Uterusabsent, tubes and ovary present

Ans. (D)

39. A lady presented with creamy white vaginaldischarge with fishy odour, drug of choice is:

A. Doxycycline

B. Ofloxacin

C. Metronidazole

D. Chondamycin

Ans. (C)

40. All are true about aneuploidy except:

A. 30%of trisomy 21 fetus die in utero

B. 80%of trisomy 18 fetus die in utero

C. Occurrenceof aneuploidy has no relation with the progression of mother’s age

D. Notrecalled

Ans. (C)

41. Pregnancy is Contradiction in all except:

A. Eissenmengersyndrome

B. WPWsyndrome

C. PPHT

D. Marfaninvolving aortic root

Ans. (A)

42. Not true in a diabetic pregnant patience?

A. Riskof congenital malformation is 6-10%.

B. 1-2%incidence of single umbilical artery

C. Freeradical is most important cause of injury

D. InsulinR 500 IU can be given

Ans. (D)

43. Clomiphene citrate:

A. Itis antiestrogenic

B. Trialsshown used in increase sperm count in oligospermia

C. Twinpregnancy incidence increased by 40%

D. 3fold increase in pregnancy compared to placebo.

Ans. (A)

44. Tran abdominal Chronic villas sampling isbests done on:

A. 7-9wk

B. 9-11wk

C. 11-13wk

D. 20-24wk

Ans. (C)

45. Vase previa true is condition seen is

A. ECSat 38 wks

B. U/SLow lying placeta in the second trimester is a risk facto

C. Incidenceis 1 in 1500 cases

D. Mortalityassociation is 20%

Ans. (A)

Anaesthesia

46. Flat capnogram is seen in all except:

A. Intraoperativedisplacement of endotracheal tube

B. Disconnectionof endotracheal tube

C. Mechanicalventilation failure

D. Bronchospasm

Ans. (D)

47. Most cardiostable:

A. Ketamine

B. Thiopentone

C. Etomidate

D. Propofol

Ans. (C)

48. Coeliac pluexes block complication is:

A. Retroperitonealhaemorrhage

B. Pneumothorax

C. Intra-arterialinjury

D. Hypotension

Ans. (D)

49. Which is seen after tracheostomy?

A. IncreasedV/P ratio

B. Inversionof V/P ratio

C. Decreasein dead space

D. Increasedresistance to air flow

Ans. (C)

50. Methemoglobinemia is caused which localanaesthetic?

A. Prilocaine

B. Procaine

C. Lidocaine

D. Ropivacine

Ans. (A)

51. Which is safe in myasthenia gravis?

A. Aminoglycosides

B. Azathioprine

C. Tetracycline

D. Phenytoin

Ans. (D)

52. True about CPAP ail except:

A. Usedprophylactically in baby born with <1 kg wt or <28 weeks gestation

B. Initiateas early in preterm with resp. diseases

C. Initiatewith <50-60% Fi O2

D. Improedlung compliance and oxygenation

Ans. (A)

Microbiology

53. Listeria culture media:

A. Baker

B. Korthoff

C. Tinsdale

D. Bloodagar

Ans. (D)

54. All are dimorphic except:

A. Blastomyces

B. Histoplasma

C. Penicilliummameffei

D. Phialophora

Ans. (D)

55. Microaerophilic bacteria:

A. Campylobacter

B. Vibriocholera

C. Pseudomonas

D. Salmonella

Ans. (A)

56. Treponema palidum isolated from CSF in whichstage?

A. Primarysyphilis

B. Secondarysyphilis

C. Tertiarysyphilis

D. Tabesdorsalis

Ans. (A/B)

57. All cause malasorption syndromes except:

A. Giardiasis

B. Ascaris

C. Strongyloides

D. Capillariaphillipinesis

Ans. (B)

58. Congenital toxoplasmosis not true:

A. IgAis more sensitive than IgM

B. Anincrease in IgM beyond 1st week of life is diagnostic

C. IgGis diagnostic

D. Dyetest is used

Ans. (C)

59. Acid fast organism with oocyst of size 5µm onstool examination, causing diarrhea in HIV positive patient:

A. Cryptosporidium

B. Isosporabelli

C. Microsoporidia

D. Blastocystishominii

Ans. (A)

60. A traveler present with conjugatedhyperbilirubinemia and on USG investigations a egg was found in his biliarytract. Likely organism:

A. Clonorchissinensis

B. Pasciolabuski

C. Gnathostomata

D. Ascaris

Ans. (A)

61. Which species of Clostridum does not causegas gangrene?

A. Cl.perfringes

B. Cl.Histolyticum

C. C.Novyii

D. C.Sporogenes

Ans. (D)

62. Autoinfection is seen with:

A. Cryptosporidium

B. Strogyloidies

C. Giardia

D. Ganthostoma

Ans. (B)

63. Intermediate host of echinococcusgranulossus?

A. Dog

B. Pig

C. Cat

D. Man

Ans. (D)

Pathology

64. Annexin 5 is seen attached to an imermeablecell. The cell is in the process of:

A. Cellcycle progression

B. Cellcycle stops

C. Apoptosis

D. Necrosis

Ans. (C)

65. Hyperplasia and hypertrophy both occur in:

A. Breastenlargement during puberty

B. Uterusduring pregnancy

C. Skeletalmuscle enlargement during exercise

D. Leftventricle hypertrophy

Ans. (B)

66. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia in liver isassociated with?

A. Viralhepatitis

B. Alcoholichepatitis

C. Autoimmunehepatitis

D. Renaltransplantation

Ans. (D)

67. Most common cause of cancer with ageing:

A. Telomeraseinhibition

B. Telomerasereactivation

C. Suppressionof proto-oncogene’s

D. Increasedsignals for apoptosis

Ans. (B)

68. True about Metastatic calcification:

A. Startsin mitochondria

B. Occursin damaged cardiac valves

C. Occursin dead tissues

D. Calciumlevels are normal

Ans. (A)

69. Patch test denotes which type ofhypersensitivity?

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

Ans. (D)

70. Skip lesions seen in:

A. Crohn’sdisease

B. Ulcerativecolitis

C. Typhoid

D. TBenteritis

Ans. (A)

71. All are true except:

A. ChediakHigashi syndrome is due to deficient phagolysosome formation.

B. InBruton’s agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected

C. Mycloperoxidaseaction is mainly due to HOCl.

D. NADPHoxidase acts via superoxide ions.

Ans. (B)

Biochemistry

72. Eukaryotic membrane is made up of all except:

A. Triglycerides

B. Carbohydrates

C. Cholesterol

D. Lecithin

Ans. (A)

73. What is not done by insulin?

A. Glycolysis

B. Ketogenesis

C. Glycogenesis

D. Lipogenesis

Ans. (B)

74. Which migrates fastest on paperchromatography on methylcellulose medium:

A. Ascorbicacid

B. Glycine

C. Lysine

D. Valine

Ans. (D)

75. True about translation in eukaryoks are allexcept:

A. Nformyl methionine transfer RNA will be the first

B. 5’3’direction

C. 3’5’direction

D. EF2 shift b/w GDP & GTP

Ans. (B)

76. NO formed in body by

A. LArginine

B. Glycine

C. Valine

D. Asparticacid

Ans. (A)

77. Oligomisnorm gene used in Primer

A. Sitedirected mutagenesis

B. RELP

C. Errorbase PCR

D. Masschromatography

Ans. (C)

ENT

78. Endolymph is secreted by:

A. Haircells

B. StriaVascularis

C. Scalatympani

D. ScalaVestibuli

Ans. (B)

79. Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3.Treatment is given:

A. Oralsteroids + Vit. B

B. Vit.B + Vasodilators

C. OralSteroids + Acyclovir

D. Intratympanicsteroids

Ans. (B)

80. Man with strained n croaky voice withspasmodic dysfunction

A. Adductorspasm,

B. Abductorspasm

C. Botoxin pca best treatment

D. Type4 thyroplasty is treatment

Ans. (A)

Pharmacology

81. Cerebellar toxicity is caused by

A. Cytosinearabinoside

B. Bleomycin

C. Cisplatin

D. Busulfan

Ans. (A)

82. Tolazoline is used as:

A. Vasoconstrictorin treatment of gastro esophageal varices.

B. Vasodilatorduring angiography to relieve vasospasm

C. Anew radio-contrast agent

D. Newantispasmodic during biliary spasm

Ans. (B)

83. Side effect of Amiodarone

A. Fibrosis

B. Cirrhosis

C. ProductiveCough

D. Cornealmicro deposits

Ans. (C)

84. Treatment of heparin overdose is:

A. Vit.-K

B. Bloodtransfusion

C. Protaminesulphate

D. Plateletinfusion

Ans. (B)

85. Thalidomide not used in:

A. HIVassociated neuropathy

B. Bechet’s

C. HIVassociated oral ulcers

D. ENCL

Ans. (A)

86. Which can be given orally:

A. Cytosinearabinoside

B. ActinomycinD

C. Mesna

D. Doxorubicin

Ans. (B)

87. Allopurinol used in organ preservation as:

A. Freeradical destruction

B. Preservative

C. Antioxidant

D. Noneof above

Ans. (A)

88. True about warfarin are all except:

A. Crossesplacenta, should not be given in pregnancy

B. Vit.K dependent factors inhabited

C. t½is 36 hours

D. Inliver disease dose in increased

Ans. (D)

89. Pharmacovigilance:

A. Checkcost of drugs

B. Checkdrug safety

C. Monitoringof pharmacy students

D. Keepa check on dealers

Ans. (B)

90. Cetuximab used in

A. Palliativetreatment in head neck ca

B. Analcanalca

C. Smallcell ca lung

D. Gastriccancer

Ans. (A)

91. Mechanism of action of Multi Drug Resistancegene:

A. Inhibitprodrug activation

B. Effluxof the drug from the cell

C. Increasingthe rate of metabolism of drug

D. Inactivatingthe receptors for drug action

Ans. (B)

92. Not true about cephalosporin:

A. Inhibitcell wall synthesis

B. Cefoperazoneis antipseudomonal

C. Cetazidimeis third generation cephalosporin

D. Cefoxitinhas no anaerobic activity

Ans. (D)

93. Digitalis toxicity potentiated by all except:

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Hypomagnesemia

C. Hyperalcemia

D. Renalfailure

Ans. (A)

94. For ACE inhibitors, which of the following istrue?

A. Inhibitangiotensionogen conversion to angiotensin-I

B. Omitdiuretics to prevent 1st dose hypotension

C. Enaloprilis more long acting than Lisinopril

D. Can’tbe given till systolic function resolves.

Ans. (B)

95. Highest emetic potential is by

A. Cisplatin

B. Highdose methotrexate

C. Highdose Cyclophosphamide

D. Vincristine

Ans. (A)

Surgery

96. Death in Crohn’s most commonly due to

A. Thromboembolism

B. Sepsis

C. Malignancy

D. Electrolyteimbalance

Ans. (B)

97. Seminomatous and non-seminematous tumors trueis all except:

A. Seminomatouswhen localised to testis give radiotherapy

B. Nonseminomatous when localized to testis orchidectomy + removal of RPLN.

C. Seminomatousspread by haematogenous route as compared to non seminomatous.

D. Nonseminomatous are more malignant thn seminomatous.

Ans. (C)

98. Boover sign is used for testing muscle of

A. Respiratory

B. Abdominal

C. Facial

D. Occular

Ans. (C)

99. Sister joseph marry nodule in which a

A. Gastric

B. Pancreatic

C. Colon

D. Ovarian

Ans. (A)

100. Which of the following is used to definepenetrating neck injury?

A. 2cm. Depth of wound

B. Injuryto vital structures

C. Breachof platysma

D. Throughand through wound

Ans. (C)

101. Choledochal cyst not true

A. TypeSecond is m/c type

B. Ruptureleads to peritonitis

C. Radicalexcision & reconstruction of biliary tract is treat meant of choice

D. Linedby squamous epithelium

Ans. (A)

102. Not a premalignant lesion of esophagus

A. Medistinalfibrosis

B. Causticburn

C. Humanpapilloma virus

D. Diverticula

Ans. (D)

103. Most common cause of esophagitis

A. Smoking

B. Alcohol

C. RefluxDisease

D. Increasedintake of Spices

Ans. (C)

104. Most common cause for nosocomial infection

A. Admissionfor elective surgery

B. Admissionfor normal delivery

C. Knowneoplasm patient in OPD for follow up

D. Endoscopicevaluation

Ans. (A)

105. Stain used 2 find carcinoma while doingendoscopy

A. Toluidineblue

B. Gentianviolet

C. Hematoxylin2 eosin

D. MethyleneBlue

Ans. (A)

106. Double bubble sign is seen with:

A. Esophagealatresia

B. Pyloricstenosis

C. Duodenalatresia

D. Healatresia

Ans. (C)

107. Penile Angiography is indicated in all except:

A. Peyronie’sdisease

B. Vascularmalformation

C. Priapism

D. Ischemicerectile dysfunction

Ans. (A)

108. Most important prognostic factor of renalcancer based on:

A. Sizeof tumor

B. Pathologicalstaging

C. Nucleargrading

D. Histology

Ans. (B)

Forensic

109. Large bruise with minimal trauma occurs in:

A. Scalp

B. Soles

C. Palm

D. Face

Ans. (D)

110. Cuts of genitalia are commonly:

A. Homicidal

B. Post-mortemartifact

C. Accidental

D. Selfinflicted

Ans. (A)

111. A pest control worker was brought to theemergency room with h/o pain in abdomen vomiting, garlic odor in breath, whichof the following is the most common poison?

A. Lead

B. Arsenic

C. Mercury

D. Phosphenes

Ans. (B)

112. Not a sign of ante-mortem contusion:

A. Sharpmargins

B. Raisedabove the surface

C. Coagulationof blood

D. Vitalreaction

Ans. (A)

Ophthalmology

113. Maximum refractive index is for:

A. Cornea

B. Anteriorsurface of lens

C. Centroidof lens

D. Posteriorsurface of lens

Ans. (C)

114. A young male presents with blurred vision inright eye followed by similar complaints in left eye after 3 months. Onexamination – Pupillary reflex is normal and centrocaecal scotoma is seen. Hehas parafoveal/juxtafovcal telangiectasia and disc hyperaemia. Most likelydiagnosis:

A. Leber’shereditary optic atrophy

B. Opticneuritis

C. Papilloedema

D. Toxicoptic neuropathy

Ans. (A)

115. Sclera is thinnest at:

A. Equator

B. Insertionof recti

C. Beneaththe recti

D. Behindthe insertion of recti

Ans. (D)

116. Diplopia with limitation of adduction of righteye with abduction saccades of left eye and normal convergent is due to:

A. Duane’sretractionsyndrome

B. Partial3rd nerve palsy

C. Internuclearophthalmoplegia

D. Absenceof medial rectus

Ans. (C)

117. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:

A. Blowon forehead

B. Blowon lower jaw

C. Blowon parietal bone

D. Fallon back of the head

Ans. (A)

Radiology

118. C1 C2 best seen in:

A. Lateralview

B. Obliqueview

C. APview

D. Odontoidview

Ans. (D)

119. Hounsefield Units depends on

A. Electrondensity

B. Massdensity

C. Effectiveatomic no. a

D. Attenuationration

Ans. (A)

120. Stereotactic surgery is done with all except:

A. Gammaknife CO60

B. Electron

C. Proton

D. Linearaccelerator

Ans. (None)

121. Revisable ischemia of the heart is detected by:

A. Angiography

B. Thalliumscan

C. MUGA

D. RestingEchocardiography

Ans. (B)

Psychiatry

122. Subcortical dementia occurs in all except:

A. Alzheimer’sdisease

B. SupranuclearPalsy

C. Parkinson’s

D. HIVassociated dementia

Ans. (A)

123. Formation and delusion of persecution occurssimultaneously in:

A. Cocaine

B. Amphetamine

C. Cannabis

D. Morphine

Ans. (A)

124. True about hallucination except:

A. Itoccurs in inner subjective space

B. Itis vivid as real sensation

C. Itoccurs in absence of stimuli

D. Itoccurs without the will of subject

Ans. (A)

125. Alcohol anticraving agents all are used except:

A. Lorazepam

B. Topiramate

C. Accemprosate

D. Naltrexone

Ans. (A)

126. Which of the following agent cannot be used astreatment of heroine dependence

A. Lorazepam

B. Naltrexone

C. Clonidine

D. Disulfiram

Ans. (D)

127. Best therapy suited to teach daily life skillto a mentally, challenged child:

A. CBT(Cognitive Behaviour Therapy)

B. Contingency

C. Cognitivereconstruction

D. Selfinstruction

Ans. (B)

128. A man taking 20 cigarettes per day, startedcoughing, his family suggested quitting cigaretes. He is ready to quit butthinks that quitting will make him irritable, the best health planning modelfollowed is:

A. Costand survival

B. Persuasion

C. Precontemplationand preparation

D. Belief

Ans. (C)

Orthopaedics

129. A 7 year old boy with abrupt onset of pain inhip with hip held in abduction. All investigations are normal except for a highvalue of ESR. Which is the next line of management?

A. Hospitalizeand observe

B. Ambulatoryobservation

C. Intravenous antibiotics

D. USGguided aspiration of hip

Ans. (B)

130. Haematogenous infection to bone involves whichpart of long bone?

A. Epiphysis

B. Diaphysis

C. Metaphysis

D. Wherenutrient artery enters bone

Ans. (C)

131. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is seen in whicharthritis?

A. Rheumatoidarthritis

B. Psoriaticarthritis

C. Ankylosingspondylitis

D. Osteoarthritis

Ans. (A)

132. Crescent fracture true is:

A. Acetabulumshift backwards

B. Rotationalinstability found.

C. Fractureof iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption

D. Dislocationof pubic symphysis with fracture of both iliac bones

Ans. (C)

133. Stability of posterior glenohumeral jointtested by:

A. Jerk’stest.

B. Fulcrumtest

C. Crnaktest

D. Sulcustest

Ans. (A)

134. Kocher Langenback procedure done in

A. Acetabularfracture

Ans. (A)

135. Emergency treatment of acetabular fracture donein A/E:

A. Recurrentdislocation despite Rx

B. Openace tubular #

C. Sciaticn entrapment

Ans. ()

136. Osteosclerotic bone lesion is found mostcommonly in which carcinoma?

A. Prostate

B. Kidney

C. Thyroid

D. Lung

Ans. (A)

Medicine

137. LV hypertrophy does not occurs in:

A. MS

B. AR

C. AS

D. MR

Ans. (A)

138. Most important cause of acute right heartfailure?

A. Tricuspidstenosis

B. Pulmonarystenosis

C. Massivepulmonary embolism

D. Tricuspidregurgitation

Ans. (C)

139. Bilateral medulary nephrocalcinosis seen in allexcept:

A. Hyperoxaluria

B. Barter’s

C. Prolongeduse of Furosemide

D. ARPKD

Ans. (D)

140. Histiocytosis which is false:

A. Highlyradiosensitive

B. Disseminatedis letterer sine disease

C. Seenin < 3 years old

D. Gonadalinvolvement is common

Ans. (A)

141. A 55 years old diabetic lady without anyprevious H/O headache presented with severe acute headache, nausea and onexamination found to have neck rigidity. Detailed history lead to finding apast H/O photophobia. Most common can be:

A. Acuteviral encephalitis

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Migrane

D. SAH

Ans. (D)

142. Right cerebral hemisphere damage seen is allexcept:

A. Visuospatialdeficit

B. Anosognosia

C. Dyscalculia

D. Dysgsraphia

Ans. (D)

143. Which is not true about primary Sjogern’ssyndrome?

A. Xerostomia

B. Xerophthalmia

C. Lymphoma

D. Connectivetissue disorder/autoimmune disorder

Ans. (D)

144. Gene therapy has been successfully used in:

A. Cysticfibrosis

B. Sicklecell anemia

C. Thalassemia

D. SCID

Ans. (D)

145. CNS finding in HIV patient are all except:

A. Giantcell surrounding vessels

B. Microglialnodules

C. Inclusionbody

D. Posteriorcolumn vaculopathy

Ans. (C)

146. Blood transfusion complications are all except:

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Citratetoxicity

C. Metabolicacidosis

D. Leucocytosis

Ans. (D)

147. Which of the following is NOT a cause ofcongenital hypercoagulability?

A. ProteinC deficiency

B. ProteinS deficiency

C. Antiphospholipidantibody syndrome

D. MLCSTRgene mutations

Ans. (C)

148. Following are true about Wilson’s diseaseexcept:

A. Serumceruloplasmin <20 mg/ac

B. 24hour urinary copper excretion <100 ug

C. Autosomalrecessive

D. Liverbiopsy with >200 ug/g dry weight is gold standard.

Ans. (B)

149. Treatment of a lady with sputum positivepulmonary TB in early pregnancy:

A. Startthe treatment with Cat. I immediately

B. Treatmentto be delayed till second trimester

C. CategoryII treatment in first trimester

D. CategoryIII treatment in first trimester

Ans. (A)

150. In prions disease all are true except:

A. Theyare caused by infections proteins

B. Neurodegenerativedisease

C. Biopsyof brain is specific

D. Myoclonuspresent in 10% cases.

Ans. (D)

151. Tumrolysis syndrome not seen:

A. Hyperuricemia

B. Hyperphosphatemia

C. Hypercalcemia

D. Hyperkalemia

Ans. (C)

152. Major Jone’s criteria for Rheumatic fever areall except:

A. Carditis

B. Chorea

C. Arthritis

D. ESR

Ans. (D)

153. A patient with memory impairment, visuo spatialdeficits and paranoid delusions is found to have neurofibrillary tangles in thebrain. Other pathological findings associated will be:

A. Amyloidplaque

B. LewyBodies

C. Xsynuclein

D. Negribodies

Ans. (A)

154. Most important in Coronary heart disease:

A. LDL

B. HDL

C. Triglycerides

D. VDL

Ans. (A)

155. Romberg sign positive with eyes closed in seenin lesions of:

A. Spinocerebellrtract

B. Spinothalamictract

C. Propriocetion

D. Pontocerebellartract

Ans. (C)

156. A man developed swelling of face frequentlywith occasional laryngeal edema, most probable diagnosis is:

A. C-lesterase deficiency

B. Allergy

C. Anaphylaxsis

D. Nonrecalled

Ans. (A)

157. Most common cause of acute RVF;

A. Massivepulmonary embolism

B. Tricuspidstenosis

C. Pulmonarystenosis

D. Tricuspidregurgitation

Ans. (A)

158. Drugs not used for the treatment of acutehyperkalemia:

A. Insulin+glucose

B. Potassiumexchange resins

C. Calciumgluconate

D. Sodiumbicarbonate

Ans. (B)

159. Blood borne infections are all except:

A. HepG

B. EBV

C. CMV

D. ParvovirusB19

Ans. (B)

160. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis:

A. Aftertransplant in Alport’s

B. Microscopicpolyangitis

C. HenochSchonlein purpura

D. SLE

Ans. (B)

161. Hypersensitivity vasculitis involves:

A. Arterioles

B. Postcapillary venules

C. Capillaries

D. Mediumsized arteries

Ans. (B)

162. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?

A. I.V.immunoglobulins

B. Steroids

C. Azathioprine

D. Methotrexate

Ans. (A)

163. All of the following are true about lupusanticoagulant except:

A. Prolongationof only aPTT

B. Recurrentsecond trimester absorption

C. Recurrentbleeding episodes

D. Canbe associated without any clinical symptoms

Ans. (B)

164. Serum fructosamine can be used in all, except:

A. Screeningof diabetes

B. Rapidchange in DM treatment

C. Shortterm control OD DM

D. Screeningof DM in pregnancy

Ans. (A)

165. The nobel prize in physiology or medicine for2007 jointly to Mario R. Capecchi, Martin J. Evans and Oliver Smithies fortheir discoveries of:

A. Detectionof chemical/growth factors for preventing growth of tumors

B. Principlesfor introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use embryonic stemcells

C. Nongenetic method treating muscular dystrophies

D. Notrecalled

Ans. (B)

Physiology

166. VIII nerve receives afferents of:

A. Taste

B. Balance

C. Pain

D. Smell

Ans. (B)

167. During Ovulation phase:

A. Increasein inhibin A level

B. FHSinduce steroid genesis in granulosa cells

C. DecreaseActivin A level

D. Reductiondivision occurs at the time of ovulation

Ans. (D)

168. Diff b/w Rods & Cones are all except in:

A. Sensitivity

B. Number

C. Typelight

D. Transduction

Ans. (D)

169. Somatomedin at normal physiologicalconcentration combination do:

A. Lypogenesis

B. Glyconeogenesis

C. Glucosetaken up by cells

D. Depositionof chondritin sulphate

Ans. (D)

170. Muscle spindle function:

A. Maintainmuscles length

B. Musclestension

C. Muscletone

D. Withdrawalreflex

Ans. (A)

171. High affinity of fetal Hb with O2 due to:

A. Decreases2, 3 DPG

B. ReducedpH

C. Increasereleases of CO

Ans. (A)

172. Development of fibers of cortex is:

A. Tangential

B. Vertical

C. Irregular

D. Horizontal

Ans. (B)

173. Central processing at auditory pathway is for

A. Speechdiscrimination

B. Frequencydiscrimination

C. Intensitydiscrimination

D. SoundLocalization

Ans. (D)

174. Estrogens action on carbohydrate metabolism

A. Increaseuptake of glucose through

B. Glycolysisincrease

C. Increasingcentral adipose deposition

D. Decreasefasting insulin level

Ans. (D)

Skin

175. Granular deposits of IgA in intradermal space:

A. Bullouspemphigoid

B. Pemphigusvulgaris

C. Dermatitisherpetiformis

D. Lichenplanus

Ans. (C)

176. IgG intercellular deposits are seen in:

A. Bullouspemphigoid

B. Pemphigusvulgaris

C. Dermatitisherpetiformis

D. Lichenplanus

Ans. (B)

177. IgA deposits on skin biopsy:

A. HenochSchouleiln puspura

B. Giantcell arteritis

C. Microscopicplyangitis

D. Wegener’sgranulomatosis

Ans. (A)

178. Neurofibromatosis all are true except:

A. Autosomalrecessive

B. Scoliosis

C. Neurofibroma

D. Associationwith cataract

Ans. (A)

AIIMS MAY 2003

2012-01-07T20:53:00.000-08:00

ANATOMY

Q 1. Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except:

A. Lens

B. Corneal epithelium

C. Conjunctival epithelium

D. Anterior layers of iris

Ans. D

Q 2. All of the following ligaments contribute to the stability ofankle (talocrural) joint except:

A. Calcaneonavicular (spring)

B. Deltoid

C. Lateral

D. Posterior tibiofibular

Ans. A

Q 3. In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular discbeyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from spasmor excessive contraction of the following muscle?

A. Buccinator

B. Lateral pterygoid

C. Masseter

D. Temporalis

Ans. B

Q 4. Following surgical removal of a firm nodular cancer swelling inthe right breast and exploration of the right axilla, on examination thepatient was found to have a winged right scapula. Most likely this could haveoccurred due to injury to the:

A. Subscapular muscle

B. Coracoid process of scapula

C. Long thoracic nerve

D. Circumflex scapular artery

Ans. C

Q 5. A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showedareas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spreadof this cancer to the above vertebrae was most probably through:

A. Sacral canal

B. Lymphatic vessels

C. Internal vertebral plexus of veins

D. Superior rectal veins

Ans. C

PHYSIOLOGY

Q 6. Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid volume (ECF)can be done by using:

A. Sucrose

B. Mannitol

C. Inulin

D. Aminopyrine

Ans. C

Q 7. A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associatedwith cardiovasucular adjustments. Which of the following is not true inthis context:

A. Rise in central venous pressure

B. Rise in heart rate

C. Decrease in cardiac output

D. Decrease in stroke volume

Ans. A

Q 8. There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT)after ovulation in women. This is causedby:

A. FSH peak

B. LH peak

C. Oestradiol

D. Progesterone

Ans. D

Q 9. A 55-year-old male accident victim in casualty urgently needsblood. Blood bank is unable to determine his ABO group, as his red cell groupand plasma group do not match. Emergency transfusion of patient should be with:

A. RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids/crystalloid

B. Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group

C. O positive RBC and colloids/crystalloid

D. AB negative whole blood

Ans. C

Q 10. All are correct about potassium balance except:

A. Most of potassium is intracellular

B. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletalmuscle

C. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space inresponse to severe injury or surgical stress

D. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular tointracellular fluid compartment

Ans. D

Q 11. In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the left arm ismediated by increased activity in afferent (sensory) fibres contained in the:

A. Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

B. Phrenic nerve

C. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve

D. Thoracic splanchnic nerve

Ans. D

Q 12. Osteoclast has specific receptor for:

A. Parathyroid hormone

B. Calcitonin

C. Thyroxine

D. Vitamin D3

Ans. B

Q 13. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all except:

A. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region

B. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek’s sign

C. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG

D. Carpopedal spasm

Ans. C

Q 14. The mechanism that protects normal pancreas from autodigestionis:

A. Secretion of biocarbonate

B. Protease inhibitors present in plasma

C. Proteolytic enzymes secreted in inactive form

D. The resistance of pancreatic cells

Ans. C

Q 15. Although more than 400 blood groups have been identified, the ABOblood group system remains the most important in clinical medicine because:

A. It was the first blood group system to be discovered

B. It has four different blood groups A, B, AB, O (H)

C. ABO (H) antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids

D. ABO (H) antibodies are invariably present in plasma when personsRBC lacks the corresponding antigen

Ans. D

Q 16. Father to son inheritance is never seen in case of:

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

C. X- linked recessive inheritance

D. Multifactorial inheritance

Ans. C

Q 17. The hormone associated with cold adaptation is:

A. Growth hormone

B. Thyroxine

C. Insulin

D. Melanocyte stimulating hormone

Ans. C

Q 18. Various cells respond differentially to a second messenger (suchas increased cAMP) because they have different:

A. Receptors

B. Enzymatic composition

C. Nuclei

D. Membrane lipids

Ans. B

Q 19. Brain lipid binding proteins is expressed by which of thefollowing:

A. Mature astrocytes

B. Oligodendrocytes

C. Purkinje cells

D. Pyramidal neurons

Ans. A

BIOCHEMISTRY

Q 20. A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of birth,vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on thethird day, by 5th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes showsigns of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucoseestimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause isdeficiency of:

A. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

B. Beta galactosidase

C. Glucose-6-phosphatase

D. Galactokinase

Ans. A

Q 21. The activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotindeficiency:

A. Transketolase

B. Dehydrogenase

C. Oxidase

D. Carboxylase

Ans. D

Q 22. Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:

A. HMG-CoA synthetase

B. Malic enzyme

C. Malonyl CoA synthetase

D. Fatty acid synthetase

Ans. B

Q 23. At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are:

A. Positively charged

B. Negatively charged

C. Neutral

D. Amphipathic

Ans. B

Q 24. Replication and transcription are similar processes inmechanistic terms because both:

A. Use RNA primers for initiation

B. Use deoxyribonucleotides as precursors

C. Are semi conserved events

D. Involve phosphodiester bond formation with elongation occurringin the 5'-3' direction

Ans. D

Q 25. Cholesterol present in LDL:

A. Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed fromperipheral cells

B. Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrane

C. On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDLreceptors

D. When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA:cholesterolacyltransferase (ACAT)

Ans. C

FORENSIC

Q 26. Species identification is done by:

A. Neutron activation analysis (NAA)

B. Precipitin test

C. Benzidine test

D. Spectroscopy

Ans. B

Q 27. A dead born fetus does not have

A. Rigor mortis at birth

B. Adipocere formation

C. Maceration

D. Mummification

Ans. B

Q 28. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadavericrigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be case of poisoning due to:

A. Lead

B. Arsenic

C. Mercury

D. Copper

Ans. B

Preventive and Social Medicine

Q 29. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is:

A. Diarrheal diseases

B. Birth injuries

C. Low birth weight

D. Congenital anomalies

Ans. C

Q 30. In calculating dependency ratio, the numerator is expressed as:

A. Population under 10 years and 60 and above

B. Population under 15 years and 60 and above

C. Population under 10 years and 65 and above

D. Poputation under 15 years and 65 and above

Ans. D

Q 31. An adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 monthsand haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it wasfound that he had already received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from anearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage thepatient?

A. Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3

B. Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3

C. Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3

D. Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3

Ans. C

Q 32. Residents of three villages with three different types of watersupply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carrier.Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtuallyeveryone present at the time submitted to examination. The proportion ofresidents in each village who were carriers was computed and compared. Thisstudy is a:

A. Cross-sectional study

B. Case-control study

C. Concurrent cohort study

D. Non-concurrent

Ans. A

Q 33. The following is true about the term ‘new families’:

A. It is a variant of the 3-generation family

B. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 10 yearsduration

C. It is a variant of the joint family

D. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 2 yearsduration

Ans. B

Q 34. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy- test kit for use onan outpatient basis. The company used the pregnancy test on 1 00 women who areknown to be pregnant. Out of 100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using thesame test on 100 non-pregnant women, 90 showed negative result. What is thesensitivity of the test?

A. 90%

B. 99%

C. Average of 90 & 99

D. Cannot be calculated from the given data

Ans. B

Q 35. A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite.There was a maculo-papular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. Thecause of this infection can be:

A. Scrub typhus

B. Endemic typhus

C. Rickettsial pox

D. Epidemic typhus

Ans. D

Q 36. All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except:

A. It is a zoonotic infection

B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

C. No rash is seen

D. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis

Ans. D

Q 37. Reservoir of Indian kala azar is:

A. Man

B. Rodent

C. Canine

D. Equine

Ans. A

Q 38. All of the following features are suggestive of asbestosis except:

A. Occurs within five years of exposure

B. The disease progresses even after removal of contact

C. Can lead to pleural mesothelioma

D. Sputum contains asbestos bodies

Ans. A

Q 39. A screening test is used in the same way in two similarpopulations; but the proportion of false positive results among those who testpositive in population A is lower than those who test positive in population B.What is the likely explanation?

A. The specificity of the test is lower in population A

B. The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A

C. The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A

D. The specificity of the test is higher in population A

Ans. C

Q 40. An investigator wants to study the association between maternalintake of iron supplements (yes/no) and birth weights (in gms) of newbornbabies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns.What statistical test of hypothesis would you advise for the investigator inthis situation?

A. Chi-square test

B. Unpaired or independent t-test

C. Analysis of variance

D. Paired t-test

Ans. B

Q 41. The usefulness of a screening test depends upon its:

A. Sensitivity

B. Specificity

C. Reliability

D. Predictive value

Ans. A

Q 42. For testing the statistical significance of the difference inheights of school children among three socio-economic groups, the mostappropriate statistical test is:

A. Student’s ‘t’ test

B. Chi-square test

C. Paired ‘t’ test

D. One way analysis of variance (one way ANOVA)

Ans. D

Q 43. For the field diagnosis of trachoma, the WHO recommends thatfollicular and intense trachoma inflammation should be assessed in:

A. Women aged 15-45 years

B. Population of 10 to 28 years range

C. Children aged 0-10 years

D. Population above 25 years of age irrespective of sex

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

Q 44. The diuretic group that does not require access to the tubularlumen to induce diuresis is:

A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

B. Na-Cl symport inhibitor

C. Mineralocorticoid antagonist

D. Na-K symport inhibitor

Ans. C

Q 45. The following is not true about the use of beta- blockers inheart failure:

A. It should be initiated at very low dose

B. It is most effective in new onset decompensated heart failure

C. Slow upward titration of dose is required

D. Carvedilol is most widely used in this condition

Ans. B

Q 46. km of an enzyme is:

A. Dissociation constant

B. The normal physiological substrate concentration

C. The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity

D. Numerically identical for all isoenzymes that catalyze a givenreaction

Ans. C

Q 47. An HIV positive patient is on anti retroviral therapy withzidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering fromgenito-urinary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should not begiven to this patient:

A. Isoniazid

B. Rifampicin

C. Pyrazinamide

D. Ethambutol

Ans. B

Q 48. Sodium 2-mercapto ethane sulfonate (mesna) is used as aprotective agent in:

A. Radiotherapy

B. Cancer chemotherapy

C. Lithotripsy

D. Hepatic encephalopathy

Ans. B

Q 49. A middle aged old man, with chronic renal failure is diagnosed tohave sputum-positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is25ml/min. All of the following drugs need modification in doses except:

A. Isoniazid

B. Streptomycin

C. Rifampicin

D. Ethambutol

Ans. C

Q 50. Use of which of the following drug is contraindicated inpregnancy:

A. Digoxin

B. Nifedipine

C. Amoxycillin

D. Enalapril

Ans. D

Q 51. The following statement is not true about sotalol:

A. It is a non-selective beta-blocker

B. It prolongs action potential duration throughout the heart

C. It is excreted through bile following hepatic metabolism

D. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a common side-effect

Ans. C

Q 52. All of the following drugs are metabolised by acetylation except:

A. INH

B. Sulfonamides

C. Ketoconazole

D. Hydralazine

Ans. C

Q 53. All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against Pseudomonasaeruginosa except:

A. Cephadroxil

B. Cefepime

C. Cefoperazone

D. Ceftazidime

Ans. A

Q 54. The following statement is not true about the use of clonidine inthe treatment of hypertension:

A. Reduction in central sympathetic outflow

B. Increase in LDL-cholesterol on prolonged use

C. Sedation and xerostomia are common side effects

D. It can be combined with vasodilators

Ans. B

Q 55. For drugs with first order kinetics the time required to achievesteady state levels can be predicted from:

A. Volume of distribution

B. Half life

C. Clearance

D. Loading dose

Ans. B

Q 56. A patient with recent-onset primary generalized epilepsy developsdrug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriatecourse of action is:

A. Shift to clonazepam

B. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks

C. Shift to sodium valproate

D. Shift to ethosuximide

Ans. C

Q 57. A 60-year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II receptorantagonists (losartan) is posed for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensivedrug should be:

A. Continued till the day of operation

B. Discontinued 24 hours preoperatively

C. Discontinued one week preoperatively

D. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

Q 58. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to the followingvirulence factor:

A. M protein

B. Pyrogenic exotoxin

C. Streptolysin O

D. Carbohydrate cell wall

Ans. B

Q 59. The virulence factor of Nisseria gonorrhoeae includes allof the following except:

A. Outer membrane proteins

B. IgA protease

C. M-proteins

D. Pilli

Ans. C

Q 60. A ‘malignant pustule’ is a term used for:

A. An infected malignant melanoma

B. A carbuncle

C. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer

D. Anthrax of the skin

Ans. D

Q 61. The following statements are true regarding botulism except:

A. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin

B. Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease

C. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage

D. Clostridium baratti may cause botulism

Ans. A

Q 62. A 20 year old male had pain in abdomen and mild fever followed bygastroenteritis. The stool examination showed presence of pus cells and RBCs onmicroscopy. The etiological agent responsible is most likely to be:

A. Enteroinvasive E. coli

B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli

C. Enteropathogenic E. coli

D. Enetroaggregative E. coli

Ans. A

Q 63. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis all of thefollowing statements are true except:

A. It is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples

B. It is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole

C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis isstructurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin

D. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common inbacteremia due to B. fragilis

Ans. D

Q 64. There has been an outbreak of food borne salmonellagastroenteritis in the community and the stool samples have been received inthe laboratory. Which is the enrichment medium of choice:

A. Cary Blair medium

B. VR medium

C. Selenite “F” medium

D. Thioglycholate medium

Ans. C

Q 65. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture showsgrowth of grain positive cocci which are catalase positive and coagulasenegative. The most likely etiological agent is:

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Enterococcus faecalis

Ans. B

Q 66. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus:

A. Hepatitis C virus

B. Hepatitis B virus

C. Delta agent

D. Hepatitis E virus

Ans. B

PATHOLOGY

Q 67. The light brown perinuclear pigment seen on H & E staining ofthe cardiac muscle fibres in the grossly normal appearing heart of an 83 yearold man at autopsy is due to deposition of:

A. Hemosiderin

B. Lipochrome

C. Cholesterol metabolite

D. Anthracotic pigment

Ans. B

Q 68. Dystrophic gene mutation leads to:

A. Myasthenia gravis

B. Motor neuron disease

C. Poliomyelitis

D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Ans. D

Q 69. A 60 year old man presented with fatigue, weight loss andheaviness in left hypochondrium for 6 months. The hemogram showed Hb 10 gm/dL,TLC 5 lakhs/mm3,platelet count 4 lakhs/mm3, DLC: neutrophil 55%, lymphocytes 4%, monocytes 2%,basophils 6%, metamyelocytes 10%, myelocytes 18%, promyelocytes 2% and blastcells 3%. The most likely cytogenetic abnormality in this case is:

A. t(1;21)

B. t(9;22)

C. t(15;17)

D. Trisomy 21

Ans. B

Q 70. A renal biopsy from a 56 year old woman with progressive renalfailure for the past 3 years shows glomerular and vascular deposition of pinkamorphous material. It shows apple-green birefringence under polarized lightafter Congo red staining. These deposits are positive for lambda light chains.The person is most likely to suffer from:

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Tuberculosis

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Multiple myeloma

Ans. D

Q 71. A 40 year old male has chronic cough with fever for severalmonths. The chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern.Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammationcontaining epitheloid cell granuloma, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes.These findings are typical for which of the following type of hypersensitivityimmunologic responses:

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Ans. D

Q 72. An adult old man gets burn injury to his hands. Over few weeks,the burned skin heals without the need for skin grafting. The most criticalfactor responsible for the rapid healing in this case is:

A. Remnant skin appendages

B. Underlying connective tissues

C. Minimal edema and erythema

D. Granulation tissue

Ans. A

Q 73. On sectioning of an organ at the time of autopsy, a focal,wedge-shaped firm area is seen accompanied by extensive hemorrhage, with a redappearance. The lesion has a base on the surface of the organ. This finding istypically of:

A. Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism

B. Heart with coronary thrombosis

C. Liver with hypovolemic shock

D. Kidney with septic embolus

Ans. A

Q 74. “Tophus” is the pathognomic lesion of which of the followingcondition:

A. Multiple myeloma

B. Cystinosis

C. Gout

D. Eale’s disease

Ans. C

Q 75. Infertility is a common feature in “Sertoli cell only” syndromebecause:

A. Too many Sertoli cells inhibit spermatogenesisvia inhibin

B. Proper blood-testis barrier is not established

C. There is no germ cells in this condition

D. Sufficient number of spermatozoa are notproduced

Ans. C

Q 76. The most common infectious agent associatedwith chronic pyelonephritis is:

A. Proteus vulgaris

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Escherichia coli

Ans. D

MEDICINE

Q 77. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:

A. Tuberculosis

B. Malignancy

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Pulmonary infarction

Ans. B

Q 78. A 62 years old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergencydepartment with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alternans. Themost likely diagnosis is:

A. Pneumothorax

B. Pleural effusion

C. Cardiac tamponade

D. Constrictive pericarditis

Ans. C

Q 79. Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliableindicator of recent hepatitis B infection?

A. HBsAg

B. IgG anti-HBs

C. IgM anti-HBc

D. IgM anti-HBe

Ans. C

Q 80. Which of the following is the most common central nervous systemparasitic infection?

A. Echinococcosis

B. Sparganosis

C. Paragonimiasis

D. Neurocysticercosis

Ans. D

Q 81. The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:

A. Length of diastolic murmur

B. Intensity of diastolic murmur

C. Loudness of first heart sound

D. Split of second heart sound

Ans. A

Q 82. A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. Onexamination, she has wide, fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur(III/VI) in left second intercostal space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosisis:

A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainge

B. Tricuspid atresia

C. Ostium primum atrial septal defect

D. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension

Ans. C

Q 83. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of thefollowing clinical findings except:

A. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across mitral valve

B. Wide split second heart sound

C. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop

D. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve

Ans. D

Q 84. Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middlecerebral artery territory infarct?

A. Aphasia

B. Hemiparesis

C. Facial weakness

D. Dysarthria

Ans. A

Q 85. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in apatient with:

A. Small ventricular septal defect

B. Severe aortic regurgitation

C. Severe mitral regurgitation

D. Large atrial septal defect

Ans. D

Q 86. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:

A. Complete heart block

B. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

C. Acute myocardial infarction

D. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia

Ans. B

Q 87. Haemorrhagic pericarditis occurs in all of the followingconditions except:

A. Transmural myocardial infarction

B. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta

C. Metastatic disease of pericardium

D. Constrictive pericarditis

Ans. D

Q 88. The commonest cause of death in a patient with primaryamyloidosis is:

A. Renal failure

B. Cardiac involvement

C. Bleeding diathesis

D. Respiratory failure

Ans. B

Q 89. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrenthemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should beevaluated first:

A. Pulmonary artery

B. Bronchial artery

C. Pulomary vein

D. Superior vena cava

Ans. B

Q 90. The following statements regarding Turner syndrome are true except:

A. Occurence of Turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age

B. Most patients have primary amenorrhoea

C. Most patients have short stature

D. Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy

Ans. A

Q 91. A vasopressin analogue does not produce therapeutic effectthrough vasopression V-2 receptor in which of the following:

A. Central diabetes insipidus

B. Bleeding esophageal varices

C. Type 1 von Willebrand’s disease

D. Primary nocturnal enuresis

Ans. B

Q 92. An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semicomatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K+ (5.8 mmol/L); Na+ (136 mmol/L);blood pH (7.1), HCO3 (12 mmol/L),ketone bodies (350 mg/dl). The expected level of blood glucose for this ladyis:

A. < 45 mg/dl

B. < 120 mg/dl

C. > 180 mg/dl

D. < 75 mg/dl

Ans. C

Q 93. Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions,except:

A. Mitral stenosis

B. Hypothyroidism

C. Dilated cardiomyopathy

D. Mitral regurgitation

Ans. B

Q 94. Which of the following conditions is associated with Coombs’positive hemolytic anaemia:

A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

B. Progressive systemic sclerosis

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

Ans. C

Q 95. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated withtype I neurofibromatosis?

A. Optic nerve glioma

B. Meningioma

C. Acoustic Schwannoma

D. Low grade astrocytoma

Ans. A

Q 96. Ophthalmoplegic migraine means:

A. When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III andVI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania

B. When the headache is followed by partial paralysis of the IIInerve on the same side as the hemicrania without any scotoma

C. Headache associated with III, IV and VI nerve paralysis

D. Headache associated with optic neuritis

Ans. B

Q 97. After a minor head injury a young patient was unable to close hisleft eye and had drooling of saliva from left angle of mouth. He is sufferingfrom:

A. VII nerve injury

B. V nerve injury

C. III nerve injury

D. Combined VII and III nerve injury

Ans. A

Q 98. “Sleep apnoea”, is defined as a temporary pause in breathingduring sleep lasting at least:

A. 40 seconds

B. 30 seconds

C. 20 seconds

D. 10 seconds

Ans. D

Q 99. A 45 years old hypertensive male presented with sudden onsetsevere headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn’t have anyfocal neurological deficit. His CT scan showed blood in the Sylvain fissure.The probable diagnosis is:

A. Meningitis

B. Ruptured aneurysm

C. Hypertensive bleed

D. Stroke

Ans. B

Q 100. Which of the following statements about peptic ulcer disease istrue:

A. Helicobacter pylori eradication increases the likelihood ofoccurrence of complications

B. The incidence of complications has remained unchanged

C. The incidence of Helicobacter pylori reinfection in Indiais very low

D. Helicobacter pylori eradication does not alter therecurrence ratio

Ans. B

Q 101. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia?

A. Coronary angiography

B. MUGA scan

C. Thallium scan

D. Resting echocardiography

Ans. C

Q 102. Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensivehemorrhage:

A. Pons

B. Thalamus

C. Putamen/external capsule

D. Cerebellum

Ans. C

Q 103. Kenny packs were used in the treatment of:

A. Poliomyelitis

B. Muscular dystrophy

C. Polyneuropathies

D. Nerve injury

Ans. A

Q 104. The level of alpha fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except:

A. Cirrohosis of liver

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Yolk sac tumor

D. Dysgerminoma

Ans. D

PAEDIATRICS

Q 105. All of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkar, except:

A. High blood osmolarity

B. Hypoalbuminemia

C. Edema

D. Fatty liver

Ans. A

Q 106. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is:

A. Takayasu disease

B. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease)

C. Henoch Schonlein purpura

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

Ans. C

Q 107. All of the following are seen in rickets, except:

A. Bow legs

B. Gunstock deformity

C. Pot belly

D. Craniotabes

Ans. B

Q 108. In neonatal screening programme tor detection of congenitalhypothyroidism, the ideal place and time to collect the blood sample for TSHestimation is:

A. Cord blood at time of birth

B. Heal pad blood at the time of birth

C. Heal pad blood on 4th day of birth

D. Peripheral venous blood on 28th day

Ans. A

Q 109. A newborn baby had normal APGAR score at birth and developedexcessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choiceis:

A. Esophagoscopy

B. Bronchoscopy

C. MRI chest

D. X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed perorally into esophagus

Ans. D

Q 110. A 3-year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi.Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normalblood levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. Adiagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includesall, except:

A. Increased water intake

B. Low sodium diet

C. Reduced calcium intake

D. Avoid meat proteins

Ans. C

Q 111. The treatment of choice for primary grade V vesico-ureteric refluxinvolving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is:

A. Antibiotic prophylaxis

B. Ureteric reimplantation

C. Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of teflon

D. Bilateral ureterostomies

Ans. A

Q 112. Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the firstyear of life:

A. Atrial septal defect

B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

C. Truncus arteriosus

D. Double outlet right ventricle

Ans. A

Q 113. A 11-month old boy, weighing 3 kg, has polyuria, polydipsia anddelayed motor milestones. Blood investigations show creatinine of 0.5 mg/dl,potassium 3 mEq/1, sodium 125 mEq/1, chloride 88 mEq/l, calcium 8.8 mg/dl, pH7.46 and bicarbonate 26 mEq/l. Ultrasonography shows medullarynephrocalcinosis. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Renal tubular acidosis

B. Diabetes insipidus

C. Bartter’s syndrome

D. Pseudohypoaldosteronism

Ans. C

Q 114. One year old male child presented with poor urinary stream sincebirth. The investigation of choice for evaluation is:

A. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)

B. USG bladder

C. Intravenous urography

D. Uroflowmetry

Ans. A

Q 115. A new born baby has been referred to the casualty as a case ofcongenital diaphragmatic hernia. The first clinical intervention is to:

A. Insert a central venous pressure line

B. Bag and mask ventilation

C. Insert a nasogastric tube

D. Ventilate with high frequency ventilator

Ans. C

Q 116. A 9-years old child has steroid dependant nephrotic syndrome forthe last 5 years. He has received corticosteroids almost continuously duringthis period and has cushingoid features. The blood pressure is 120/86 mmHg andthere are bilateral subcapsular cataracts. The treatment of choice is:

A. Levamisole

B. Cyclophosphamide

C. Cyclosporin A

D. Intravenous pulse corticosteroids

Ans. B

Q 117. All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIVinfection in a 2 month old child, except:

A. DNA-PCR

B. Viral culture

C. HIV ELISA

D. p24 antigen assay

Ans. C

Q 118. A-13-year old boy is referred for evaluation of nocturnal enuresisand short stature. His blood pressure is normal. The hemoglobin level is 8g/dl, urea 112 mg/dl, creatinine 6 mg/dl, sodium 119 mEq/dl, potassium 4 mEq/l,calcium 7 mg/dl, phosphate 6 mg/dl and alkaline phophatase 300 U/l. Urinalysisshows trace proteinuria with hyaline casts; no red and white cells are seen.Ultrasound shows bilateral small kidneys and the micturating cystourethrogramis normal. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Alport’s syndrome

B. Medullary sponge kidney

C. Chronic glomerulonephritis

D. Nephronophthisis

Ans. D

SURGERY

Q 119. A three years old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Mostlikely cause is:

A. Stricture urethra

B. Neurogenic bladder

C. Urethral calculus

D. Posterior urethral valve

Ans. D

Q 120. There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in:

A. Posterior urethral valve

B. Bladder exstrophy

C. Anorectal malformation

D. Neonatal sepsis

Ans. A

Q 121. Hypochloremia, hypokalemia and alkalosis are seen in:

A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

B. Hirschsprung’s disease

C. Esophageal atresia

D. Jejunal atresia

Ans. A

Q 122. Post-dural puncture headache is typically:

A. A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space

B. Worse when lying down than in sitting position

C. Bifrontal or occipital

D. Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture

Ans. C

Q 123. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquidthan solids. The first investigation you will do is:

A. Barium swallow

B. Esophagoscopy

C. Ultrasound of the chest

D. CT scan of the chest

Ans. A

Q 124. Which of the following is not true of gas gangrene:

A. It is caused by Clostridium perfringens

B. Clostridium perfringens is a gram-negative spore-bearingbacillus

C. Gas gangrene is characterized by severe local pain, crepitus andsigns of toxemia

D. High dose penicillin and aggressive debridement of affectedtissue is the treatment of established infection

Ans. B

Q 125. In a blast injury, which of the following organ is least vulnerableto the blast wave:

A. GI tract

B. Lungs

C. Liver

D. Ear drum

Ans. C

Q 126. Which of the following is not a contraindication for extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) for renal calculi?

A. Uncorrected bleeding diasthesis

B. Pregnancy

C. Ureteric stricture

D. Stone in a calyceal diverticulum

Ans. D

Q 127. Which of the following is not an appropriate investigationfor anterior urethral stricture?

A. Magnetic resonance imaging

B. Retrograde urethrogram

C. Micturating cystourethrogram

D. High frequency ultrasound

Ans. A

Q 128. The recommended treatment for preputial adhesions producingballooning of prepuce during micturition in a 2-year-old boy is:

A. Wait and watch policy

B. Circumcision

C. Dorsal slit

D. Preputial adhesions release and dilatation

Ans. B

Q 129. Cells from the neural crest are involved in all except:

A. Hirschsprung’s disease

B. Neuroblastoma

C. Primitive neuroectodermal tumour

D. Wilms’ tumour

Ans. D

Q 130. A Warthin’s tumour is:

A. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland

B. A pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid

C. A carcinoma of the parotid

D. A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland

Ans. A

Q 131. Regarding testicular tumour, the following are false except:

A. They are commonest malignancy in older man

B. Seminomas are radiosensitive

C. Only 25% of stage 1 teratomas are cured by surgery alone

D. Chemotherapy rarely produces a cure in those with metastaticdisease

Ans. B

Q 132. Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy from lower esophagus in a 48 year old1ady with chronic heart burn shows presence of columnar epithelium with gobletcells. The feature is most likely consistent with:

A. Dysplasia

B. Hyperplasia

C. Carcinoma in-situ

D. Metaplasia

Ans. D

Q 133. Which of the following is not an oncological emergency:

A. Spinal cord compression

B. Superior vena caval syndrome

C. Tumor lysis syndrome

D. Carcinoma cervix stage III B with pyometra

Ans. D

Q 134. Use of tamoxifen in carcinoma of breast patients does not lead tothe following side effects:

A. Thromboembolic events

B. Endometrial carcinoma

C. Cataract

D. Cancer in opposite breast

Ans. D

Q 135. In the immediate post operative period the common cause ofrespiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, except:

A. Residual effect of muscle relaxant

B. Overdose of narcotic analgesic

C. Mild hypovolemia

D. Mycocardial infarction

Ans. C

Q 136. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. Themonitor shows that the end tidal CO2 has decreasedabruptly by 155 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

A. Hypothermia

B. Pulmonary embolism

C. Massive fluid deficit

D. Myocardial depression due to anaesthetic agent

Ans. B

ORTHOPAEDICS

Q 137. Direct impact on the bone will produce a:

A. Transverse fracture

B. Oblique fracture

C. Spiral fracture

D. Communited fracture

Ans. A

Q 138. A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting in her leg forseveral weeks with a low grade fever. A radiograph reveals a mass in thediaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and softtissue extension. A biopsy of the lesion, shows numerous small round cells,rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules. The most likely histologicaldiagnosis is:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma

B. Osteoblastoma

C. Ewing’s sarcoma

D. Chondroblastoma

Ans. C

Q 139. ‘Whip-lash’ injury is caused due to:

A. A fall from a height

B. Acute hyperextension of the spine

C. A blow on top to head

D. Acute hyperflexion of the spine

Ans. B

Q 140. On 3 phase 99mTc-MDP bone scan, which of the following bone lesionswill show least osteoblastic activity:

A. Paget’s disease

B. Osteoid osteoma

C. Fibrous dysplasia

D. Fibrous cortical defect

Ans. D

GYNAECOLOGY & OBSTETRICS

Q 141. Low dose progestational contraceptives primarily act on:

A. Oviductal motility

B. Uterine endometrium

C. Cervix

D. Pituitary

Ans. C

Q 142. The commonest cause of breech presentation is:

A. Prematurity

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Placenta praevia

D. Polyhydramnios

Ans. A

Q 143. According to WHO criteria, the minimum normal sperm count is:

A. 10 million/ml

B. 20 million/ml

C. 40 million/ml

D. 60 million/ml

Ans. B

Q 144. In triple screening test for Down syndrome during pregnancy all ofthe following are included except:

A. Serum beta hCG

B. Serum oestriol

C. Maternal serum alfa fetoprotein

D. Acetylcholinesterase

Ans. D

Q 145. All of the following are known side effects with the use oftocolytic therapy except:

A. Tachycardia

B. Hypotension

C. Hyperglycemia

D. Fever

Ans. D

Q 146. Periconceptional use of the following agent leads to reducedincidence of neural tube defects:

A. Folic acid

B. Iron

C. Calcium

D. Vitamin A

Ans. A

Q 147. All of the following drug have been used for medical abortion except:

A. Mifepristone

B. Misoprostal

C. Methotrexate

D. Atosiban

Ans. D

Q 148. Which statements is true regarding ventose (vaccumextractor):

A. Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal haematomas in new born aremore frequent than forceps

B. Can be applied whenfoetal head is above the level of ischial spine

C. Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps

D. Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotated

Ans. A

Q 149. A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation withpainless antepartum haemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft non-tender andhead engaged. The management for her would be:

A. Blood transfusion and sedatives

B. A speculum examination

C. Pelvic examination in OT

D. Tocolytics and sedatives

Ans. C

Q 150. The commonest cause of occipito-posterior position of fetal headduring labour is:

A. Maternal obesity

B. Deflexion of fetal head

C. Multiparity

D. Android pelvis

Ans. D

Q 151. The commonest congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetesmellitus is:

A. Multicystic kidneys

B. Oesophageal atresia

C. Neural tube defect

D. Duodenal atresia

Ans. C

Q 152. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutesand usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:

A. Early deceleration

B. Late deceleration

C. Variable deceleration

D. Prolonged deceleration

Ans. C

Q 153. Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancyoutcome:

A. Systemic lupus erythematous

B. IgA nephropathy

C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

D. Scleroderma

Ans. D

Q 154. A perimenopausal lady with well differentiated adenocarcinoma ofuterus has more than half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinallymph node metastasis. She is staged as:

A. Stage IIIB

B. Stage IIIC

C. Stage IVA

D. Stage IVB

Ans. D

OPHTHALMOLOGY

Q 155. Aniseikonia means:

A. Difterence in the axial length of the eyeballs

B. Difference in the size of corneas

C. Difference in the size of pupils

D. Difference in the size of images formed by the two eyes

Ans. D

Q 156. Common ocular manifestation in trisomy 13 is:

A. Capillary hemangioma

B. Bilateral microphthalmos

C. Neurofibroma

D. Dermoid cyst

Ans. B

Q 157. An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except:

A. Loss of vision in that eye

B. Dilatation of pupil

C. Ptosis

D. Loss of light reflex

Ans. C

Q 158. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in:

A. Endophthalmitis

B. Panophthalmitis

C. Intraocular tumours

D. Painful blind eye

Ans. B

Q 159. The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would include a11 except:

A. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous

B. Coats’ disease

C. Retinal astrocytoma

D. Retinal detachment

Ans. D

Q 160. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is:

A. Essentially topical medications

B. Trabeculoplasty

C. Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy

D. Cyclocryotherapy

Ans. C

Q 161. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initialvision screening of school children is done by:

A. School teachers

B. Primary level health workers

C. Eye specialists

D. Medical officers

Ans. A

Q 162. The eye condition for which the World Bank assistance was providedto the National Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is:

A. Cataract

B. Refractive errors

C. Trachoma

D. Vitamin A deficiency

Ans. A

Q 163. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goals, except:

A. Refractive errors

B. Cataract

C. Trachoma

D. Glaucoma

Ans. D

Q 164. On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditaryglaucoma:

A. Optineurin

B. Ephrins

C. RBA8

D. Huntingtin

Ans. A

Q 165. All of the following types of lymphoma are commonly seen in theorbit except:

A. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic & histiocytic

B. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated

C. Burkitt’s lymphoma

D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Ans. D

Q 166. AI1 the fol1owing muscles are innervated by facial nerve except:

A. Occipito-frontalis

B. Anterior belly of digastric

C. Risorius

D. Procerus

Ans. B

Q 167. Stapes foot plate covers:

A. Round window

B. Oval window

C. Inferior sinus tympani

D. Pyramid

Ans. B

Q 168. The treatment of choice for stage 1 cancer larynx is:

A. Radical surgery

B. Chemotherapy

C. Radiotherapy

D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy

Ans. C

Q 169. The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is:

A. Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum

B. Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum

C. Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum

D. Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening

Ans. B

Q 170. All the following signs could result from infection within theright cavernous sinus except:

A. Constricted pupil in response to light

B. Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopicexamination

C. Ptosis of the right eyelid

D. Right ophthalmoplegia

Ans. A

Dermatology

Q 171. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasisversicolar:

A. Ketoconazole

B. Metronidazole

C. Griseofulvin

D. Chloroquine

Ans. A

Q 172. A 24 year old male presents to a STD clinic with a single painlessulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for theetiological agent would be:

A. Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar withantibiotic supplement

B. Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies

C. Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy

D. Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture

Ans. C

Q 173. Podophyllum resin is indicated in the treatment of:

A. Psoriasis

B. Pemphigus

C. Condyloma acuminata

D. Condylomata lata

Ans. C

Q 174. A 24 years old female has flaccid bullae in the skin and oralerosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholytic blister. The mostlikely diagnosis is:

A. Pemphigoid

B. Erythema multiforme

C. Pemphigus vulgaris

D. Dermatitis herpetiformis

Ans. C

ANAESTHESIA

Q 175. Following spinal subarachnoid block a patient develops hypotension.This can be managed by the following means except:

A. Lowering the head end

B. Administration of 1000 ml of Ringer lacate before the block

C. Vasopressor drugs like methoxamine

D. Use of ionotrope like dopamine

Ans. A

Q 176. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenousanalgesic:

A. Remifantanil

B. Fentanyl

C. Alfentanil

D. Sufentanil

Ans. A

Q 177. The following combination of agents are the most preferred forshort day care surgeries:

A. Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane

B. Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane

C. Ketamine, pethidine, halothane

D. Propofol, morphine, halothane

Ans. A

Q 178. During laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation which of themaneuver is not performed:

A. Flexion of the neck

B. Extension of head at the atlanto-occipital joint

C. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upperincisors

D. In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted bythe tip

Ans. C

Q 179. The administration of succinylocholine to a paraplegic patient ledto the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finallycardiac arrest. The most likely cause is:

A. Hypercalcemia

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Anaphylaxis

D. Hypermagnesemia

Ans. B

Q 180. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury,which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead tocardiac arrest:

A. Atracurium

B. Suxamethonium

C. Vecuronium

D. Pancuronium

Ans. B

Q 181. A patient was administered epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5%lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension andrespiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. Thecommonest cause would be:

A. Allergy to drug administered

B. Systemic toxicity to drug administered

C. Patient got vasovagal shock

D. Drug has entered the subarachnoid space

Ans. D

Q 182. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anaesthesiamachines to prevent:

A. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines

B. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks

C. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery

D. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment

Ans. D

Q 183. The ‘pin index code’ of nitrous oxide is:

A. 2, 5

B. 1, 5

C. 3, 5

D. 2, 6

Ans. C

Q 184. The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoingporto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is:

A. Atracurium

B. Vecuronium

C. Pancuronium

D. Rocuronium

Ans. A

Q 185. In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia,you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic:

A. Thiopentone

B. Halothane

C. Propofol

D. Sevoflurane

Ans. B

Q 186. All of the following factors decrease the minimum alveolarconcentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except:

A. Hypothermia

B. Hyponatremia

C. Hypocalcemia

D. Anemia

Ans. C

Q 187. Visual analogue scale (VAS) is most widely used to measure:

A. Sleep

B. Sedation

C. Pain intensity

D. Depth of anaesthesia

Ans. C

Q 188. The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level. Inadministering anesthesia this may lead to all except:

A. Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube

B. Trauma to the subglottic region

C. Post operative stridor

D. Laryngeal oedema

Ans. D

Q 189. Regarding neonatal circumcision, which one of the following istrue:

A. It should be done without anaesthesia, as it is hazardous togive anaesthesia

B. It should be done without anesthesia, as neonates do notperceive pain as adults

C. It should be done under local anaesthesia only

D. General anaesthesia should be given to neonate for circumcisionas they also feel pain as adults

Ans. C

RADIOLOGY

Q 190. Stereotactic radio-surgery is a form of:

A. Radiotherapy

B. Radioiodine therapy

C. Robotic surgery

D. Cryosurgery

Ans. A

Q 191. Which one of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive forevaluation of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma:

A. Ultrasound

B. CT

C. MRI

D. MIBG scan

Ans. D

Q 192. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detectearly renal tuberculosis:

A. Intravenous urography

B. Ultrasound

C. Computed tomography

D. Magnetic resonance imaging

Ans. A

Q 193. All of the following form radiolucent stones except:

A. Xanthine

B. Cysteine

C. Allopurinol

D. Orotic acid

Ans. B

Q 194. For the treatment of deep seated tumors, the following rays areused:

A. X-rays and gamma-rays

B. Alpha rays and beta-rays

C. Electrons and positrons

D. High power laser beams

Ans. A

PSYCHIATRY

Q 195. The treatment of choice in attention deficit hyperactivity disorderis:

A. Haloperidol

B. Imipramine

C. Methylphenidate

D. Alprazolam

Ans. C

Q 196. Yawning is a common feature of:

A. Alcohol withdrawal

B. Cocaine withdrawal

C. Cannabis withdrawal

D. Opioid withdrawal

Ans. D

Q 197. False sense of perception without any external object or stimulusis known as:

A. Illusions

B. Impulse

C. Hallucination

D. Phobia

Ans. C

Q 198. A middle aged man presented with pain in back, lack of interest inrecreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite fortwo months. There was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinations. Hedid not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history ofpsychiatric illness. Routine investigations including haemogram, renal functiontests, liver function tests electrocadiogram did not reveal any abnormality.This patient should be treated with:

A. Haloperidol

B. Sertraline

C. Alprazolam

D. Olanzapine

Ans. B

Q 199. The following is a Schneider’s first rank symptom:

A. Persecutory delusion

B. Voices commenting on actions

C. Delusion of guilt

D. Incoherence

Ans. B

Q 200. An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly ofmyocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone foralmost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About aweek after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would ina routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing.Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would alsodiscuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadnessof mood when she was preoccupied with his thought. She should be treated with:

A. Clomipramine

B. Alprazolam

C. Electroconvulsive therapy

D. Haloperidol

Ans. D